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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 289 - 



Publications under the Regulations Act 
Publications en vertu de la Loi sur les règlements 

2005—01—29 

ONTARIO REGULATION 1/05 

made under the 

HEALTH PROTECTION AND PROMOTION ACT 

Made: December 15, 2004 
Filed: January 12, 2005 

Amending Reg. 569 of R.R.O. 1 990 
(Reports) 

Note: Regulation 569 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview wnich can be found at wvvw.e-la ws.gov. on. ca . 

1. (1) Subsection 1 (2) of Regulation 569 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 is amended by adding "or 
subsection 27 (1) or (2)" after "25 or 26". 

(2) Subsection 1 (3) of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

(3) Despite subsection (1), a report under section 25 or 26 of the Act with respect to leprosy shall be made in Form 3. 

2. (1) Subparagraphs 1 iii and iv of section 5 of the Regulation are revoked and the following substituted: 

iii. The name of the hospital and the date of admission if the person is admitted to a hospital or the name of the 
hospital and the date of each visit if the person is seen as an out-patient of the hospital. 

iv. Duration, stage and site of infection. 

(2) Subparagraph I ix of section 5 of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

ix. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to, serological tests, microscopic 
examination and cerebrospinal fluid examinations, together with the results of the tests. 

(3) Paragraph 1 of section 5 of the Regulation is amended by adding the following subparagraphs: 

xi. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired, 
xii. The number of contacts of the person who have been traced. 

(4) Paragraph 2 of section 5 of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

2. Chancroid, Chlamydia trachomatis infections. Gonorrhoea: 

i. The date of diagnosis. 

ii. The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

iii. The name of the hospital, the date of admission and the date of discharge if the person is admitted to hospital. 

iv. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired. 

v. The person responsible for tracing the contacts of the person. 

vi. The number of contacts who have been traced. 

vii. The agent of disease. 

viii. Medical condition of the person including signs and symptoms of the infection. 

ix. The case classification of the person. 

X. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to, culture and antimicrobial 
sensitivity, serological tests, microscopic examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, together with the 
resultsof the tests. 

1 



290 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

xi. The source of infection including history of exposures, 
xii. Risk factors for the disease, 
xiii. The travel history of the person, including: 

A. Date and place of entry into country where disease acquired. 

B. Date of departure from country where disease acquired. 

C. Travel within country where disease acquired by dale, place and length of stay. 

xiv. Initial treatment, if any, of the infection, including, without being limited to, the drugs and dosage used. 

XV. If initial treatment has been given, the place, date and physician responsible for administration of treatment. 

xvi. Final effective treatment including, without being limited to, the drugs and dosage used. 

xvii. If effective treatment has been given, the place, date and physician responsible for administration of treatment. 

xviii. The date of death and relation of the infection to the cause of death, if the person is deceased. 

(5) Paragraph 4 of section 5 of the Regulation is amended by striking out the portion before subparagraph i and 
substituting the following: 

4. Lassa Fever, Hemorrhagic fevers including Ebola virus disease, Marburg virus disease and Hemorrhagic fevers from 
other viral causes and Plague: 



(6) Section 5 of the Regulation is amended by adding the following paragraphs: 

5. Chickenpox (Varicella), Diphtheria, Haemophilus influenzae b disease, invasive. Measles, Meningitis, acute. 
Meningococcal disease, invasive. Mumps, Pertussis (Whooping Cough), Pneumococcal disease, invasive, 
Poliomyelitis, acute. Rubella, Rubella, congenital syndrome. Tetanus: 

i. The date of the diagnosis. ^ 

ii. Theagent of disease. 

iii. The name and address of the physician attending the person, 

iv. Medical condition and status of the person including signs, symptoms and site, if any, of the infection. 

V. The clinical history of the person, including: 

A. The name of the hospital, date of admission and the date of discharge from the hospital if the person is 
admitted to hospital or the name of the hospital if the person is seen as an out-patient of the hospital. 

B. The date and duration of isolation, if isolated. 

C. Vaccination history. 

vi. The case classification of the person. 

vii. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited, to culture and antimicrobial 
sensitivity, serological tests, microscopic examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, together with the 
results of the tests. 

viii. Association with outbreak and outbreak number, if applicable. 

ix. Current treatment, if any, of the infection, setting out the drugs and dosage used and the date treatment 
commenced and ended. 

X. Completion of the course of treatment including the major mode of therapy and the treatment compliance. 

xi. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired. 

xii. The source of infection including history of exposures and potential for community transmission. 

xiii. Risk factors for the disease. 

xiv. The immigration status and origin of the person, including: 

A. Country of birth. 

B. Country of last residence. 

C. Date of arrival in Canada. 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 291 

D. Immigration status at time of arrival in Canada. 
XV. The travel history of the person, including: 

A. Date and place of entry into country where disease acquired. 

B. Date of departure from country where disease acquired. 

C. Date and time of entry into Canada and carrier and flight number, if applicable. 

D. Travel within country where disease acquired by date, place and length of stay. 

E. Any other places visited en route to and from Canada. 

xvi. List places and method of travel within Canada prior to and since the onset of illness. 
xvii. The employment details of the person including job title and place of employment, 
xviii. The name and address of the school the person attends, if applicable, including the classroom, 
xix. Health unit responsible for identifying contacts. 
XX. Names of health units with contacts, 
xxi. Number of contacts identified, 
xxii. Number of contacts traced. 

xxiii. Number of contacts tested and treated, if applicable, 
xxiv. Results of testing of contacts, if applicable. 
XXV. Outcome: 

A. If the person is deceased, date and cause of death. 

B. Complications. 

C. Absconded — lost to follow-up before treatment completion. 

D. Other. 
6. Tuberculosis: 

i. Thedateof the diagnosis. 

ii. The agent of disease. 

iii. The name and address of the physician attending the person, 
iv. Medical condition and status of the person including signs, symptoms and site, if any, of the infection. 

V. The clinical history of the person, including: 

A. The name of the hospital, date of admission and the date of discharge from the hospital if the person is 
admitted to hospital or the name of the hospital if the person is seen as an out-patient of the hospital. 

B. The date and duration of isolation, if isolated. 

C. Vaccination history. 

D. Reactivation of old disease and years of previous treatment setting out the drugs and dosages used and the 
dates treatment commenced and ended. 

vi. The case classification of the person. 

vii. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to, culture and antimicrobial 
sensitivity, serological tests. X-ray examination, microscopic examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, 
together with the results of the tests. 

viii. Current treatment, if any, of the infection, setting out the drugs and dosage used and the date treatment 
commenced and ended. 

ix. Completion of the course of treatment including the major mode of therapy (Directly Observed Therapy — daily 
or intermittent or Daily, self-administered) and the treatment compliance estimate (80%, 50-79%, less than 50% 
or unknown). 

X. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired. 

xi. The source of infection including history of exposures. 



292 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

xii. Risk factors for the disease, 
xiii. The immigration status and origin of the person, including: 

A. Country of birth. 

B. Country of last residence. 

C. Immigration Medical Surveillance serial number or Inland Processing Number. 

D. Date of arrival in Canada. 

E. Reported for medical surveillance (has made contact with health unit or equivalent agency in other 
jurisdiction.) 

F. Has had medical assessment in Canada for immigration surveillance. , 

G. Immigration status at time of arrival in Canada. 

H. Country of birth of parents if person is under 20 years of age and Canadian bom non-Aboriginal. 
xiv. The registered Indian status of the person. 
XV. The travel history of the person, including: 

A. Date and place of entry into country where disease acquired. 

B. Date of departure from country where disease acquired. 

C. Date and time of entry into Canada and carrier and flight number, if applicable. 

D. Travel within country where disease acquired by date, place and length of stay. 

E. Any other places visited en route to and from Canada. 

xvi. List places and method of travel within Canada prior to and since the onset of illness. 

xvii. The employment details of the person including job title and place of employment, 
xviii. The name and address of the school the person attends, if applicable, including the classroom. 

xix. Health unit responsible for identifying contacts. 
XX. Names of health units with contacts. 

xxi. Number of contacts identified. 

xxii . N umber of contacts traced. 

xxiii. Numberof contacts tested and number of contacts treated, 
xxiv. Results of testing of contacts. 

XXV. Outcome: 

A. If the person is deceased, date of death and cause of death. 

B. Complications. 

C. Absconded — lost to follow-up before treatment completion. 

D. Other. 

7. Cytomegalovirus infection, congenital. Group B Streptococcal Disease, neonatal. Herpes, neonatal. Ophthalmia 
Neonatorum: 

i. The date of the diagnosis. 

ii. The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

iii. The name of the hospital, the date of admission and the date of discharge if the person is admitted to hospital, 

iv. The contacts who have been traced. 

v. Medical condition of the person including signs and symptoms of the infection. 

vi. The case classification of the person. 

vii. Laboratory findings and other investigative test results including, without being limited to, culture and 
antimicrobial .sensitivity, serological tests, microscopic examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, 
together with the results of the tests. 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 293 

viii. Initial treatment, if any, of the infection including, without being Hmited to, the drugs and dosage used. 

ix. Final effective treatment including, without being limited to, the drugs and dosage used. 

X. Risk factors for the disease. 

xi. The date of death and relation of the infection to the cause of death, if deceased. 

I. Malaria, Yellow Fever: 

i. The date of the diagnosis. 

ii. The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

iii. The name of the hospital, the date of admission and the date of discharge if the person is admitted to hospital. 

iv. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired. 

V. Theagent of disease and sub-type. 

vi. Medical condition of the person including signs and symptoms of the infection. 

vii. The case classification of the person. 

viii. Association with outbreak and outbreak number, if applicable. 

ix. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to, culture and antimicrobial 
sensitivity, serological tests, microscopic examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, together with the 
results of the tests. 

X. The source of infection including history of exposures. 

xi. Risk factors for the disease. 

xii. The travel history of the person, including: 

A. Date and place of entry into country where disease acquired. 

B. Date of departure from country where disease acquired. 

C. Travel within country where disease acquired by date, place and length of stay. 
xiii. History of malaria and malaria prophylaxis or history of yellow fever vaccination. 

xiv. Initial treatment, if any, of the infection including, without being limited to, the drugs and dosage used. 

XV. If initial treatment given, the place, date and physician responsible for administration of treatment. 

xvi. Final effective treatment including, without being limited to, the drugs and dosage used. 

xvii. If effective treatment has been given, place, date and physician responsible for administration of treatment. 

xviii. The date of death and relation of the infection to the cause of death, if deceased. 

. Group A Streptococcal disease, invasive: 

i. The date of the diagnosis. 

ii. Theagent of disease. 

iii. The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

iv. Medical condition and status of the person including clinical severity, signs, symptoms and site, if any, of the 
infection. 

V. The clinical history of the person, including: 

A. The name of the hospital, date of admission and the date of discharge from the hospital if the person is 
admitted to hospital. 

B. The date and duration of isolation, if isolated. 

vi. The case classification of the person. 

vii. Laboratory findings and investigative lests including, without being limited to, culture and antimicrobial 
sensitivity, serological tests, microscopic examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, together with the 
results of the tests. 

viii. Association with outbreak and outbreak number, if applicable. 



294 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

ix. Current treatmenl, if any, of the infection, setting out the drugs and dosage used and the dale treatment 
commenced and ended. 

X. Antibiotic resistance, if applicable. 

xi. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired. 

xii. The source of infection including history of exposures. 

xiii. Risk factors for the disease. 

xiv. The employment details of the person including job title and place of employment. 

XV. The name and address of the school the person attends, if applicable, including the classroom. 

xvi. Health unit responsible for identifying contacts. i ^., 

xvii. Names of health units with contacts. 

xviii. Numberof contacts identified. 

xix. Number of contacts traced. 

XX. Numberof contacts tested and treated, if applicable. 

xxi. Resultsof testing contacts, if applicable. 

xxii. The date of death and relation of the infection to the cause of death, if the person is deceased. 

10. Influenza; 

i. The date of diagnosis. 

ii. The agent of disease, including subtype. 

iii. The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

iv. Medical condition and status of the person including signs, symptoms and site, if any, of the infection. 

v. The clinical history of the person, including: 

A. The name of the hospital, date of admission and the date of discharge from the hospital if the person is 
admitted to hospital or the name of the hospital if the person is seen as an out-patient of the hospital. 

B. The date and duration of isolation, if isolated. 

C. Vaccination history. 

vi. The case classification of the person. 

vii. Laboratory findings including, without being limited to, antigen detection, culture and viral strain identification, 
genetic typing and serological tests. 

viii. Association with outbreak and outbreak number, if applicable. 

ix. Current treatment, if any, of the infection, setting out the drugs and dosage used and the date treatment 
commenced and ended. 

X. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired. 

xi. The source of infection including history of exposures. 

xii. Risk factors for the disease. ,, 

xiii. The travel history of the person, if applicable, including: 

A. Date and place of entry into country where disease acquired. 

B. Date of departure fi'om country where disease acquired. 

C. Date and time of entry into Canada and carrier and flight number, if applicable. 

D. Travel within country where disease acquired by date, place and length of stay. 

E. Any other places visited en route to Canada. 

xiv. List places and method of travel within Canada prior to and since the onset of illness, if applicable. 
XV. The employment details of the person including job title and place of employment. , . 

xvi. The name and address of the school the person attends, if applicable, including the classroom. 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 295 

xvii. Health unit responsible for identifying contacts, 

xviii. Names of health units with contacts, 

xix. Numberof contacts identified. 

XX. Number of contacts traced. 

xxi. Number of contacts tested and treated, if applicable. 

xxii. The date of death and relation of the infection to the cause of death, if the person is deceased. 
1 1. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS): 

i. The date of the diagnosis, 

ii. The agent of disease. 

iii. The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

iv. Medical condition and status of the person including signs, symptoms and site, if any, of the infection. 

V. The clinical history of the person, including: 

A. The name of the hospital, date of admission and the date of discharge from the hospital if the person is 
admitted to hospital, or transferred to another hospital or the name of the hospital if the person is seen as an 
out-patient of the hospital. 

B. The date and duration of isolation, if isolated. 

C. The date and duration of quarantine, if quarantined. 

D. Vaccination history. 

vi. The case classification of the person. 

vii. The date of any change of case classification and details of the change. 

viii. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to, culture and antimicrobial 
sensitivity, serological tests, microscopic examination, X-ray examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, 
together with the results of the tests. 

ix. Association with outbreak and outbreak number, if applicable. 

X. Current treatment, if any, of the infection, setting out the drugs and dosage used and the date treatment 
commenced and ended. 

xi. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired. 

xii. The source of infection including history of exposures, and potential for community transmission, 
xiii. Risk factors for the disease, 
xiv. The travel history of the person, including: 

A. Date and place of entry into country where disease acquired. 

B. Date of departure from country where disease acquired. 

C. Date and time of entry into Canada and carrier and flight number, if applicable. 

D. Travel within country where disease acquired by date, place and length of stay. 

E. Any other places visited en route to Canada. 

XV. List places and method of travel within Canada prior to and since the onset of illness. 

xvi. The employment details of the person including job title and place of employment, 

xvii. The name and address of the school the person attends, if applicable, including the classroom, 

xviii. Health unit responsible for identifying contacts. 

xix. Names of health units with contacts. 

XX. Number of contacts identified. 

xxi. Number of contacts traced, 

xxii. Number of contacts quarantined. 



296 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

xxiii. Number of contacts tested and treated, if applicable. 

xxiv. Results of testing contacts, if applicable. 

XXV. The date of death and relation of the infection to the cause of death, if deceased. 

12. Respiratory infection outbreaks in institutions: 

i. The name and address of the institution and the contact person. 

ii. The agent of disease, if known. 

iii. The onset date and clinical details of symptoms in first and last cases. 

iv. A description of the outbreak and an outbreak definition including, without being limited to a description of 
symptoms and laboratory findings. 



V. 



The date the outbreak was declared and the outbreak number. 



vi. The date the outbreak was declared over. 

vii. The total number of cases in residents and all persons who carry on activities in the facility including employees, 
nurses, students, medical house staff, physicians, contract workers and volunteers ("staff). 

viii. The total number of residents and staff vaccinated prior to and during the outbreak and the total number of cases 
in residents and staff that were vaccinated prior to and during the outbreak. 

ix. The total number of cases in residents and staff of admissions to hospital. X-ray confirmation of pneumonia, and 
deaths during the outbreak period. 

X. Measures taken to monitor the facility for signs and symptoms consistent with the outbreak in persons who are 
residents or staff of the institution including the line list which shall include the name and location of residents 
and staff within the institution exhibiting signs and symptoms consistent with the description of the outbreak 
including clinical details and when the symptoms commenced and ended. 

xi. Number of residents and staff in the entire institution and in areas of the institution affected by the outbreak. 

xii. The name of the hospital, the date of admission and the date of discharge of any person who is a resident or staff 
member or any person who is admitted to hospital with signs and symptoms consistent with the definition of the 
outbreak. 

xiii. Medical condition and status of persons exhibiting signs and symptoms consistent with the definition of the 
outbreak. 

xiv. The name of any resident or staff member of the institution who dies during the outbreak period whether the 
cause of death is the respiratory infection or any other cause and including the time and date of death, the location 
of the death and cause of death. 

XV. The details of any notification made to any other institution regarding the declaration of an outbreak in the 
institution for the purposes of preventing the spread of infection. 

xvi. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to, antigen detection, culture and 
antimicrobial sensitivity, serological tests, microscopic examination, cerebrospinal fluid examination and X-ray 
examination, together with the results of the tests. 

xvii. Current treatment, if any, of the persons exhibiting signs and symptoms consistent with the outbreak, setting out 
the drugs and dosage used and the date treatment commenced. 

xviii. Infection control measures utilized to minimize the impact of the outbreak on the residents and staff and to 
prevent the spread of the infection including, but not limited to, influenza immunization, exclusion of non- 
immunized persons from the facility, the use of antiviral medications, isolation of ill persons, increased 
environmental sanitation and restriction of visitors. 

xix. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired. 

XX. The source of infection including history of exposures. 

xxi. Risk factors for the disease. 

xxii. Health units responsible for identifying contacts, 

xxiii. Names of health units with contacts, 

xxiv. Number of contacts identified. 

XXV. Number of contacts traced. 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 297 



xxvi. Number of contacts tested and treated, if applicable, 
xxvii. Resultsof testing contacts, if applicable, 
xxviii. Verificationofstaff immunization policies. 

13. Encephalitis, including primary, viral, post-infectious, vaccine-related, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, and 
unspecified: 

i. The date of the diagnosis. 

ii. The agent of disease. 

iii. The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

iv. Medical condition and the current status of the person including signs and symptoms. 

V. The name of the hospital and the date of admission and the date of discharge if the person is admitted to hospital 
or the name and date of visits if the person is seen as an out-patient of the hospital. 

vi. The case classification of the person. 

vii. The outcome of the disease. 

viii. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to, culture and antimicrobial 
sensitivity, serological tests, microscopic examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, together with the 
resultsof the tests. 

ix. Association with outbreak and outbreak number, if applicable. 

X. Current treatment, if any, of the infection, setting out the drugs and dosage used and the date treatment 
commenced and ended. 

xi. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired. 

xii. The source of infection including history of exposures. 

xiii. Risk factors for the disease. 

xiv. The travel history of the person, including: 

A. Date and place of entry into country where disease acquired. 

B. Date of departure from country where disease acquired. 

C. Date and time of entry into Canada and carrier and flight number, if applicable. 

D. Travel within country where disease acquired by date, place and length of stay. 

E. Any other places visited en route to Canada. 

XV. List places and method of travel within Canada prior to and since the onset of illness, 
xvi. The employment details of the person including job title and place of employment, 
xvii. The name and address of the school the person attends, if applicable, including classroom, 
xviii. The date of death and relation of the infection to the cause of death, if deceased. 

14. Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, Hepatitis D (Delta hepatitis): 

i. The date of the diagnosis. 

ii. The agent of disease. 

iii. The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

iv. The name of the hospital, the date of admission and the date of discharge if the person is admitted to hospital or 
the name of the hospital if the person is seen as an out-patient of the hospital. 

V. History of immunization and post exposure prophylaxis as appropriate. 

vi. The case classification of the person. 

vii. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to, serological tests, microscopic 
examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, together with the results of the tests. 

viii. Association with outbreak and outbreak number, if applicable. 

ix. The source of infection including history of exposures. 



298 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

X. Risk factors for the disease. 

xi. Place where infection is believed to have been acquired, 
xii. The travel history of the person, including: 

A. Date and place of entry into country where disease acquired. 

B. Date of departure from country where disease acquired. 

C. Travel within country where disease acquired by date, place and length of stay. 

xiii. The employment details of the person including job title and place of employment, if applicable, 

xiv. The name and address of the school the person attends, if applicable, including classroom. 

XV. The person responsible for tracing the contacts of the person (hepatitis B and Delta only). 

xvi. The contacts who have been traced (hepatitis B and Delta only), 

xvii. The date of death and relation of the infection to the cause of death, if deceased. 

15. Transmissible Spongifomi Encephalopathy, including Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease, all types, Gerstmann-Straussler- 
Scheinker Syndrome, Fatal Familial Insomnia and Kuru: 

The date of the diagnosis. 

The name and address of the physicians attending the person. 

The name of the hospital and the date of admission if the person is admitted to a hospital or is seen as an out- 
patient of the hospital. 

iv. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to, 14-3-3 protein test, cerebrospinal 
fluid examination, microscopic examination, electroencephalogram, magnetic resonance imaging, computerized 
axial tomography and biopsy, together with the results of the tests. 

V. History and physical examination findings of the person. 

vi. Dates of organ, blood or blood product donated or received. 

vii. Name of institution where performed, and dales, with respect to invasive procedures to person including, without 
being limited to, lumbar puncture, surgery and endoscopy. 

viii. Countries of residence and duration of residence or travel. 

ix. Genetic history of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy. 

X. Date of death, if the person is deceased. 

xi. Autopsy findings. 

16. Amebiasis, Anthrax, Botulism, Brucellosis, Campylobacter enteritis. Cholera, Cryptosporidiosis, Cyclosporiasis, Food 
poisoning — all causes. Gastroenteritis, institutional outbreaks, Giardiasis, Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome, Hepatitis 
A viral infections, Legionellosis, Listeriosis, Lyme Disease, Paratyphoid Fever, Psittacosis/Omithosis, Q Fever, 
Rabies, Salmonellosis, Shigellosis, Trichinosis, Tularemia, Typhoid Fever, West Nile Virus Illness, Verotoxin- 
producing E. coli infection indicator conditions, including Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome (HUS), Yersiniosis: 

The date of the diagnosis. 

The agent of disease. 

The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

iv. Medical condition of the person including signs and symptoms of the infection. 

V. The name of the hospital and the date of admission and the date of discharge if the person is admitted to hospital 
or the name of the hospital if the person is seen as an out-patient of the hospital. 

vi. The case classification of the person. 

vii. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to, culture and antimicrobial 
sensitivity, serological tests, microscopic examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, together with the 
results of the tests. 

viii. Association with outbreak and outbreak number, if applicable. 

ix. Current treatment, if any, of the infection, setting out the drugs and dosage used and the dates treatment 
commenced and ended. 

10 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 299 

X. Place, including geographic location, where infection is believed to have been acquired, 
xi. The source of infection including history of exposures and potential for community spread. 
xii. Risk factors for the disease, 
xiii. The travel history of the person, including: 

A. Date and place of entry into country or countries where disease is believed to have been acquired. 

B. Date of departure from country or countries where disease is believed to have been acquired. 

C. Date and time of entry into Canada and carrier and flight number, if applicable. 

D. Travel within country or countries where disease is believed to have been acquired by date, place and 
length of stay. 

E. Any other places visited en route to and from Canada, 
xiv. The immigration status and origin of the person, including: 

A. Country of birth. 

B. Country of last residence. 

C. Dateof arrival to Canada. 

XV. List places and method of travel within Canada for the period of time equal to at least two incubation periods of 
the disease prior to and since the onset of illness. 

xvi. The employment details of the person including job title and place of employment. 

xvii. The name and address of the school the person attends, if applicable, including classroom. 

xviii. The outcome of the disease. 

xix. The date of death and relation of the infection to the cause of death, if the person is deceased. 

1 7. Smallpox: 

i. The date of the diagnosis. 

ii. The agent of disease. 

iii. The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

iv. Medical condition and status of the person including signs and symptoms of the infection. 

V. The clinical history of the person, including: 

A. The name of the hospital, date of admission and the date of discharge from the hospital if the person is 
admitted to hospital, or transferred to another hospital or the name of the hospital if the person is seen as an 
out-patient of the hospital. 

B. The date and duration of isolation, if isolated. 

C. The date and duration of quarantine, if quarantined. 

D. Vaccination history. 

vi. The case classification of the person. 

vii. The date of any change of case classification and details of the change. 

viii. Laboratory findings and investigative tests including, without being limited to culture and antimicrobial 
sensitivity, serological tests, microscopic examination and cerebrospinal fluid examination, together with the 
results of the tests. 

ix. Association with outbreak and outbreak number, if applicable. 

x. Current treatment, if any, of the infection, setting out the drugs and dosage used and the date treatment 
commenced and ended. 

xi. Place, including geographical location, where infection is believed to have been acquired. 

xii. The source of infection including history of exposures and potential for community transmission. 

xiii. Risk factors for the disease. 

xiv. The travel history of the person, including: 

11 



300 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

A. Date and place of entry into country where disease acquired. 

B. Date of departure from country where disease acquired. 

C. Date and time of entry into Canada and carrier and flight number, if applicable. 

D. Travel within country where disease acquired by date, place and length of stay. 

E. Any other places visited en route to Canada. 

XV. List places and method of travel within Canada prior to and since the onset of illness. 

xvi. The employment details of the person including job title and place of employment. 

xvii. The name and address of the school the person attends, if applicable, including the classroom, 

xviii. Health unit responsible for identifying contacts. 

xix. Names of health units with contacts. 

XX. Numberof contacts identified. 

xxi. Number of contacts traced. 

xxii. Number of contacts quarantined, 

xxiii. Number of contacts tested and treated, if applicable, 

xxiv. Results of testing contacts, if applicable. 

XXV. The date of death and relation of the infection to the cause of death, if deceased. 

3. Subsection 6 (1) of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

( 1 ) Where a medical officer of health receives a report made under section 25, 26, 27 or 28, subsection 29 (2) or section 30 
of the Act, he or she shall immediately forward a copy of the report to the Public Health Division of the Ministry in a secure 
manner. 

4. The Regulation is amended by adding the following sections: 

7. (1) A report required under subsection 38 (3) of the Act shall, with respect to the person to whom the report relates, 
contain the following information: 

1 . Name, address and telephone number in full. 

2. Date ofbirth in full. 

3. Sex. 

4. The name, address and telephone number of the parent or guardian of the person experiencing the adverse event if the 
person is a minor. 

5. The name and address of the physician attending the person. 

6. The name of the hospital, the date of admission, and date of discharge, if the person was admitted to hospital as a 
result of the reportable event. 

7. Signs and symptoms relating to the reportable event and, if known, the time and date of onset of each symptom 
relating to the reportable event. 

8. The treatment prescribed, setting out drugs and dosage used, if the person sought medical care as a result of the 
reportable event. 

9. The name of the hospital, the date seen, and the name of the physicians attending the person, if the person was seen as 
an out-patient of a hospital as a result of the reportable event. 

10. Laboratory findings including the dates and results of testing and other investigative procedures relating to the 
reportable event. 

1 1 . The outcome of the reportable event on the date of the report; specifically, whether the person who had experienced 
the reportable event had fully recovered, had a residual health effect or died. 

12. The name and manufacturer of each vaccine related to the reportable event, the date and time on which the vaccine 
was administered, and the dose, site of administration, route, lot number and expiry date of the vaccine related to the 
reportable event, and any prior dates on which the same vaccine had been administered. 

13. The name and manufacturer of each vaccine received prior to and associated with the reportable event. 



12 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 301 



(2) A medical officer of health who receives a report under subsection 38 (3) of the Act shall report to the Ministry in 
respect of the adverse event report. 

8. Any report made under the Act that is referred to in this Regulation shall be forwarded to the Ministry using the 
integrated Public Health Information System (iPHIS), or any other method specified by the Ministry. 

5. Forms 1 and 2 of the Regulation are revoked. 

RÈGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 1/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI SUR LA PROTECTION ET LA PROMOTION DE LA SANTÉ 

pris le 1 5 décembre 2004 
déposé le 12 janvier 2005 

modifiant le Régi. 569 des R.R.O. de 1990 
(Rapports) 

Remarque : Le Règlement 569 a été modifié antérieurement. Ces modifications sont indiquées dans le Sommaire de 
l'historique législatif des règlements qui se trouve sur le site www.U)is-en-lit!nc.gouv.on.ca . 

1. (1) Le paragraphe 1 (2) du Règlement §69 des Règlements refondus de POntario de 1990 est modifié par 
insertion de «ou du paragraphe 27 (1) ou (2)» après «25 ou 26». 

(2) Le paragraphe I (3) du Règlement est abrogé et remplacé par ce qui suit : 

(3) Malgré le paragraphe (1), un rapport que prévoit l'article 25 ou 26 de la Loi doit être rédigé selon la formule 3 s'il 
s'agit de la lèpre. 

2. (1) Les sous-dispositions 1 iii et iv de l'article 5 du Règlement sont abrogées et remplacées par ce qui suit : 

iii. Le nom de l'hôpital et la date d'admission, si la personne est hospitalisée, ou le nom de l'hôpital et la date de 
chaque visite, si la personne est un malade externe. 

iv. La durée de l'infection, le stade atteint par l'infection ainsi que le foyer infectieux. 

(2) La sous-disposition 1 ix de l'article 5 du Règlement est abrogée et remplacée par ce qui suit : 

ix. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris les tests sérologiques, les examens 
microscopiques et les examens du liquide céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

(3) La disposition 1 de l'article 5 du Règlement est modifiée par adjonction des sous-dispositions suivantes : 

xi. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée, 
xii. Le nombre de sujets contacts de la personne qui ont été retrouvés. 

(4) La disposition 2 de l'article 5 du Règlement est abrogée et remplacée par ce qui suit : 

2. Chancre mou, infections génitales par la Chlamydia trachomatis et gonorrhée : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iii. Le nom de l'hôpital et les dates d'admission et de mise en congé si la personne est hospitalisée, 
iv. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

V. La personne chargée de retrouver les sujets contacts de la personne, 
vi. Le nombre de sujets contacts de la personne qui ont été retrouvés, 
vii. L'agent de la maladie. 

viii. L'état pathologique de la personne, y compris les signes et les symptômes de l'infection, 
ix. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 



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302 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

X. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris la sensibilité de la culture et la 
sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les examens microscopiques et les examens du liquide 
céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

xi. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition. 

xii. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xiii. Les voyages effectués par la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. La date et le point d'entrée dans le pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

B. La date de départ du pays oii la personne a contracté la maladie. 

C. Les déplacements à l'intérieur du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie, en précisant les dates, les 
endroits et la durée des séjours. 

xiv. Le traitement initial de l'infection, le cas échéant, y compris les médicaments et posologies employés. 

XV. S'il y a eu un traitement initial, l'endroit et la date où le traitement a été administré ainsi que le nom du médecin 
responsable de l'administration du traitement. 

xvi. Le traitement efficace final, y compris les médicaments et posologies employés. 

xvii. Si un traitement a été efficace, l'endroit et la date où le traitement a été administré ainsi que le nom du médecin 
responsable de l'administration du traitement. 

xviii. En cas de décès, la date du décès et le rapport entre l'infection et la cause du décès. 

(5) La disposition 4 de Tarticie 5 du Règlement est modifiée par substitution de ce qui suit au passage qui précède 
la sous-disposition i : 

4. Fièvre de Lassa, fièvres hémorragiques dont la maladie à virus Ebola, la maladie à virus de Marburg et autres fièvres 
hémorragiques virales et peste : 



(6) L'article 5 du Règlement est modifié par adjonction des dispositions suivantes : 

5. Varicelle, diphtérie, infection invasive à Haemophilus influenzae type B, rougeole, méningite aiguë, infection invasive 
à méningocoques, oreillons, coqueluche, pneumoccocie invasive, poliomyélite aiguë, rubéole et rubéole congénitale et 
tétanos : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. L'agent de la maladie. 

iii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iv. L'état pathologique et l'état actuel de la personne, y compris, le cas échéant, les signes et les symptômes de 
l'infection ainsi que le foyer infectieux. 

v. Les antécédents cliniques de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. Le nom de l'hôpital, les dates d'admission et de mise en congé, si la personne est hospitalisée, ou le nom de 
l'hôpital, si la personne est un malade externe. 

B. En cas d'isolement, la date et la durée de l'isolement. 

C. Les vaccins administrés. 

vi. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 

vii. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris la sensibilité de la culture et la 
sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les examens microscopiques et les examens du liquide 
céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

viii. S'il y a lieu, les liens existant avec une épidémie et le nombre de cas. 

ix. Le traitement en cours de l'infection, le cas échéant, en précisant les médicaments et posologies employés ainsi 
que les dates de début et de fin du traitement. 

x. La fin du traitement, y compris le principal type de thérapie et l'observance du traitement. 

xi. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

xii. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition et les risques de transmission sociale. 



14 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 303 

xiii. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xiv. Le statut d'immigrant et l'origine de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. Le pays natal. 

B. Le dernier pays de résidence. 

C. La date d'arrivée au Canada. 

D. Le statut d'immigrant lors de l'arrivée au Canada. 

XV. Les voyages de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. La date et le point d'entrée dans le pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

B. La date de départ du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

C. La date et l'heure d'entrée au Canada et, le cas échéant, la compagnie aérienne et le numéro de vol. 

D. Les déplacements à l'intérieur du pays où la persoime a contracté la maladie, en précisant les dates, les 
endroits et la durée des séjours. 

E. Tout autre endroit où la personne a séjourné avant son arrivée au Canada et après son départ au Canada. 

xvi. L'énumération des endroits visités et des moyens de transport utilisés au Canada avant et depuis l'apparition de la 
maladie. 

xvii. La situation professionnelle de la personne, y compris son poste et son lieu de travail. 

xviii. S'il y a lieu, le nom et l'adresse de l'école fréquentée et la salle de classe. 

xix. La circonscription sanitaire chargée de repérer les sujets contacts. 

XX. Les noms des circonscriptions sanitaires et des sujets contacts. 

xxi. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été repérés. 

- xxii. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été retrouvés. 

xxiii. S'il y a lieu, le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été examinés et traités. 

xxiv. S'il y a lieu, les résultats des examens qu'ont subis les sujets contacts. 

XXV. L'évolution de l'état de santé : 

A. En cas de décès, la date et la cause du décès. 

B. Les complications. 

C. L'indication si la personne s'est soustraite au suivi avant la fm du traitement. 

D. Autre. 
6. Tuberculose : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. L'agent de la maladie. 

iii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iv. L'état pathologique et l'état actuel de la personne, y compris, le cas échéant, les signes et les symptômes de 
l'infection ainsi que le foyer infectieux. 

V. Les antécédents cliniques de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. Le nom de l'hôpital, les dates d'admission et de mise en congé, si la personne est hospitalisée, ou le nom de 
l'hôpital, si la personne est un malade externe. 

B. En cas d'isolement, la date et la durée de l'isolement. 

C. Les vaccins administrés. 

D. La réactivation de la maladie avec indication des années de traitement, des médicaments et posologies 
employés ainsi que les dates de début et de fin du traitement. 

vi. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 



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304 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



vii. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris la sensibilité de la culture et la 
sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les radiographies, les examens microscopiques et les examens 
du liquide céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

viii. Le traitement en cours de l'infection, le cas échéant, en précisant les médicaments et posologies employés, ainsi 
que les dates de début et de fin du traitement. 

ix. La fin du traitement, y compris le principal type de thérapie (surveillance directe quotidienne ou intermittente ou 
auto-médication quotidienne) et l'estimation de l'observance du traitement (80 %, de 50 à 79 %, moins de 50 %, 
inconnue). 

X. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

xi. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition. 

xii. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xiii. Le statut d'immigrant et l'origine de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. Le pays natal. 

B. Le dernier pays de résidence. 

C. Le numéro de surveillance médicale de l'immigration ou du système de traitement des demandes au 
Canada. 

D. La date d'arrivée au Canada. 

E. La déclaration de surveillance médicale (la personne a pris contact avec la circonscription sanitaire ou son 
équivalent dans un autre territoire). 

F. L'évaluation médicale effectuée au Canada dans le cadre du programme de surveillance médicale de 
l'immigration. 

G. Le statut d'immigrant lors de l'arrivée au Canada. 

H. Le pays natal du père et de la mère si la personne est âgée de moins de 20 ans, née au Canada et non- 
autochtone. 

xiv. Le statut d'indien inscrit de la personne. 

XV. Les voyages de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. La date et le point d'entrée dans le pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

B. La date de départ du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

C. La date et l'heure d'entrée au Canada et, le cas échéant, la compagnie aérienne et le numéro de vol. 

D. Les déplacements à l'intérieur du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie, en précisant les dates, les 
endroits et la durée des séjours. 

E. Tout autre endroit où la personne a séjourné avant son arrivée au Canada et après son départ du Canada. 

xvi. L'énumération des endroits visités et des moyens de transport utilisés au Canada avant et depuis l'apparition de la 
maladie. 

xvii. La situation professionnelle de la personne, y compris son poste et son lieu de travail, 
xviii. S'il y a lieu, le nom et l'adresse de l'école fréquentée et la salle de classe. 

xix. La circonscription sanitaire chargée de repérer les sujets contacts. 
XX. Les noms des circonscriptions sanitaires et des sujets contacts. 

xxi. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été repérés. 

xxii. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été retrouvés, 
xxiii. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été examinés et traités, 
xxiv. Les résultats des examens qu'ont subis les sujets contacts. 

XXV. L'évolution de l'état de santé : 

A. En cas de décès, la date et la cause du décès. 

B. Les complications. 

16 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 305 

C. L'indication si la personne s'est soustraite au suivi avant la fin du traitement. 

D. Autre. 

7. Infection congénitale à cytomegalovirus, infection périnatale à streptocoques du groupe B, herpès néonatal, ophtalmie 
du nouveau-né : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iii. Le nom de l'hôpital et les dates d'admission et de mise en congé, si la personne est hospitalisée, 

iv. Les sujets contacts qui ont été retrouvés. 

V. L'état pathologique de la personne, y compris les signes et les symptômes de l'infection. 

vi. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 

vii. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris la sensibilité de la culture et la 
sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les examens microscopiques et les examens du liquide 
céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

viii. Le traitement initial de l'infection, le cas échéant, y compris les médicaments et posologies employés. 

ix. Le traitement efficace final, y compris les médicaments et posologies employés. 

X. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xi. En cas de décès, la date du décès et le rapport entre l'infection et la cause du décès. 

8. Paludisme et fièvre jaune : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iii. Le nom de l'hôpital et les dates d'admission et de mise en congé si la personne est hospitalisée, 

iv. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

V. L'agent de la maladie et le sous-type. 

vi. L'état pathologique de la personne, y compris les signes et les symptômes de l'infection. 

vii. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 

viii. S'il y a lieu, les liens existant avec une épidémie et le nombre de cas. 

ix. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris la sensibilité de la culture et la 
sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les examens microscopiques et les examens du liquide 
céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

X. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition. 

xi. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xii. Les voyages de la personne, y compris les renseignements suivants : 

A. La date et le point d'entrée dans le pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

B. La date de départ du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

C. Les déplacements à l'intérieur du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie, en précisant les dates, les 
endroits et la durée des séjours. 

xiii. Les antécédents paludiques et la prophylaxie antipaludique ou les vaccins administrés contre la fièvre jaune. 

xiv. Le traitement initial de l'infection, le cas échéant, y compris les médicaments et posologies employés. 

XV. S'il y a eu un traitement initial, l'endroit et la date où le traitement a été administré ainsi que le nom du médecin 
responsable de l'administration du traitement. 

xvi. Le traitement efficace final, y compris les médicaments et posologies employés. 

xvii. Si un traitement a été efficace, l'endroit et la date où le traitement a été administré ainsi que le nom du médecin 
responsable de l'administration du traitement. 

xviii. En cas de décès, la date du décès et le rapport entre l'infection et la cause du décès. 

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306 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

9. Infection invasive à streptocoques du groupe A : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. L'agent de la maladie. 

iii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iv. L'état pathologique et l'état actuel de la personne, y compris, le cas échéant, la gravité clinique, les signes et les 
symptômes de l'infection ainsi que le foyer infectieux. 

V. Les antécédents cliniques de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : ■ 

A. Le nom de l'hôpital et les dates d'admission et de mise en congé si la personne est hospitalisée. 

B. En cas d'isolement, la date et la durée de l'isolement. 

vi. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 

vii. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris la sensibilité de la culture et la 
sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les examens microscopiques et les examens du liquide 
céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

viii. S'il y a lieu, les liens existant avec une épidémie et le nombre de cas. 

ix. Le traitement en cours de l'infection, le cas échéant, en précisant les médicaments et posologies employés ainsi 
que les dates du début et de fin du traitement. 

X. S'il y a lieu, la résistance aux antibiotiques. 

xi. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

xii. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition. 

xiii. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xiv. La situation professionnelle de la personne, y compris son poste et son lieu de travail. 

XV. S'il y a lieu, le nom et l'adresse de l'école fréquentée et la salle de classe. 

xvi. La circonscription sanitaire chargée de repérer les sujets contacts. 

xvii. Les noms des circonscriptions sanitaires et des sujets contacts. 

xviii. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été repérés. i 

xix. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été retrouvés. 

XX. S'il y a lieu, le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été examinés et traités. 

xxi. S'il y a lieu, les résultats des examens qu'ont subis les sujets contacts. 

xxii. En cas de décès, la date du décès et le rapport entre l'infection et la cause du décès. 

10. Grippe: 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. L'agent de la maladie et le sous-type. 

iii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iv. L'état pathologique et l'état actuel de la personne, y compris, le cas échéant, les signes et les symptômes de 
l'infection ainsi que le foyer infectieux. 

V. Les antécédents cliniques de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. Le nom de l'hôpital et les dates d'admission et de mise en congé, si la personne est hospitalisée, ou le nom 
de l'hôpital, si elle est un malade externe. 

B. En cas d'isolement, la date et la durée de l'isolement. ■ ' ' 

C. Les vaccins administrés. 

vi. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 

vii. Les résultats de laboratoire, y compris les tests de détection d'antigènes, la culture et l'identification de la souche 
virale, le typage génétique et les tests sérologiques. 

viii. S'il y a lieu, les liens existant avec une épidémie et le nombre de cas. 

18 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE /LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 307 

ix. Le traitement en cours de l'infection, le cas échéant, en précisant les médicaments et posologies employés ainsi 
que les dates de début et de fin du traitement. 

X. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

xi. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition. 

xii. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xiii. S'il y a lieu, les voyages de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. La date et le point d'entrée dans le pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

B. La date de départ du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

C. La date et l'heure d'entrée au Canada et, le cas échéant, la compagnie aérienne et le numéro de vol. 

D. Les déplacements à l'intérieur du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie, en précisant les dates, les 
endroits et la durée des séjours. 

E. Tout autre endroit où la personne a séjourné avant son arrivée au Canada. 

xiv. S'il y a lieu, l'énumération des endroits visités et des moyens de transport utilisés au Canada avant et depuis 
l'apparition de la maladie. 

XV. La situation professionnelle de la personne, y compris son poste et son lieu de travail. 

xvi. S'il y a lieu, le nom et l'adresse de l'école fréquentée et la salle de classe. 

xvii. La circonscription sanitaire chargée de repérer les sujets contacts. 

xviii. Les noms des circonscriptions sanitaires et des sujets contacts. 

xix. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été repérés. 

XX. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été retrouvés. 

xxi. S'il y a lieu, le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été examinés et traités. 

xxii. En cas de décès, la date du décès et le rapport entre l'infection et la cause du décès. 

1 1 . Syndrome respiratoire aigu sévère (SRAS) : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. L'agent de la maladie. 

iii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iv. L'état pathologique et l'état actuel de la personne, y compris, le cas échéant, les signes et les symptômes de 
l'infection et le foyer infectieux. 

V. Les antécédents cliniques de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. Le nom de l'hôpital et les dates d'admission et de mise en congé, si la personne est hospitalisée ou 
transférée à un autre hôpital, ou le nom de l'hôpital, si elle est un malade externe. 

B. En cas d'isolement, la date et la durée de l'isolement. 

C. En cas de mise en quarantaine, la date et la durée de la quarantaine. 

D. Les vaccins administrés. 

vi. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 

vii. La date du changement de classification avec description. 

viii. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris la sensibilité de la culture et la 
sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les examens microscopiques, les radiographies et les examens 
du liquide céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

ix. S'il y a lieu, les liens existant avec une épidémie et le nombre de cas. 

X. Le traitement en cours de l'infection, le cas échéant, en précisant les médicaments et posologies employés ainsi 
que les dates de début et de fin du traitement. 

xi. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

xii. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition et les risques de transmission sociale. 

19 



308 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

xiii. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xiv. Les voyages de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. La date et le point d'entrée dans le pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

B. La date de départ du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

C. La date et l'heure d'entrée au Canada et, le cas échéant, la compagnie aérienne et le numéro de vol. 

D. Les déplacements à l'intérieur du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie, en précisant les dates, les 
endroits et la durée des séjours. 

E. Tout autre endroit où la personne a séjourné avant son arrivée au Canada. 

XV. L'énumération des endroits visités et des moyens de transport utilisés au Canada avant et depuis l'apparition de la 
maladie. 

xvi. La situation professionnelle de la personne, y compris son poste et son lieu de travail. 

xvii. S'il y a lieu, le nom et l'adresse de l'école fréquentée et la salle de classe. 

xviii. La circonscription sanitaire chargée de repérer les sujets contacts. 

xix. Les noms des circonscriptions sanitaires et des sujets contacts. 

XX. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été repérés. 

xxi. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été retrouvés. 

xxii. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été mis en quarantaine. 

xxiii. S'il y a lieu, le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été examinés et traités. 

xxiv. S'il y a lieu, les résultats des examens qu'ont subis les sujets contacts. 

XXV. En cas de décès, la date du décès et le rapport entre l'infection et la cause du décès. 

12. Épidémies d'infections respiratoires en établissement : 

i. Le nom et l'adresse de l'établissement et de la personne-ressource. 

ii. L'agent de la maladie, s'il est connu. 

iii. La date d'apparition et la description clinique des symptômes du premier et du dernier cas. 

iv. La description et la définition de l'épidémie, y compris la description des symptômes et des résultats de 
laboratoire. 

V. La date à laquelle l'épidémie a été déclarée et le nombre de cas. 

vi. La date à laquelle l'épidémie a officiellement pris fin. 

vii. Le nombre total de cas parmi les résidents et toutes les personnes exerçant des activités dans l'établissement, y 
compris les employés, le personnel infirmier, les étudiants, les médecins et autres auxiliaires médicaux, les 
contractuels et les bénévoles («personnel»). 

viii. Le nombre total de résidents et de membres du personnel qui ont été vaccinés avant et pendant l'épidémie et le 
nombre total de cas d'infection panni eux. 

ix. Le nombre total, parmi les résidents et le personnel, d'hospitalisations, de cas de pneumonie confirmés par 
radiographie et de décès durant l'épidémie. 

X. Les mesures qui ont été prises pour détecter, au sein de l'établissement, les signes et les symptômes 
caractéristiques de l'épidémie chez les résidents ou le personnel, y compris la liste, ligne par ligne, où figurent le 
nom et l'emplacement des résidents et du personnel de l'établissement qui présentent des signes et des 
symptômes correspondant à la description de l'épidémie, notamment les détails cliniques et les dates auxquelles 
les symptômes sont apparus et ont disparu. 

xi. Le nombre de résidents et de membres du personnel, dans l'ensemble et dans des secteurs de l'établissement, 
touchés par l'épidémie. 

xii. Le nom de l'hôpital, les dates d'admission et de mise en congé de tout résident ou membre du personnel ou de 
toute autre personne qui est hospitalisé parce qu'il présente des signes et des symptômes correspondant à la 
définition de l'épidémie. 



20 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 309 



xiii. L'état pathologique et l'état actuel des personnes qui présentent des signes et des symptômes correspondant à la 
définition de l'épidémie. 

xiv. Le nom de tout résident ou membre du personnel de l'établissement qui est décédé durant l'épidémie, que 
l'infection respiratoire soit ou non la cause de son décès, en précisant les date et heure, l'emplacement et la cause 
du décès. 

XV. La description du processus de notification d'autres établissements à l'égard de la déclaration de l'épidémie dans 
l'établissement afin d'en empêcher la propagation. 

xvi. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris les tests de détection des 
antigènes, la sensibilité de la culture et la sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les examens 
microscopiques, les examens du liquide céphalo-rachidien et les radiographies, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

xvii. Le traitement en cours, le cas échéant, des personnes qui présentent des signes et des symptômes caractéristiques 
de l'épidémie, en précisant les médicaments et posologies employés ainsi que la date à laquelle le traitement a 
commencé. 

xviii. Les mesures de lutte contre l'infection qui sont mises en oeuvre pour réduire le plus possible les effets de 
l'épidémie sur les résidents et le personnel et en prévenir la propagation, notamment par l'immunisation contre la 
grippe, l'exclusion de l'établissement des personnes non vaccinées, l'utilisation de médicaments antiviraux, 
l'isolement des malades, le renforcement de l'assainissement du milieu et la restriction des visiteurs. 

xix. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

XX. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition. 

xxi. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xxii. Les circonscriptions sanitaires chargées de repérer les sujets contacts. 

xxiii. Les noms des circonscriptions sanitaires et des sujets contacts. 

xxiv. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été repérés. 

XXV. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été retrouvés. 

xxvi. S'il y a lieu, le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été examinés et traités. 

xxvii. S'il y a lieu, les résultats des examens qu'ont subis les sujets contacts. 

xxviii. La vérification des lignes directrices relatives à l'immunisation du personnel. 

13. Encéphalite, y compris l'encéphalite virale primaire, l'encéphalite postinfectieuse aiguë, l'encéphalite consécutive à un 
vaccin, la panencéphalite sclérosante subaiguë et l'encéphalite d'origine inconnue : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. L'agent de la maladie. 

iii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iv. L'état pathologique et l'état actuel de la personne, y compris les signes et les symptômes. 

V. Le nom de l'hôpital et les dates d'admission et de mise en congé, si la personne est hospitalisée, ou le nom des 
visiteurs et les dates des visites à l'hôpital, si elle est un malade externe. 

vi. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 

vii. L'évolution de la maladie. 

viii. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées y compris la sensibilité de la culture et la 
sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les examens microscopiques et les examens du liquide 
céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

ix. S'il y a lieu, les liens existant avec une épidémie et le nombre de cas. 

X. Le traitement en cours de l'infection, le cas échéant, en précisant les médicaments et posologies employés ainsi 
que les dates de début et de fin du traitement. 

xi. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

xii. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition. 

xiii. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xiv. Les voyages de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

21 



3 1 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

A. La date et le point d'entrée dans le pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

B. La date de départ du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

C. La date et l'heure d'entrée au Canada et, le cas échéant, la compagnie aérienne et le numéro de vol. 

D. Les déplacements à l'intérieur du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie, en précisant les dates, les 
endroits et la durée des séjours. 

E. Tout autre endroit où la personne a séjourné avant son arrivée au Canada. 

XV. L'énumération des endroits visités et des moyens de transport utilisés au Canada avant et depuis l'apparition de la 
maladie. 

xvi. La situation professionnelle de la personne, y compris son poste et son lieu de travail. 

xvii. S'il y a lieu, le nom et l'adresse de l'école fréquentée et la salle de classe. 

xviii. En cas de décès, la date du décès et le rapport entre l'infection et la cause du décès. 

14. Hépatite B, hépatite C et hépatite D (hépatite delta) : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. L'agent de la maladie. 

iii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iv. Le nom de l'hôpital et les dates d'admission et de mise en congé, si la personne est hospitalisée, ou le nom de 
l'hôpital, si elle est un malade externe. 

V. Les vaccins administrés et la prophylaxie postexposition, selon le cas. 

vi. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 

vii. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris les tests sérologiques, les examens 
microscopiques et les examens du liquide céphalo-rachidien ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

viii. S'il y a lieu, les liens existant avec une épidémie et le nombre de cas. 

ix. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition. 

X. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xi. L'endroit où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

xii. Les voyages de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. La date et le point d'entrée dans le pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

B. La date de départ du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

C. Les déplacements à l'intérieur du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie, en précisant les dates, les 
endroits et la durée des séjours. 

xiii. S'il y a lieu, la situation professionnelle de la personne, y compris son poste et son lieu de travail. 

xiv. S'il y a lieu, le nom et l'adresse de l'école fréquentée et la salle de classe. 

XV. La personne chargée de retrouver les sujets contacts de la personne (hépatites B et delta seulement). 

xvi. Les sujets contacts qui ont été retrouvés (hépatites B et delta seulement). 

xvii. En cas de décès, la date du décès et le rapport entre l'infection et la cause du décès. 

15. Encephalopathies subaiguës spongiformes transmissibles, y compris la maladie de Creutzfeldt-Jacob et ses variantes, 
le syndrome de Gerstmann-Strâussier-Scheinker, l'insomnie fatale familiale et le kuru : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. Le nom et l'adresse des médecins qui traitent la personne. 

iii. Le nom de l'hôpital et la date d'admission si la personne est hospitalisée ou si elle est un malade externe. 

iv. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris le test de la protéine 14-3-3, les 
examens du liquide céphalo-rachidien, les examens microscopiques, l'électroencéphalogramme, l'imagerie par 
résonance magnétique, l'examen de tomodensitométrie et la biopsie, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

V. Les antécédents de la personne et les résultats de l'examen clinique. 

22 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 3 1 1 



vi. Les dales auxquelles la personne a donné ou reçu des organes, du sang ou des produits sanguins. 

vii. Le nom de l'établissement ayant procédé à des chirurgies effractives, y compris la ponction lombaire 
(rachicentèse), l'opération chirurgicale et l'endoscopie et les dates de ces opérations. 

viii. Les pays de résidence et la durée de résidence ou les voyages effectués. 

ix. Les antécédents génétiques de l'encéphalopathie subaiguë spongiforme transmissible. 

X. En cas de décès, la date du décès. 

xi. Les résultats de l'autopsie. 

16. Amibiase, maladie du charbon, botulisme, brucellose, entérite à Campylobacter, choléra, cryptosporidiose, 
cyclosporose, toutes les formes de toxi-infection alimentaire, poussées épidémiques de gastroentérite en établissement, 
giardiase, syndrome pulmonaire à hantavirus, hépatite A, légionellose, listériose, maladie de Lyme, fièvre 
paratyphoïde, psittacose/omithose, fièvre Q, rage, salmonellose, shigellose, trichinose, tularemic, fièvre typhoïde, 
infection par le virus du Nil occidental, états indicateurs d'une infection à Escherichia Coli producteur de vérotoxine, y 
compris le syndrome hémolytique et urémique, et yersiniose : 

i. La date du diagnostic. 

ii. L'agent de la maladie. 

iii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iv. L'état pathologique de la personne, y compris les signes et les symptômes de l'infection. 

V. Le nom de l'hôpital et les dates d'admission et de mise en congé, si la personne est hospitalisée, ou le nom de 
l'hôpital, si elle est un malade externe. 

vi. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. 

vii. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris la sensibilité de la culture et la 
sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les examens microscopiques et les examens du liquide 
céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

- viii. S'il y a lieu, les liens existant avec une épidémie et le nombre de cas. 

ix. Le traitement en cours de l'infection, le cas échéant, en précisant les médicaments et posologies employés ainsi 
que les dates de début et de fin du traitement. 

x. L'endroit, y compris l'emplacement géographique, où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

xi. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition et les risques de propagation sociale. 

xii. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie. 

xiii. Les voyages de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. La date et le point d'entrée dans le pays où la personne semble avoir contracté la maladie. 

B. La date de départ du pays où la personne semble avoir contracté la maladie. 

C. La date et l'heure d'entrée au Canada et, le cas échéant, la compagnie aérienne et le numéro de vol. 

D. Les déplacements à l'intérieur du pays où la personne semble avoir contracté la maladie, en précisant les 
dates, les endroits et la durée des séjours. 

E. Tout autre endroit où la personne a séjourné avant son arrivée au Canada et après son départ du Canada, 
xiv. Le statut d'immigrant et l'origine de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. Le pays natal. 

B. Le dernier pays de résidence. 

C. La date d'arrivée au Canada. 

XV. L'énumération des endroits visités et des moyens de transport utilisés au Canada, pendant la période 
correspondant à au moins deux périodes d'incubation, avant et depuis l'apparition de la maladie. 

xvi. La situation professionnelle de la personne, y compris son poste et son lieu de travail. 

xvii. S'il y a lieu, le nom et l'adresse de l'école fréquentée et la salle de classe. 

xviii. L'évolution de la maladie. 

23 



3 1 2 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

xix. En cas de décès, la date du décès et le rapport entre l'infection et la cause du décès. 
17. Variole : 

i. La date du diagnostic, 

ii. L'agent de la maladie. 

iii. Le nom et l'adresse du médecin traitant de la personne. 

iv. L'état pathologique et l'état actuel de la personne, y compris les signes et les symptômes de l'infection. 

V. Les antécédents cliniques de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. Le nom de l'hôpital, les dates d'admission et de mise en congé, si la personne est hospitalisée ou transférée 
à un autre hôpital, ou le nom de l'hôpital, si elle est un malade externe. 

B. En cas d'isolement, la date et la durée de l'isolement. 

C. En cas de mise en quarantaine, la date et la durée de la quarantaine. 

D. Les vaccins administrés. 

vi. La classification du cas observé chez la personne. .: 

vii. La date du changement de classification avec description. 

viii. Les résultats de laboratoire et les méthodes d'investigation utilisées, y compris la sensibilité de la culture et la 
sensibilité antimicrobienne, les tests sérologiques, les examens microscopiques et les examens du hquide 
céphalo-rachidien, ainsi que les résultats obtenus. 

ix. S'il y a lieu, les liens existant avec une épidémie et le nombre de cas. 

X. Le traitement en cours de l'infection, le cas échéant, en précisant les médicaments et posologies employés ainsi 
que les dates de début et de fin du traitement. 

xi. L'endroit, y compris l'emplacement géographique, où l'infection semble avoir été contractée. 

xii. La source de l'infection, y compris les antécédents d'exposition et les risques de transmission sociale, 
xiii. Les facteurs de risque de la maladie, 
xiv. Les voyages de la personne, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

A. La date et le point d'entrée dans le pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

B. La date de départ du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie. 

C. La date et l'heure d'entrée au Canada et, le cas échéant, la compagnie aérienne et le numéro de vol. 

D. Les déplacements à l'intérieur du pays où la personne a contracté la maladie, en précisant les dates, les 
endroits et la durée des séjours. 

E. Tout autre endroit où la personne a séjourné avant son arrivée au Canada. 

XV. L'énumération des endroits visités et des moyens de transport utilisés au Canada avant et depuis l'apparition de la 
maladie. 

xvi. La situation professionnelle de la personne, y compris son poste et son lieu de travail. 

xvii. S'il y a lieu, le nom et l'adresse de l'école fréquentée et la salle de classe, 

xviii. La circonscription sanitaire chargée de repérer les sujets contacts. 

xix. Les noms des circonscriptions sanitaires et des sujets contacts. 

XX. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été repérés. 

xxi. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été retrouvés. 

xxii. Le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été mis en quarantaine, 

xxiii. S'il y a lieu, le nombre de sujets contacts qui ont été examinés et traités. 

xxiv. S'il y a lieu, les résultats des examens qu'ont subis les sujets contacts. 

XXV. En cas de décès, la date du décès et le rapport entre l'infection et la cause de décès. 
3. Le paragraphe 6 (1) du Règlement est abrogé et remplacé par ce qui suit : 

24 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 313 



(1) Le médecin-hygiéniste qui reçoit un rapport dressé en vertu de l'article 25, 26, 27 ou 28, du paragraphe 29 (2) ou de 
l'article 30 de la Loi doit en transmettre une copie, immédiatement et de manière sécuritaire, à la Division de la santé 
publique du ministère. 

4. Le Règlement est modifié par adjonction des articles suivants : ^ > 

7. ( 1 ) Un rapport qu'exige le paragraphe 38 (3) de la Loi doit contenir les renseignements suivants sur la personne qui en 
est l'objet : 

1 . Le nom en toutes lettres, l'adresse et le numéro de téléphone complets. 

2. La date de naissance complète. 

3. Le sexe. 

4. Le nom, l'adresse et le numéro de téléphone du père ou de la mère ou du tuteur de la personne qui subit une réaction 
adverse s'il s'agit d'un mineur. 

5. Le nom et l'adresse des médecins qui traitent la personne. 

6. Le nom de l'hôpital et les dates d'admission et de mise en congé, si la personne a été hospitalisée à la suite de 
l'événement à déclaration obligatoire. 

7. Les signes et les symptômes de l'événement à déclaration obligatoire et, s'ils sont connus, l'heure et la date auxquelles 
chaque symptôme est apparu pour la première fois. 

8. Le traitement prescrit, en précisant les médicaments et les posologies employés si la personne a demandé des soins 
médicaux après l'apparition de l'événement à déclaration obligatoire. 

9. Le nom de l'hôpital, la date de la visite et le nom des médecins qui ont traité la personne si elle est venue à l'hôpital en 
tant que malade externe après l'apparition de l'événement à déclaration obligatoire. 

10. Les résultats de laboratoire, y compris les dates et résultats des examens et autres méthodes d'investigation concernant 
l'événement à déclaration obligatoire. 

11. L'évolution de l'événement à déclaration obligatoire à la date du rapport, à savoir si la personne atteinte s'est 
complètement rétablie, souffre de séquelles ou est décédée. 

12. Le nom et le fabricant de chaque vaccin concernant l'événement à déclaration obligatoire, la date et l'heure de la 
vaccination, ainsi que la dose, le lieu de vaccination et le mode d'administration, le numéro de lot et la date 
d'expiration, ainsi que les dates de vaccination antérieures contre la même maladie. 

13. Le nom et le fabricant de chaque vaccin concernant l'événement à déclaration obligatoire qui a été reçu avant son 
apparition. 

(2) Le médecin-hygiéniste qui reçoit un rapport en vertu du paragraphe 38 (3) de la Loi fait un rapport au ministère à 
l'égard du signalement de la réaction adverse. 

8. Les rapports dressés en vertu de la Loi que vise le présent règlement sont envoyés au ministère par l'intermédiaire du 
système d'information sur la santé publique (iPHIS) ou de toute autre méthode que précise le ministère. 

5. Les formules 1 et 2 du Règlement sont abrogées. 

5/05 



25 



314 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

ONTARIO REGULATION 2/05 

made under the 

ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE ACT 

Made; January 13, 2005 
Filed: January 14,2005 

FEE WAIVER 

Definitions 

1. (1) In this Regulation, 

"child" includes a person whom a person has demonstrated a settled intention to treat as a child of his or her family, except 
under an arrangement where the child is placed for valuable consideration in a foster home by a person having lawful 
custody; ("enfant") 

"dependent child" means a child who, 

(a) is a minor or is enrolled in a full time program of education, and 

(b) if 16 years of age or more, has not withdrawn from parental control; ("enfant à charge") 

"gross monthly household income", when used with respect to a person, means the gross amount of all regular payments of 
any kind received by the members of the person's household during a month; ("revenu mensuel brut du ménage") 

"household" means a person and his or her spouse and dependent children; ("ménage") 

"household liquid assets", when used with respect to a person, means all assets owned by the members of the person's 
household that are money or can readily be converted into money; ("liquidités du ménage") 

"household net worth", when used with respect to a person, means the difference between, 

(a) the value of all assets owned by the members of the person's household, and 

(b) the value of all debts and other financial liabilities of the members of the person's household; ("avoir net du ménage") 
"spouse" means either of two persons who, 

(a) are married to each other within the meaning of clause (a) of the definition of "spouse" in section 1 of the Family Law 

Act, 

(b) have together entered into a marriage that is voidable or void, in good faith on the part of a person relying on this 
clause to assert any right, or 

(c) are not married to each other and have lived together in a conjugal relationship outside marriage, 

(i) continuously for a period of not less than three years, or 

(ii) in a relationship of some permanence, if they are the natural or adoptive parents of a child, ("conjoint") 

(2) Two persons are not spouses for the purpose of this section if they are living separate and apart as a result of a 
breakdown of their relationship. 

Prescribed conditions 

2. A person meets the prescribed conditions referred to in subsections 4.3 (4), 4.5 (2) and 4.6 (2) of the Act if, 

(a) the primary source of the person's gross monthly household income is one or more of, 

(i) income assistance under the Ontario Works Act, 1997, income support under the Ontario Disability Support 
Program Act, 1997 or an allowance under the Family Benefits Act, 

(ii) a pension, together with a guaranteed income supplement, under the Old Age Security Act (Canada), 

(iii) a benefit paid under the Canada Pension Plan, or 

(iv) an allowance paid under the War Veterans Allowance Act (Canada); or 

(b) each of the following is less than the corresponding amount shown in the Table: 

(i) the person's gross monthly household income, 
(ii) the value of the person's household liquid assets, and 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 315 



(iii) the person's household net worth. 
Exempted fees 

3. Sections 4.3 to 4.9 of the Act do not apply to the following fees: 

1. Fees, allowances and reimbursements of expenses under Ontario Regulation 587/91 (Court Reporters and Court 
Monitors) made under the Act. 

2. Fees and travelling allowances under section 5 of Ontario Regulation 293/92 (Superior Court of Justice and Court of 
Appeal — Fees) made under the Act. 

3. Fees under the regulation described in paragraph 2 with respect to proceedings relating to offences under Acts of the 
Parliament of Canada. 

4. Fees under the regulation described in paragraph 2 with respect to appeals under the Provincial Offences Act. 

5. Disbursements under subsection 1 (2) and travel allowances under section 2 of Ontario Regulation 294/92 (Sheriffs — 
Fees) made under the Act, except in relation to the enforcement of an order made under subsection 35 (3) of the 
Tenant Protection Act, 1997. 

6. Disbursements under item 5 of Schedule 2 (Bailiffs Fees) to Ontario Regulation 432/93 (Small Claims Court — Fees 
and Allowances) made under the Act. 

7. Fees and travel allowances under Schedule 3 (Fees and Allowances to Witnesses) to the regulation described in 
paragraph 6. 

8. Fees under Ontario Regulation 45 1/98 (Mediators' Fees (Rule 24. 1 , Rules of Civil Procedure)) made under the Act. 

9. Fees under Ontario Regulation 16/00 (Ontario Court of Justice — Fees) made under the Act, except with respect to 
proceedings that are governed by Ontario Regulation 1 14/99 (Family Law Rules) made under the Courts of Justice 
Act. 

Exempted persons 

4. Sections 4.3 to 4.9 of the Act do not apply to a person if, in connection with the proceeding in respect of which the fee 
is payable, 

(a) the person's fees are being paid under the Legal Aid Services Act, 1998; 

(b) the person has been appointed a representative party under the Class Proceedings Act. 1992 and has entered into an 
agreement providing for payment of disbursements only in the event of success, as described in section 33 of that Act; 
or 

(c) the person is a party to a contingency fee agreement made under the Solicitors Act under which the person's lawyer is 
responsible for the payment of disbursements during the course of the proceeding. 

Requests under ss. 4.3 and 4.4 of Act 

5. A request for a fee waiver that is made under section 4.3 or 4.4 of the Act shall be submitted, 

(a) in the case of a request to the Registrar of the Court of Appeal or to a judge of that court, to the office of the Registrar; 

(b) in any other case, to the office of the court in the county, municipality or territorial division, as the case may be, 

(i) where the proceeding is or would be commenced, or 
(ii) to which the proceeding has been transferred. 
Requests under s. 4.7 of Act 

6. A request for a fee waiver that is made under section 4.7 of the Act shall be submitted to the office of the court in the 
county, municipality or territorial division, as the case may be, where the tribunal order is to be enforced. 

TABLE 



Number of persons in household 


Gross monthly household 
income 


1 


$1,500 


2 


2,250 


3 


2.583 


4 


3,083 


5 or more 


3,583 


Household liquid assets: $1,500 
Household net worth: $6,000 



27 



316 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Commenceinciit 

7. This Regulation comes into force on the day sections 1, 2 and 3 of Schedule 1 to the Budget Measures Act (Fall), 
2004 come into force. 



REGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 2/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI SUR L'ADMINISTRATION DE LA JUSTICE 

pris le 1 3 janvier 2005 
déposé le 14 janvier 2005 

DISPENSE DES FRAIS 

Définitions 

1. (1) Les définitions qui suivent s'appliquent au présent règlement. 

«avoir net du ménage» Relativement à une personne, s'entend de la différence entre ce qui suit : 

a) la valeur de tous les biens appartenant aux membres de son ménage; 

b) la valeur de toutes les dettes et autres obligations financières des membres de son ménage, («household net worth») 
«conjoint» L'une ou l'autre de deux personnes qui, selon le cas : 

a) sont mariées ensemble au sens de l'alinéa a) de la définition de «conjoint» à l'article 1 de la Loi sur le droit de la 
famille; 

b) ont contracté, de bonne foi selon toute personne qui se fonde sur le présent alinéa pour faire valoir un droit quel qu'il 
soit, un mariage nul de nullité relative ou absolue; 

c) ne sont pas mariées ensemble et ont vécu ensemble dans une union conjugale hors du mariage : 

(i) soit de façon continue depuis au moins trois ans, 

(ii) soit dans une relation d'une certaine pentianence, si elles sont les parents naturels ou adoptifs d'un enfant. 
(«spouse») 

«enfant» S'entend en outre de la personne qu'une personne a manifesté l'intention bien arrêtée de traiter comme un enfant de 
sa famille, à l'exclusion de l'enfant qui est placé, contre valeur en vertu d'une entente, dans un foyer d'accueil par une 
personne qui en a la garde légitime, («child») 

«enfant à charge» Enfant qui ; i 

a) est mineur ou suit un programme d'études à temps plein; 

b) s'il est âgé de 16 ans ou plus, ne s'est pas soustrait à l'autorité parentale, («dependent child») ' ' 

«liquidités du ménage» Relativement à une personne, s'entend de tous les biens appartenant aux membres de son ménage qui 
sont en espèces ou qui peuvent être facilement convertis en espèces, («household liquid assets») 

«ménage» Personne ainsi que son conjoint et ses enfants à charge, («household») 

«revenu mensuel brut du ménage» Relativement à une personne, s'entend du montant brut de tous les paiements réguliers de 
toute sorte reçus par les membres de son ménage au cours d'un mois, («gross monthly household income») 

(2) Ne sont pas conjoints, pour l'application du présent article, deux personnes qui vivent séparément pour cause d'échec 
de leur union. 

Conditions prescrites 

2. Une personne satisfait aux conditions prescrites visées aux paragraphes 4.3 (4), 4.5 (2) et 4.6 (2) de la 1-oi si, selon le 

cas : 

a) la personne tire le revenu mensuel brut de son ménage principalement de l'une ou de plusieurs des sources suivantes : 



28 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 317 



(i) l'aide au revenu au sens de la Loi de 1997 sur le programme Ontario au travail, le soutien du revenu au sens de 
la Loi de 1997 sur le Programme ontarien de soutien aux personnes handicapées ou une allocation au sens de la 
Loi sur les prestations familiales, 

(ii) une pension, ainsi que le supplément de revenu garanti, prévus par la Loi sur la sécurité de la vieillesse (Canada), 

(iii) une prestation payée en vertu du Régime dépensions du Canada, 

(iv) une allocation versée en vertu de la Loi sur les allocations aux anciens combattants (Canada); 

b) chacun des éléments suivants est inférieur à la somme correspondante figurant au tableau : 

(i) le revenu mensuel brut du ménage de la personne, 

(ii) la valeur des liquidités du ménage de la personne, 

(iii) l'avoir net du ménage de la personne. 

Honoraires et frais faisant l'objet d'une dispense 

3. Les articles 4.3 à 4.9 de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas aux honoraires et frais suivants : 

1. Les honoraires, indemnités et remboursements de frais prévus par le Règlement de l'Ontario 587/91 (Sténographes 
judiciaires et préposés à l'enregistrement magnétique) pris en application de la Loi. 

2. Les honoraires et frais et indemnités de déplacement prévus à l'article 5 du Règlement de l'Ontario 293/92 (Cour 
supérieure de justice et Cour d'appel — honoraires et frais) pris en application de la Loi. 

3. Les honoraires et frais prévus par le règlement visé à la disposition 2 à l'égard des instances relatives aux infractions à 
des lois du Parlement du Canada. 

4. Les honoraires et frais prévus par le règlement visé à la disposition 2 à l'égard des appels interjetés en vertu de la Loi 
sur les infractions provinciales. 

5. Les débours prévus au paragraphe 1 (2) et les indemnités de déplacement prévues à l'article 2 du Règlement de 
l'Ontario 294/92 (Shérifs — honoraires et frais), pris en application de la Loi, sauf à l'égard de l'exécution d'une 
ordonnance rendue en vertu du paragraphe 35 (3) de la Loi de 1997 sur la protection des locataires. 

6. Les débours prévus au numéro 5 de l'annexe 2 (Honoraires et frais de l'huissier) du Règlement de l'Ontario 432/93 
(Cour des petites créances — honoraires, frais et indemnités) pris en application de la Loi. 

7. Les honoraires et frais et indemnités de déplacement prévus à l'annexe 3 (Honoraires, frais et indemnités des témoins) 
du règlement visé à la disposition 6. 

8. Les honoraires prévus par le Règlement de l'Ontario 451/98 (Honoraires des médiateurs (Règle 24.1, Règles de 
procédure civile)) pris en application de la Loi. 

9. Les frais prévus par le Règlement de l'Ontario 16/00 (Cour de justice de l'Ontario — frais) pris en application de la 
Loi, à l'exclusion des frais relatifs aux instances régies par le Règlement de l'Ontario 114/99 (Règles en matière de 
droit de la famille) pris en application de la Loi sur les tribunaux judiciaires. 

Personnes faisant l'objet d'une dispense 

4. Les articles 4.3 à 4.9 de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas à la personne si, relativement à l'instance à l'égard de laquelle les 
honoraires et frais sont payables : 

a) soit ses honoraires et frais sont payés en vertu de la Loi de 1998 sur les services d'aide juridique; 

b) soit elle a été nommée représentant aux termes de la Loi de 1992 sur les recours collectifs et a conclu une entente qui 
ne prévoit le paiement de débours qu'en cas d'issue favorable, comme l'énonce l'article 33 de cette loi; 

c) soit elle est partie à une entente sur des honoraires conditionnels conclue en vertu de la Loi sur les procureurs et aux 
termes de laquelle son avocat est redevable du paiement des débours engagés pendant le déroulement de l'instance. 

Demandes visées aux art. 43 et 4.4 de la Loi 

5. La demande de dispense des frais qui est présentée en vertu de l'article 4.3 ou 4.4 de la Loi est remise : 

a) dans le cas d'une demande adressée au greffier de la Cour d'appel ou à un juge de ce tribunal, au bureau du greffier; 

b) dans les autres cas, au greffe du tribunal du comté, de la municipalité ou de la division territoriale, selon le cas : 

(i) soit où l'instance est ou serait introduite, 
(ii) soit où l'instance a été transférée. 

29 



318 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Demandes visées à Tart. 4.7 de la Loi 

6. La demande de dispense des frais qui est présentée en vertu de l'article 4.7 de la Loi est remise au greffe du tribunal du 
comté, de la municipalité ou de la division territoriale, selon le cas, où l'ordonnance du tribunal doit être exécutée. 

TABLEAU 



Nombre de personnes au sein 
du ménage 


Revenu mensuel brut du 
ménage 


1 


1 500$ 


2 


2 250 


3 


2 583 


4 


3 083 


5 ou plus 


3 583 


Liquidités du ménage : 1 500 $ 
Avoir net du ménage : 6 000 $ 



Entrée en vigueur 

7. Le présent règlement entre en vigueur le même jour que les articles 1, 2 et 3 de l'annexe I de la Loi de 2004 sur 
les mesures budgétaires (automne). 

5/05 



NOTE: The Table of Regulations - Legislative History Overview and other tables related to regulations can be found at the 
e-Laws web site ( www.e-law .s.go v.on.ca ) under Tables. Consolidated regulations may also be found at that site by clicking 
on Statutes and associated Regulations under Consolidated Law. 

REMARQUE : On trouve le Sommaire de l'historique législatif des règlements et d'autres tables liées aux règlements sur le 
site Web Lois-en-ligne ( www.lois-cn-liene.aouv.on.ca ) en cliquant sur «Tables». On y trouve également les règlements 
codifiés en cliquant sur le lien Lois et règlements d'application sous la rubrique «Textes législatifs codifiés». 

J 



30 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 341 



Publications under the Regulations Act 
Publications en vertu de la Loi sur les règlements 

" ' ' . 2005—02—05 

ONTARIO REGULATION 3/05 

made under the 
SAFETY AND CONSUMER STATUTES ADMINISTRATION ACT, 1996 

Made: August 25. 2004 
Filed: January 17,2005 

REVIEWS AND APPEALS OF ORDERS ISSUED BY THE ELECTRICAL SAFETY AUTHORITY 

Definitions 

1. In this Regulation, 

"Authority" means the Electrical Safety Authority; 

"Director" means a director of the Authority that the Authority appoints under subsection 9 (1) of the Act for the purpose of 
this Regulation; 

"Review Panel" means a panel of not more than three persons appointed from a roster of persons selected by the Authority. 

Director's review 

2. (1) A person named in an order issued by the Authority under subsection 113 (5) of the Electricity Act, 1998 who 
considers themself aggrieved by the order may, within 15 days of the issuance of the order, apply to the Director in writing 
for a review of the order. 

(2) If a person applies to the Authority in writing for an order under subsection 1 13 (5) of the Electricity Act, 1998, if the 
Authority does not issue the order within 15 days of the application and if the person considers themself aggrieved by the 
non-issuance of the order, the person may, within a further 15 days, apply to the Director in writing for a review of the 
Authority's failure to issue the order. 

(3) Before or after the expiration of the time for applying for a review under subsection (1) or (2), the person may apply to 
the Director for an extension in the time for applying for the review. 

(4) The extension shall be for no more than 1 5 days from the day that the Director grants the extension. 

(5) The Director may grant the extension if satisfied that there are apparent grounds for granting relief to the applicant and 
that there are reasonable grounds for granting the extension, and may give directions, as appropriate. 

(6) An application under subsection (1) for a review of an order of the Authority operates as a stay of the order pending 
the outcome of the review. 

(7) The Director may, without notice, order that the stay of the order be lifted if the Director is of the opinion that the 
action is necessary in the interest of public safety. 

(8) The Director is not required to hold a hearing when conducting a review under this section. 

(9) In reviewing an order of the Authority or the Authority's failure to issue an order, the Director may, 

(a) refuse to consider the substance of the application for a review and refer the matter to the Review Panel for a hearing 
under section 3; or 

(b) confirm, amend or rescind the Authority's order or make whatever other decision that the Director deems appropriate. 
Appeal to Review Panel 

3. (1) A person named in a decision made by the Director under section 2 may appeal the decision to the Review Panel by 
filing a notice of appeal with the Review Panel within 15 days after the decision is made. 

(2) Before or after the expiration of the time for appealing a decision, a person mentioned in subsection (1) may apply to 
the Review Panel for an extension in the time for appealing the decision. 

31 



342 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(3) The extension shall be for no more than 15 days from the day that the Review Panel grants the extension. 

(4) The Review Panel may grant the extension if it is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for applying for the 
extension and that there are apparent grounds for granting the extension, and may give directions, as appropriate. 

(5) An appeal under subsection (1) operates as a stay of the decision pending the outcome of the appeal. 

(6) Upon the application of the Director, which may be made without notice, the Review Panel may order that the stay of 
the decision be lifted if, in its opinion, the action is necessary in the interest of public safety. 

(7) Subject to subsection (9), if a person appeals under subsection (1) or if the Director refers a matter to the Review Panel 
under clause 2 (9) (a), the Review Panel shall appoint a time for a hearing and hold the hearing. 

(8) The Director or a person designated by the Director for the purpose is entitled to be heard at the hearing. 

(9) If, on the application of a party to a hearing before the Review Panel with notice to the other parties, the Review Panel 
is satisfied that the appeal is frivolous or vexatious, the Review Panel may refuse to grant the hearing or may terminate the 
hearing at any time and make an order of costs as it considers appropriate in the circumstances. 

(10) The Review Panel may, by order, confirm, amend or rescind the decision of the Director or make whatever other 
decision that the Review Panel deems appropriate. 

(11) The Review Panel may make orders as to costs payable by the parties to the appeal and orders requiring the parties to 
the appeal to reimburse the Authority for its expenses incurred in respect of the appeal. 

Rules for hearings 

4. ( 1 ) The Authority may make rules establishing procedures for the hearing of reviews under section 2 and appeals under 
section 3 including, 

(a) rules applicable if a member of the Review Panel conducting a hearing is unable to continue to conduct the hearing 
because of illness or other reason; and 

(b) rules providing that the oral evidence given before the Review Panel at a hearing may be recorded if a party to the 
hearing so requests and pays the fee established by the Authority for that purpose in accordance with section 12 of the 
Act. 

(2) A rule made under clause (1) (a) may provide for the continuation or termination of the hearing, with or without the 
consent of the parties, or the commencement of a new hearing by a panel differently composed if the initial hearing is 
terminated. 

(3) A rule made under this section may be general or specific in its application and may apply differently to different 
hearings. 

Appeal to Divisional Court 

5. ( I ) Any party to the hearing before the Review Panel under section 3 may appeal from the decision of the Review 
Panel to the Divisional Court in accordance with the rules of court on any question that is not a question of fact alone. 

(2) The Minister is entitled to be heard at a hearing under this section. 

(3) The judge who hears an appeal under this section may, 

(a) refer the matter back to the Review Panel for reconsideration by the Review Panel: 

(b) confirm or alter the decision of the Review Panel; or 

(c) make whatever other order that the judge sees fit, including an order that the Director or an inspector appointed under 
subsection 1 13 (6) of the Electricity Act, 1998 do any act that the person is authorized to do under this Regulation or 
that Act. 

6/05 



32 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



343 



'V ; 



ONTARIO REGULATION 4/05 

made under the 

1' MUNICIPAL ACT, 2001 

Made: December 21, 2004 
Filed: January 17,2005 

Amending O. Reg. 385/98 
(Tax Matters — Transition Ratios and Average Transition Ratios) 

Note: Ontario Regulation 385/98 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations 
Legislative History Overview which can be found at www.e-laws.gov.on.ca . 

1. Table 4 of Ontario Regulation 385/98 is amended by striking out. 



Pembroke, City 
of 


1.973363 


2.295963 


4 J 14396 


1.408475 

















and substituting: 



Municipality 


Transition ratios 


Average transition 
ratios 




Multi- 
residential 
property 
class 


Commer 
-cial 
property 
class 


Industrial 

property 

class 


Pipe 
line 

property 
class 


New 
multi- 
residential 
property 
class 


Office 
building 
property 
class 


Shopping 
centre 
property 
class 


Parking 

lots and 

vacant 

land 

property 

class 


Large 
indus- 
trial 

property 
class 


Commer 
-cial 
property 
classes 


Indus- 
trial 

property 
classes 


Pembroke. 
City of 


1.8650 


2.1410 


4.6147 


1.3621 

















2. This Regulation shall be deemed to have come Into force on January I, 2004. 



6/05 

ONTARIO REGULATION 5/05 

made under the 

TOBACCO TAX ACT 

Made: January 17, 2005 
Filed: January 18, 2005 

TOBACCO TAX RATES 

Tax rates 

1.(1) Commencing on the day set out in Column 1 of Table 1 , tax under the Act in respect of cigarettes and tobacco other 
than cigarettes and cigars shall be payable at the following rates: 

1. For each cigarette, the tax rate shall be the amount of tax per cigarette set out in Column 2 of Table 1 opposite the day. 

2. For each gram or part gram of tobacco other than cigarettes and cigars, the tax rate shall be the amount of tax for each 
gram or part gram of tobacco set out in Column 3 of Table 1 opposite the day. 

(2) A tax rate prescribed under this section continues to apply until a different tax rate commences to apply in accordance 
with this Regulation. 

TABLE 1 



Item 


Column 1 


Column 2 


Column 3 




Date 


fax per Cigarette 


Tax per gram or 
part gram of 
tobacco 


1. 


January' 19. 2005 


$0.11725 


$0.11725 



33 



344 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



REGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 5/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI DE LA TAXE SUR LE TABAC 

pris le 17 janvier 2005 
déposé le 18 janvier 2005 

TAUX D'IMPOSITION DU TABAC 

Taux d'imposition 

l. (1) À partir de la date indiquée dans la colonne I du tableau 1, la taxe que prévoit la Loi à l'égard des cigarettes et à 
l'égard du tabac autre que des cigarettes et des cigares est payable aux taux suivants : 

1 . Pour chaque cigarette, le taux d' imposition correspond au montant de la taxe par cigarette indiqué dans la colonne 2 du 
tableau 1 en regard de la date. 

2. Pour chaque gramme ou fraction de gramme de tabac autre que des cigarettes et des cigares, le taux d'imposition 
correspond au montant de la taxe par gramme ou fraction de gramme de tabac indiqué dans la colonne 3 du tableau 1 
en regard de la date. 

(2) Un taux d'imposition prescrit aux termes du présent article continue de s'appliquer jusqu'à ce qu'un taux d'imposition 
différent commence à s'appliquer conformément au présent règlement. 

TABLEAU 1 



Poste 


Colonne 1 


Colonne 2 


Colonne 3 




Date 


Taxe par 
cigarette 


Taxe par 
gramme ou 
fraction de 
gramme de 
tabac 


1. 


19 janvier 2005 


0.11725$ 


0.11725$ 



Made by: 
Pris par : 



Le ministre des Finances, 

Gregory Sorbara 
Minister of Finance 



Date made: January 17. 2005. 
Pris le :' 17 janvier 2005. 

6/05 



34 



i 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 345 

ONTARIO REGULATION 6/05 

made under the 

DRUG INTERCHANGEABILITY AND DISPENSING FEE ACT 

Made: January 2 1 . 2005 
Filed: January 21. 2005 

Amending Reg. 93 5 of R.R.O. 1 990 
(General) 

Note: Regulation 935 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview wnich can be found at www.e-laws.gov.on.ca . 

1. The derinition of^FormuIary" in subsection 1 (1) of Regulation 935 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 
is amended by adding the following paragraph: 

10. Amendments dated January 25, 2005; 

2. This Regulation comes into force on January 25, 2005. 



Made by: 



George Smithernmn 
Minister of Health and Long-Term Care 



Date made: January 2 1 , 2005. 
6/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 7/05 

made under the 

ONTARIO DRUG BENEFIT ACT 

Made: January 21, 2005 
Filed: January 21, 2005 

Amending O. Reg. 20 1 /96 
(General) 

Note: Ontario Regulation 201/96 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - 
Legislative History Overview which can be found at www.e-laws.gov.on.ca . 

1. Section 7.1 of Ontario Regulation 201/96 is amended by adding the following paragraph: 

6. Amendments dated January 25, 2005. 

2. This Regulation comes into force on January 25, 2005. 



Made by: 



George Smitherman 
Minister of Health and Long-Term Care 



Date made: January 2 1 . 2005. 
6/05 

35 



346 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

NOTE: The Table of Regulations - Legislative History Overview and other tables related to regulations can be found at the 
e-Laws web site ( www.e-laws.aov.on.ca ) under Tables. Consolidated regulations may also be found at that site by clicking 
on Statutes and associated Regulations under Consolidated Law. 

REMARQUE : On trouve le Sommaire de l'historique législatif des règlements et d'autres tables liées aux règlements sur le 
site Web Lois-en-ligne (www. lois-en-ligne. gouv. on. ca ) en cliquant sur «Tables». On y trouve également les règlements 
codifiés en cliquant sur le lien Lois et règlements d'application sous la rubrique «Textes législatifs codifiés». 



36 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 371 



Publications under the Regulations Act 
Publications en vertu de la Loi sur les règlements 

^ 2005—02—12 

ONTARIO REGULATION 8/05 

made under the 
LIQUOR LICENCE ACT 

Made: January 13. 2005 
Filed: January 24, 2005 

"' AmendingReg. 719ofR.R.O. 1990 

(Licences to Sell Liquor) 

Note: Regulation 719 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview wnich can be found at www.e-laws.gov.on.ca . 

1. Section I of Regulation 719 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 is amended by adding the following 
definitions: 

"banquet room" means either a self-contained premises or a specific area within a licensed premises whose primary use is for 
private social functions booked in advance; 

"commercially-made wine" means wine made by a manufacturer but does not include wine made at a brew on premise 
facility, wine made at an establishment with a wine pub endorsement, fortified wine as defined in Ontario Regulation 
659/00 (Content and Labelling of Wine) made under the Wine Content and Labelling Act, 2000 or homemade wine; 

"restaurant" means a premises or portion of a premises to which a liquor licence applies that is primarily used for the sale and 
service of meals for consumption by patrons seated at tables but does not include, 

(a) a banquet room, 

(b) premises where liquor is served under a caterer's endorsement. 

(c) premises located on the property of a post-secondary educational institution, or 

(d) premises at which entertainment designed to appeal to erotic or sexual appetites or inclinations, as set out in subsection 
23 (1.2), is provided; 

2. Subsection 8 (2) of the Regulation is amended by adding the following paragraph: 

8. A bring-your-own wine endorsement authorizing the holder of a liquor sales licence for a restaurant or for a banquet 
room located in a hotel or motel to permit patrons to bring unopened bottles of commercially-made wine into the 
restaurant or banquet room to which the licence applies for their own consumption. 

3. Section 31 of the Regulation is amended by adding the following subsections: 

(3) Despite subsection (1), the licence holder with a bring-your-own-wine endorsement may serve commercially-made 
wine to patrons who brought the wine into the restaurant to which the licence applies. 

(4) Despite subsection (1), the licence holder with a bring-your-own-wine endorsement may serve commercially-made 
wine to patrons who brought the wine into the banquet room to which the licence applies, while the patrons are seated at 
tables in the banquet room consuming a meal. 

4. Section 33 of the Regulation is amended by adding the following subsection: 

(5) Despite subsection (I), the licence holder with a bring-your-own-wine endorsement may permit patrons to bring 
unopened bottles of commercially-made wine into the restaurant or banquet room to which the licence applies. 

5. Section 34 of the Regulation is amended by adding the following subsections: 

(3) Despite subsection (1), where a patron has purchased a bottle of commercially-made wine from the licence holder or 
has brought commercially-made wine into a restaurant or banquet room and has not consumed all of the wine in a bottle that 
has been opened, the licence holder may permit the patron to remove the bottle containing the remaining wine from the 
licensed premises if the licence holder has recorked the bottle with a cork that is flush with the top of the bottle. 

37 



372 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(4) Despite subsection (1), where a patron has brought commercially-made wine into a restaurant or banquet room and the 
bottle has not been opened, the licence holder shall permit the patron to remove the wine from the restaurant or banquet room 
when the patron departs. 

(5) Despite subsections (3) and (4), the licence holder shall not permit a patron who is or appears to be intoxicated to 
remove wine from the licensed premises. 

6. Section 66.1 of the Regulation is amended by adding the following subsection: 

(2) The licence holder who holds both a caterer's endorsement and a bring-your-own-wine endorsement shall not permit 
persons to bring wine onto the premises where the caterer's endorsement applies under the bring-your-own-wine 
endorsement. 

7. Section 83 of the Regulation is amended by striking out "that have lids and". 

8. The Regulation is amended by adding the following sections immediately before the heading "ADVERTISING 
Liquor and its Availability for Sale". 

Conditions of Bring- Your-Own- Wine Endorsements 

86.1 The holder of a liquor sales licence with a bring-your-own-wine endorsement shall ensure that the conditions of the 
endorsement that are set out in section 86.2 are met. 

86.2 (1) The licence holder may permit a patron to bring into the restaurant or banquet room to which the licence applies 
only unopened bottles of commercially-made wine. 

(2) Only the licence holder or an employee of the licence holder may open a bottle of wine brought into the restaurant or 
banquet room by the patron. 

(3) If any of the wine in a bottle brought into the restaurant or banquet room by the patron remains at the end of the 
pafron's visit, the licence holder shall dispose of it unless the patron is permitted to remove the bottle containing the wine in 
accordance with subsection 34 (3) or (4). 

7/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 9/05 

made under the 
ELECTRICITY ACT, 1998 

Made: January 26, 2005 
Filed: January 27. 2005 

vS, 

Amending O. Reg. 124/99 
(Transfer Tax on Municipal Electricity Property) 

Note: Ontario Regulation 124/99 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - 
Legislative History Overview wnich can be found at www.e-laws.gov.on.ca . 

1. Section 3 of Ontario Regulation 124/99 is amended by adding the following subsection: 

(19) Subsection 94 (1) of the Act does not apply to a fransfer of an interest in property described in subsection 94 (1), (I.I) 
or (2) of the Act if the following conditions are satisfied: 

1 . The transfer is made after March 27, 2005, 

2. The transfer is made to, 

i. a municipal electricity utility that is exempt under subsection 149 (I) of the Income Tax Act (Canada) from the 
payment of tax under that Act at the time of the transfer, or 

ii. Hydro One Inc., Ontario Power Generation, Inc. or a subsidiary of either of them (the "transferee") and the 
transferee is exempt under subsection 149 (1 ) of the Income Tax Act (Canada) from the payment of tax under that 
Act at the time of the transfer. 

38 



\ 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 373 



3. An application for approval of the transfer is made to the Ontario Energy Board before March 28, 2005. 

4. A written agreement to make the transfer is complete before March 28, 2005 and is not materially changed after that 
date. 



Made by: 



Gregory Sorbara 
Minister of Finance 



Date made: January 26, 2005. 
7/05 



NOTE: The Table of Regulations - Legislative History Overview and other tables related to regulations can be found at the 
e-Laws web site (www.e-laws.gov.on.ca ) under Tables. Consolidated regulations may also be found at that site by clicking 
on Statutes and associated Regulations under Consolidated Law. 

REMARQUE : On trouve le Sommaire de l'historique législatif des règlements et d'autres tables liées aux règlements sur le 
site Web Lois-en-ligne (www.lois-en-ligne.gouv.on.ca ) en cliquant sur «Tables». On y trouve également les règlements 
codifiés en cliquant sur le lien Lois et règlements d'application sous la rubrique «Textes législatifs codifiés». 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



399 



Publications under the Regulations Act 
Publications en vertu de la Loi sur les règlements 

2005— «2— 19 

ONTARIO REGULATION 10/05 

made under the 

ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE ACT 

Made: January 13, 2005 
Filed: January 31, 2005 



t 



Amending O. Reg. 293/92 
(Superior Court of Justice and Court of Appeal 



Fees) 



Note: Ontario Regulation 293/92 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations 
Legislative History Overview vvnich can be found at www.e-lavvs.gov.on.ca . 

1. Section 1 of Ontario Regulation 293/92 is revoked and the following substituted: 

1. The following fees are payable, except in respect of proceedings to which section 1.2 applies: 



1. 


On the issue of. 






i. a statement of claim or notice of action 


$181.00 




ii. a notice of application 


181.00 




iii. a third or subsequent parry claim 


181.00 




iv. a statement of defence and 
counterclaim addinj^ a party 


181.00 




V. a summons to a witness 


22.00 




vi. a certificate, other than a certificate of 
a search by the registrar required on an 
application for a certificate of 
appointment of estate trustee, and not 
more than five pages of copies of the 
Court document annexed 


22.00 




for each additional page 


2.00 




vii. a commission 


44.00 




viii. a writ of execution 


55.00 




ix. a notice of garnishment (including the 
filing of the notice with the sheriff) 


115.00 


2. 


On the signing of 






i. an order directing a reference, except 
an order on requisition directing the 
assessment of a bill under the 
Solicitors Act 


235.00 




ii. an order on requisition directing the 
assessment of a bill under the 
Solicitors Act 






A. if obtained by a client 


75.00 




B. if obtained by a solicitor 


144.00 




iii. a notice of appointment for the 

assessment of costs under the Rules of 
Civil Procedure 


104.00 


3. 


On the filing of, 






i. a notice of intent to defend 


144.00 




ii. if no notice of intent to defend has 
been filed by the same party, a 
statement of defence, a defence to 
counterclaim, a defence to crossclaim 
or a third party defence 


144.00 



41 



400 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 





iii. a notice of appearance 


102.00 




iv. a notice of motion served on another 
party, a notice of motion without 
notice, a notice of motion for a consent 
order or a notice of motion for leave to 
appeal, other than a notice of motion 
in a family law appeal 


127.00 




V. a notice of return of motion, other than 
a notice of return of motion in a family 
law appeal 


127.00 




vi. in a family law appeal, a notice of 
motion served on another party, a 
notice of motion without notice, a 
notice of motion for a consent order or 
a notice of retum of motion 


90.00 




vii. a notice of motion for leave to appeal 
in a family law case 


90.00 




viii. a requisition for signing of default 
judgment by registrar 


127.00 




ix. a trial record, for the first time only 


337.00 




X. a notice of appeal from an 
interlocutory order 


181.00 




xi. a notice of appeal to an appellate court 
of a final order of a small claims court 


104.00 




xii. a notice of appeal to an appellate court 
of a final order of any court or 
tribunal, other than the Small Claims 
Court or the Consent and Capacity 
Board 


259.00 




xiii. a request to redeem or request for sale 


104.00 




xiv. an affidavit under section 1 1 of the 
Bulk Sales Ad 


75.00 




XV, a jury notice in a civil proceeding 


104.00 


4. 


For obtaining an appointment with a 
registrar for settlement of an order 


104.00 


5. 


For perfecting an appeal 


201.00 


6. 


For the making up and forwarding of 
papers, documents and exhibits 


75.00 
and the 
transpor- 
tation 
costs 


7. 


For making copies of documents. 






i. not requiring certification, per page 


2.00 




ii. requiring certification, per page 


4.00 


8. 


For the inspection of a court file. 






i. by a solicitor or party in the 
proceeding 


No 
charge 




ii. by a person who has entered into an 
agreement with the Attorney General 
for the bulk inspection of court files, 
per file 


4.00 




iii. by any other person, per file 


32.00 


9. 


For the retrieval from storage of a court file 


61.00 


10. 


For the taking of an affidavit or declaration 
by a commissioner for taking affidavits 


13.00 


11. 


For a settlement conference under rule 
77. 14 of the Rules of Civil Procedure 


127.00 



2. Subsection 2 (1) of the Regulation is revolted and the following substituted: 

(1) The following fees are payable in estate matters: 



42 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



401 



1. 


For a certificate of succeeding estate 
trustee or a certificate of estate trustee 
during litigation 


$75.00 


2. 


For an application of an estate trustee to 
pass accounts, including all services in 
connection with it 


322.00 


3. 


For a notice of objection to accounts 


69.00 


4. 


For an application other than an 
application to pass accounts, including an 
application for proof of lost or destroyed 
will, a revocation of a certificate of 
appointment, an application for directions 
or the filing of a claim and notice of 
contestation 


173.00 


5. 


For a notice of objection other than a 
notice of objection to accounts, including 
the filing of a notice of appearance 


69.00 


6. 


For a request for notice of commencement 
of proceedings 


69.00 


7. 


For the deposit of a will or codicil for 
safekeeping 


20.00 


8. 


For an assessment of costs, including the 
certificate 


46.00 



3. Subsection 3 (1) of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

(I) The following fees are payable in an action under the Construction Lien Act: 



1. 


Where the claim, crossclaim, counterclaim 
or third party claim does not exceed 
$6,000, 






i. on the issuing of a statement of claim, 
crossclaim, counterclaim or third 
party claim 


$75.00 


2. 


Where the claim, crossclaim, counterclaim 
or third party claim exceeds $6,000, 






i. on the issuing of a statement of claim, 
crossclaim, counterclaim or third 
party claim 


181.00 




ii. on the filing of a statement of defence 


104.00 




iii. on the issuing of a certificate of action 


104.00 




iv. on the filing of a trial record 


339.00 



4. Subsection 4(1) of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

(1) The following fees are payable in respect of an application under the Repair and Storage Liens Act: 



1. 


On the filing of. 






i. an application 


$184.00 




ii. a notice of objection 


104.00 




iii. a waiver of further claim and a receipt 


no charge 


2. 


On the issuing of. 






i. an initial certificate 


104.00 




ii. a final certificate 


104.00 




iii. a writ of seizure 


55.00 



43 



402 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



REGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 10/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI SUR L'ADMINISTRATION DE LA JUSTICE 

pris le 13 janvier 2005 
déposé le 3 1 janvier 2005 

modifiant le Règl. de l'Ont. 293/92 
(Cour supérieure de justice et Cour d'appel — honoraires et frais) 

Remarque : Le Règlement de l'Ontario 293/92 a été modifié antérieurement. Ces modifications sont indiquées dans le 
Sommaire de l'historique législatif des règlements qui se trouve sur le site www.lois-en-li^ne.eouv.on.ca . 

1. L'article 1 du Règlement de l'Ontario 293/92 est abrogé et remplacé par ce qui suit : 

1. Les honoraires et frais suivants sont payables, sauf à l'égard des instances auxquelles s'applique l'article 1 .2 : 



1. 


Sur délivrance des documents suivants : 






i. une déclaration ou un avis d'action 


181,00$ 




ii. un avis de requête 


181,00 




iii. une mise en cause ou une mise en 
cause subséquente 


181,00 




iv. une défense et une demande 

reconventionnelle ajoutant une partie 


181,00 




v. une assignation à témoin 


22,00 




vi. un certificat, autre qu'un certificat de 
recherche par le greffier exigé dans le 
cas d'une requête en vue d'obtenir un 
certificat de nomination à titre de 
fiduciaire de la succession, et au plus 
cinq pages copiées à partir du 
document de procédure en annexe 


22,00 




par page supplémentaire 


2,00 




vii. une commission rogatoire 


44,00 




viii. un bref d'exécution forcée 


55,00 




ix. un avis de saisie-arrêt (y compris le 
dépôt de l'avis auprès du shérif) 


115,00 


2. 


Sur signature des documents suivants : 






i. une ordonnance de renvoi, à 
l'exception d'une ordonnance sur 
réquisition ordonnant la liquidation 
d'un mémoire aux termes de la Loi 
sur les procureurs 


235,00 




ii. une ordonnance sur réquisition 
ordonnant la liquidation d'un 
mémoire aux termes de la Loi sur les 
procureurs : 






A. si elle est obtenue par un client 


75,00 




B. si elle est obtenue par un 
procureur 


144,00 




iii. un avis de rencontre pour la 

liquidation des dépens effectuée aux 
termes des Règles de procédure civile 


104,00 


3. 


Sur dépôt des documents suivants : 






i. un avis d'intention de présenter une 
défense 


144,00 




ii. si aucun avis d'intention de présenter 
une défense n'a été déposé par la 
même partie, une défense, une 
défense reconventionnel le, une 
défense à la demande entre 
défendeurs ou une défense à la mise 
en cause 


144,00 



44 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



403 





iii. un avis de comparution 


102,00 




iv. un avis de motion signifié à une autre 
partie, un avis de motion sans préavis, 
un avis de motion en vue d'obtenir 
une ordonnance sur consentement ou 
un avis de motion en autorisation 
d'interjeter appel, autre qu'un avis de 
motion donné dans un appel d'une 
cause en droit de la famille 


127,00 




V. un avis du rapport de la motion, autre 
que celui qui est donné dans un appel 
d'une cause en droit de la famille 


127,00 




vi. dans un appel d'une cause en droit de 
la famille, un avis de motion signifié 
à une autre partie, un avis de motion 
sans préavis, un avis de motion en 
vue d'obtenir une ordonnance sur 
consentement ou un avis du rapport 
de la motion 


90,00 




vii. un avis de motion en autorisation 
d'interjeter appel dans une cause en 
droit de la famille 


90,00 




viii. une réquisition pour obtenir la 
consignation par le greffier d'un 
jugement par défaut 


127,00 




ix. un dossier d'instruction, pour la 
première fois seulement 


337,00 




X. un avis d'appel d'une ordonnance 
interlocutoire 


181,00 




xi. un avis d'appel, auprès d'un tribunal 
d'appel, d'une ordonnance définitive 
d'une cour des petites créances 


104,00 




xii. un avis d'appel, auprès d'un tribunal 
d'appel, d'une ordonnance définitive 
d'un tribunal judiciaire ou 
administratif autre que la Cour des 
petites créances ou la Commission du 
consentement et de la capacité 


259,00 




xiii. une demande de rachat ou une 
demande de vente 


104.00 




xiv. un affidavit prévu à l'article 1 1 de la 
Loi sur la vente en bloc 


75,00 




XV. la convocation du jury dans une 
instance civile 


104,00 


4. 


Pour une rencontre avec un greffier pour 
faire établir une ordonnance 


104,00 


5. 


Pour la mise en état d'un appel 


201,00 


6. 


Pour la préparation et l'expédition d'écrits, 
de documents et de pièces 


75,00 
plus les 
frais de 
transport 


7. 


Pour la reproduction de documents : 






i. dont la certification n'est pas exigée, 
par page 


2,00 




ii. dont la certification est exigée, par 
page 


4,00 


8. 


Pour l'examen d'un dossier du greffe : 






i. par un procureur ou une partie à 
l'instance 


Sans frais 




ii. par une personne qui a conclu une 
entente avec le procureur général 
pour l'examen en bloc de dossiers du 
greffe, par dossier 


4,00 




iii. par toute autre personne, par dossier 


32,00 


9. 


Pour la récupération d'un dossier du greffe 
qui est archivé 


61,00 



45 



404 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



10. 


Pour la réception d'affidavits ou de 
déclarations par un commissaire aux 
affidavits 


13,00 


II. 


Pour une conférence en vue d'une 
transaction prévue à la règle 77. 14 des 
Règles de procédure civile 


127,00 



2. Le paragraphe 2 (1) du Règlement est abrogé et remplacé par ce qui suit : 

(1) Les honoraires et frais suivants sont payables dans les questions de succession : 



1. 


Pour la délivrance d'un certificat de 
nomination à titre de nouveau fiduciaire de la 
succession ou d'un certificat de nomination à 
titre de fiduciaire de la succession pour la 
durée du litige 


75,00 $ 


2, 


Pour la requête en approbation des comptes 
présentée par le fiduciaire de la succession, y 
compris tous les services s'y rattachant 


322,00 


3. 


Pour un avis d'opposition aux comptes 


69,00 


4. 


Pour une requête autre qu'une requête en 
approbation des comptes, y compris une 
requête visant la preuve d'un testament perdu 
ou détruit, la révocation d'un certificat de 
nomination, une requête en vue d'obtenir des 
directives ou le dépôt d'une réclamation et 
d'un avis de contestation 


173,00 


5. 


Pour un avis d'opposition autre qu'un avis 
d'opposition aux comptes, y compris le dépôt 
d'un avis de comparution 


69,00 


6. 


Pour une demande d'avis d'introduction 
d'instance 


69,00 


7. 


Pour le dépôt d'un testament ou d'un 
codicille 


20,00 


8. 


Pour la liquidation des dépens, y compris le 
certificat 


46,00 



3. Le paragraphe 3 (1) du Règlement est abrogé et remplacé par ce qui suit : 

( 1 ) Les frais et honoraires suivants sont payables dans une action intentée aux termes de la Loi sur le privilège dans 
l 'industrie de la construction : 



1. 


Si le montant demandé dans la déclaration, la 
demande entre défendeurs, la demande 
reconventionnelle ou la mise en cause ne 
dépasse pas 6 000 $ : 






i. sur délivrance d'une déclaration, d'une 
demande entre défendeurs, d'une 
demande reconventionnelle ou d'une 
mise en cause 


75,00 $ 


2. 


Si le montant demandé dans la déclaration, la 
demande entre défendeurs, la demande 
reconventionnelle ou la mise en cause 
dépasse 6 000 $ : 






i. sur délivrance d'une déclaration, d'une 
demande entre défendeurs, d'une 
demande reconventionnelle ou d'une 
mise en cause 


181,00 




ii. sur dépôt d'une défense 


104,00 




iii. sur délivrance d'un certificat d'action 


104,00 




iv. sur dépôt du dossier d'instruction 


339,00 



4. Le paragraphe 4 (1) du Règlement est abrogé et remplacé par ce qui suit : 

(1) Les frais et honoraires suivants sont payables à l'égard d'une requête présentée aux termes de la Loi sur le privilège 
des réparateurs et des entreposeurs : 



46 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



405 



1. 


Sur dépôt des documents suivants : 






i. une requête 


184,00$ 




ii. un avis d'opposition 


104,00 




iii. une renonciation à toute demande 
ultérieure et un reçu 


sans frais 


2. 


Sur délivrance des documents suivants : 






i. un certificat initial 


104,00 




ii. un certificat définitif 


104,00 




iii. un bref de saisie 


55,00 



8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 11/05 

made under the 
ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE ACT 

Made: January 13,2005 
Filed: January 31, 2005 

Amending O. Reg. 432/93 
(Small Claims Court — Fees and Allowances) 

Note: Ontario Regulation 432/93 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - 
Legislative History Overview wnich can be found at www.o-laws.uov.on.ca . 

1. Items 1, 3, 5, 6, 8, 10, 13 and 16 of Schedule 1 to Ontario Regulation 432/93 are revoked and the following 
substituted: 



1. 


Filing of a claim by an infrequent claimant 


$75.00 








3. 


Filing of a defendant's claim 


75.00 








5. 


Filing a defence 


40.00 


6. 


Issuing a summons to a witness 


19.00 








8. 


Issuing a certificate of judgment 


19.00 








10. 


Issuing a notice of garnishment 


100.00 








13. 


Issuing a certified copy of a judgment or 
other document, per page 


3.50 








16. 


Making a photocopy of a document not 
requiring certification, per page 


2.00 



2. Schedule 2 to the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

SCHEDULE 2 
BAILIFF'S FEES 



1. 


For each attempt, whether 
successful or not, to serve a claim, 
third party claim, summons to 
witness, notice of examination or 
notice of garnishment, for each 
person to be served 


$24,00 



47 



406 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



2. 


For each attempt, whether 
successful or not, to enforce a writ 
of delivery 


36.00 


3. 


For each attempt, whether 
successful or not, to enforce a writ 
of seizure and sale of personal 
property. 






i. where no sale is necessary 


36.00 




ii. where a sale is necessary 


60.00 


4. 


For each attempt, whether 
successftil or not, to enforce a writ 
of seizure under the Repair and 
Slura.^e Liens Act 


36.00 


5. 


Enforcing a writ of delivery or a 
writ of seizure and sale of personal 
property, removing property 
seized, advertising the sale of 
personal property, including 
obtaining assistance in seizing, 
securing or retaining property 


Reasonable 
disbursements 
necessarily 
incurred, including 
appraisers" fees 



REGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 11/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI SUR L'ADMINISTRATION DE LA JUSTICE 

pris le 13 janvier 2005 
déposé le 3 1 janvier 2005 

modifiant le Règl. de l'Ont. 432/93 
(Cour des petites créances — honoraires, frais et indemnités) 

Remarque : Le Règlement de l'Ontario 432/93 a été modifié antérieurement. Ces modifications sont indiquées dans le 
Sommaire de l'historique législatif des règlements qui se trouve sur le site ^v\vw.lois-en-li^ne.^ouv.on.ca ■ 

1. Les numéros 1, 3, 5, 6, 8, 10, 13 et 16 de l'annexe 1 du Règlement de l'Ontario 432/93 sont abrogés et remplacés 
par ce qui suit : 



1. 


Pour le dépôt d'une demande par un 
réclamant occasionnel 


75,00 $ 








3. 


Pour le dépôt de la demande du défendeur 


75,00 








5. 


Pour le dépôt d'une défense 


40,00 


6. 


Pour la délivrance d'une assignation à un 
témoin 


19,00 








8. 


Pour la délivrance d'un certificat de 
jugement 


19,00 








10. 


Pour la délivrance d'un avis de saisie-arrêt 


100,00 








13. 


Pour la délivrance d'une copie certifiée 
conforme d'un jugement ou d'un autre 
document, par page 


3,50 








16. 


Pour la photocopie de documents dont la 
certification n'est pas exigée, par page 


2,00 



48 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



407 



2. L'annexe 2 du Règlement est abrogée et remplacée par ce qui suit : 

ANNEXE 2 
HONORAIRES ET FRAIS DE L'HUISSIER 



1. 


Pour chaque tentative de signification 
d'une demande, d'une mise en cause, 
d'une assignation à un témoin, d'un 
avis d'interrogatoire ou d'un avis de 
saisie-arrêt, qu'elle soit fructueuse ou 
non, pour chaque personne visée par la 
signification 


24,00 $ 


2. 


Pour chaque tentative d'exécution 
forcée d'un bref de délaissement, 
qu'elle soit fructueuse ou non 


36,00 


3. 


Pour chaque tentative d'exécution 
forcée d'un bref de saisie-exécution à 
l'égard de biens meubles, qu'elle soit 
fructueuse ou non : 






i. si la vente n'est pas nécessaire 


36,00 




ii. si la vente est nécessaire 


60,00 


4. 


Pour chaque tentative d'exécution 
forcée d'un bref de saisie aux termes 
de la Loi sur le privilège des 
réparateurs et des entreposeurs, 
qu'elle soit fructueuse ou non 


36,00 


5. 


Pour l'exécution forcée d'un bref de 
délaissement ou d'un bref de saisie- 
exécution à l'égard de biens meubles, 
l'enlèvement des biens saisis, 
l'annonce de la vente des biens 
meubles, y compris l'aide obtenue lors 
de la saisie, de l'obtention ou de la 
garde des biens 


Débours 
raisonnables 
nécessairement 
engagés, y 
compris les 
honoraires et 
frais des 
estimateurs 



8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 12/05 

made under the 
ONTARIO DRUG BENEFIT ACT 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

AmendingO. Reg. 201/96 
(General) 

Note: Ontario Regulation 201/96 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - 
Legislative History Overview which can be found at www.e-laws.gov.on.Cci . 

1. The definition of "Formulary" in subsection 1 (1) of Ontario Regulation 201/96 is amended by adding the 
following paragraph: 

6. Amendments dated February 22, 2005; 

2. Clause 9 (3) (a) of the Regulation is amended by adding the following subclause: 
(xxx.l) iron sucrose, 

3. This Regulation comes into force on February 22, 2005. 

8/05 . 



49 



408 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

ONTARIO REGULATION 13/05 

made under the 

DRUG INTERCHANGEABILITY AND DISPENSING FEE ACT 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

Amending Reg. 935 of R.R.O. 1990 
(General) 

Note: Regulation 935 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview wnich can be found at vvvvw.e-la ws.gov. un. ca. 

1. The definition of 'Formulary" in subsection 1 (1) of Regulation 935 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 
is amended by adding the following paragraph: 

II. Amendments dated February 22, 2005; 

2. This Regulation comes into force on February 22, 2005. 

8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 14/05 

made under the 

COMMITMENT TO THE FUTURE OF MEDICARE ACT, 2004 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

ONTARIO HEALTH QUALITY COUNCIL 



Council established 



1 . ( 1 ) A corporation without share capital is established, under the name "Ontario Health Quality Council" in English, and 
"Conseil ontarien de la qualité des services de santé" in French. 

(2) The Council consists of the members of the Council appointed by the Lieutenant Governor under subsection 2 (2) of 
the Act, who shall serve as the board of directors of the corporation established under subsection (I). 

(3) Subject to subsections (4), (5) and (6), members of the Council hold office for a term of three years and may be re- 
appointed for one further term. 

(4) Of the initial appointments of the members of the Council, as nearly as possible, 

(a) one-half shall be appointed for a term of two years; and 

(b) one-half shall be appointed for a term of three years. 

(5) The person appointed under subsection 2 (6) of the Act shall hold office for the duration of the term of his or her 
appointment on a similar council for Canada and the provinces and territories of Canada. 

(6) If a person ceases to be a member of the Council, the first term of appointment of the person appointed to succeed that 
person may only be for the remainder of the first person's term. 

(7) One of the members shall be the Chair of the Council, and one of the members shall be the vice-Chair, as provided for 
by the Lieutenant Governor in Council. 

(8) The Chair shall preside at all meetings of the Council and, in the absence of the Chair or if the office is vacant, the 
vice-Chair shall have all the powers and shall perform the duties of the Chair. 

(9) Members of the Council who are not members of the public service of Ontario are entitled to be paid such 
remuneration as is fixed by the Lieutenant Governor in Council, and are entitled to be reimbursed for reasonable expenses 
incurred in performing their duties under the Act and this Regulation. 

50 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 409 



(10) The Council shall meet regularly throughout the year at the call of the Chair, and, in any event, at least four times a 
year. 

(1 1) A majority of members of the Council constitutes a quorum for meetings of the Council. 
Crown agent 

2. The Council is for all its purposes an agent of Her Majesty, its powers may be exercised only as an agent of Her 
Majesty, and all property acquired by the Council is the property of Her Majesty. 

Non-application of Acts 

3. The Corporations Act and the Corporations Information Act do not apply to the Council. 
Conflict of interest, indemnities and standard of care 

4. Section 132, subsection 134 (1) and section 136 of the Bi4siness Corporations Act apply to the Council and to its 
members with necessary modifications. 

Powers of Council 

5.(1) The Council has the capacity, rights, powers and privileges of a natural person for carrying out its functions, except 
as limited by the Act or this Regulation. 

(2) The revenues of the Council, including all money or assets received by the Council by grant, gift, contribution, profit 
or otherwise, shall only be used to further its functions. 

(3) The Council shall not, except with the approval of the Lieutenant Governor in Council, 

(a) acquire, hold or dispose of any interest in real property; 

(b) borrow money; 

(c) pledge the assets of the Council; or 

(d) create any subsidiary. 
Powers of members 

6. ( 1 ) The affairs of the Council are under the management and control of its board of directors. 

(2) The Council may, subject to the approval of the Minister, pass by-laws and resolutions for conducting and managing 
its affairs, including, 

(a) appointing officers and assigning to them such powers and duties as the board considers appropriate; 

(b) maintaining bank accounts and making other banking arrangements; and 

(c) establishing committees. 
Chief executive officer and employees 

7. ( 1 ) The Council shall appoint a chief executive officer. 

(2) The chief executive officer is responsible for the operation of the Council, subject to the supervision and direction of 
the Council. 

(3) The chief executive officer may appoint such employees as are considered necessary for the proper conduct of the 
affairs of the Council. 

(4) The employees are not civil servants, public servants or Crown employees within the meaning of the Public Service 
Act. 

Collection of information 

8. (1) The Council may only collect de-identified personal health information for the purposes of carrying out its 
functions and making its reports. 

(2) The Council shall not commission the creation of information by sources that are not approved by the Minister. 

(3) In subsection ( 1 ), 

"de-identified personal health information" means personal health information of an individual that has had removed from it 
any information that identifies the individual or any information for which it is reasonably foreseeable in the circumstances 
that it could be utilized, either alone or with other information to identify the individual. 

Restriction on sale 

9. The Council shall not sell any analysis of the information it has collected, or any of its services, without the approval of 
the Lieutenant Governor in Council. 

51 



410 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

Fiscal year 

10. The Council's fiscal year begins on April 1 in each year and ends on March 31 in the following year. 
Auditor 

11. (1) The Council shall appoint one or more auditors licensed under the Public Accountancy Act to audit annually the 
accounts and financial transactions of the corporation. 

(2) The Council shall give a copy of every auditor's report to the Minister within six months after the end of the fiscal year 
to which the report relates, and shall make available to the Provincial Auditor, on his or her request, the auditor's report and 
all accounts, records and other documents relating to the audit. 

(3) The Minister may require that any aspect of the affairs of the Council be audited by an auditor appointed by the 
Minister. 

Report on affairs 

12. (1) Within six months of the end of each fiscal year of the Council, the Council shall give the Minister a report on its 
affairs for the preceding fiscal year. 

(2) The report mentioned in subsection (I) must include any information specified by the Minister. 

(3) The Minister shall submit the report mentioned in subsection (1) to the Lieutenant Governor in Council and shall then 
table it in the Legislative Assembly. 

(4) The Council shall give the Minister such other information and reports on its affairs and operations as the Minister 
may require. 

Yearly report 

13. In its yearly report under section 5 of the Act, the Council may report respecting, 

(a) access to publicly funded health services, including primary health care and community based health services; 

(b) availability of publicly funded health human resources, including physicians, nurses and other health care 
professionals; 

(c) health and wellness of the population; and 

(d) quality, efficiency and effectiveness of health services. 
Winding-up 

14. If the Minister considers it to be in the public interest to wind up the affairs of the Council, he or she may do all things 
necessary to accomplish that, including dealing with the assets of the Council by, 

(a) liquidating or selling the assets and paying the proceeds into the Consolidated Revenue Fund; or 

(b) transferring the assets to the Crown, including another agency of the Crown. 
Commencement 

15. This Regulation comes into force on the day section 6 of the Act comes into force. 

8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 15/05 

made under the 

HIGHWAY TRAFFIC ACT 

Made; February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

Amending Reg. 628 of R.R.O. 1990 
(Vehicle Permits) 

Note: Regulation 628 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview wnich can be found at www.e-laws.'4ov.on. ca. 

1. (1) Paragraphs 6.1 and 6.2 of subsection 17 (1) of Regulation 628 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 are 
revoked and the following substituted: 

52 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



411 



6.1 


For a motor vehicle permit and number plates 
bearing a requested graphic 


75 


6.2 


For a duplicate validated motor vehicle permit, 
number plates bearing the same requested 
graphic and evidence of validation, in case of 
loss or destruction 


50 



(2) Paragraphs 7 and 7.1 of subsection 17 (1) of the Regulation are revoked and the following substituted: 



7. 


For a motor vehicle permit and number plates 
bearing a requested number 


225 


7.1 


For a motor vehicle permit and number plates 
bearing a requested number and graphic 


300 


7.2 


For a permit issued under subsection 7(7.1) of 
the Act to match existing number plates for a 
historic vehicle, where a permit has not 
previously been issued under that subsection 
matching those specific number plates for that 
specific historic vehicle 


225 



(3) Paragraphs 9, 9.1, 9.2, 9.3 and 9.4 of subsection 17 (1) of the Regulation are revoked and the following 
substituted: 



9. 


For the replacement of number plates bearing a 
requested number, with or without a requested 
graphic, with number plates bearing the same 
number and graphic, if any. 






i. in the case of loss or destruction 


90 




ii. in the case of the plates being stolen and a 
police report submitted 


50 


9.1 


For the replacement of number plates bearing a 
requested number with number plates bearing 
the same number and adding a requested 
graphic 


125 


9.2 


For the replacement of number plates bearing a 
requested number and graphic with number 
plates bearing the same number but a different 
graphic 


125 


9.3 


For a sample number plate 


15 


9.4 


For a sample number plate bearing a requested 
graphic 


30 



2. This Regulation comes into force on the later of the day it is filed and February 21, 2005. 



8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 16/05 

made under the 

OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY ACT 

Made; February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 



Amending Reg. 833 of R.R.O. 1990 
(Control of Exposure to Biological or Chemical Agents) 

Note: Regulation 833 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview which can be found at wvvv^.e-laws.gov.on .ca. 

1. (1) Part 4 of the Schedule to Regulation 833 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 is revoked and the 
following substituted: 

53 



412 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



PART 4 
TIME-WEIGHTED AVERAGE EXPOSURE VALUES (TWAEV), SHORT-TERM EXPOSURE VALUES (STEV) AND 

CEILING EXPOSURE VALUES (CEV) 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Acetaldehyde 

(75-07-0) 










25 




Acetic acid 
(64-19-7) 


10 


25 


15 


37 






Acetic anhydride 
(108-24-7) 










5 


21 


Acetone 
(67-64-1) 


500 




750 








Acetone cyanohydrin 
(75-86-5), as CN Skin 










4.7 




Acetonitrile 
(75-05-8) Skin 


20 












Acetophenone 
(98-86-2) 


10 












2-(Acetyloxy) benzoic acid 
(50-78-2) 




5 










Acrolein 
(107-02-8) 










0.1 




Acrylamide 
(79-06-1) Skin 




0.03 










Acrylic acid 
(79-10-7) 


2 












Adipic acid 
(124-04-9) 




5 










Adiponitrile 
(111-69-3) -Skin 


2 












Aldrin 
(309-00-2) -Skin 




0.25 










Allyl alcohol 
(107-18-6) Skin 


0.5 












Allyl chloride 
(107-05-1) 


1 


3 


2 


6 






Allyl propyl disulfide 
(2179-59-1) 


0.5 












alpha-Alumina (total dust) 
(1344-28-1) 




10 










Aluminum-powder 
(7429-90-5) 




5 










Aluminum, alkyl derivatives of 
(7429-90-5) 




2 










Aluminum, metal and oxide dust 
(7429-90-5) 




10 










Aluminum, water-soluble compounds of 
(7429-90-5) 




2 










2-Aminoethanol 

(141-43-5) 


3 


7.5 


6 


15 






2-Aminopyridine 
(504-29-0) 


0.5 


2 










3-Amino-l H- 1 ,2,4-triazolc 
(61-82-5) 




0.2 










4-Amino-3,5,6-trichloro-2- 
pyridinecarboxylic acid 
(1918-02-1) 




10 




20 






Ammonia 
(7664-41-7) 


25 


17 


35 


24 






Ammonium chloride fume 
(12125-02-9) 




10 




20 







54 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



413 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Ammonium perfluoro-octanoate 
(3825-26-1) 




0.01 










Ammonium sulfamate 
(7773-06-0) 




10 










tert-Amyi methyl ether (TAME) 
(994-05-8) 


20 












Aniline and homologues 
(62-53-3) Skin 


2 


8 










Anisidine (sum of o-, and p-isomers) 
(29191-52-4) Skin 


0.1 


0.5 










Antimony and its compounds, including 
antimony trioxide handling and use, but 
excluding stibine (as antimony) 
(7440-36-0) 




0.5 










Antimony hydride 
(7803-52-3) 


0.1 


0.5 










Arsine 

(7784-42-1) 


0.05 


0.16 










Asphalt (Bitumen) fume, as benzene- 
soluble aerosol, inhalable 
(8052-42-4) 




0.5 










Atrazine 
(1912-24-9) 




5 










Azinphos-methyl, inhalable, vapour and 

aerosol 

(86-50-0) Skin 




0.2 










Barium carbonate, chloride, nitrate, or 

oxide (as barium) 

(7440-39-3) 




0.5 










Barium sulfate (total dust) 

(7727-43-7) 




10 










Benomyl 
(17804-35-2) 


0.8 


9 










Benzaldehyde 
(100-52-7) 






4 


17 






1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid bis(2- 

ethylhexyl) ester 

(117-81-7) 




3 




5 






Benzenethiol 
(108-98-5) 


0.5 


2.2 










Benzotrichloride 
(98-07-7) Skin 










0.1 




Benzoyl chloride 
(98-88-4) 










0.5 




Benzoyl peroxide 
(94-36-0) 




5 










Benzyl acetate 
(140-11-4) 


10 












Benzyl chloride 
(100-44-7) 


1 


5 










Beryllium and its compounds (as 

beryllium) 

(7440-41-7) 




0.002 




0.01 






Biphenyl 
(92-52-4) 


0.2 


1.3 










Bis(eta-cyclopentadienyl)iron 
(102-54-5) 




10 










Bis(2-(dimethylaminoethyl)) ether 

(DMAEE) 

(3033-62-3) Skin 


0.05 




0.15 









55 



414 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


PPm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mK/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


2,6-Bis( 1 , 1 -dimethylcthyl)-4- 
methylphenol, also known as Butylated 
hydroxytoluene (BHT), inhalable, vapour 
and aerosol 
(128-37-0) 




2 










Bis(dimethylthiocarbonyl) disulfide 
(137-26-8) 




1 










Bismuth telluride 
(1304-82-1) 




10 










Bismuth telluride, selenium-doped 
(1304-82-1) 




5 










Borates, tetra, sodium salts 
(1303-96-4) 














- Anhydrous 




1 










- Decahydrate 




5 










- Pentahydrate 




1 










Boron oxide 
(1303-86-2) 




10 










Boron tribromide 
(10294-33-4) 










1 


10 


Boron trifluoride 

(7637-07-2) 










1 


2.8 


Bromacil 
(314-40-9) 




10 










Bromine 

(7726-95-6) 


0.1 




0.2 








Bromine pentafluoride 
(7789-30-2) 


0.1 


0.7 










Bromochloromethane 

(74-97-5) 


200 


1,060 


250 


1,320 






Bromoform 
(75-25-2) - Skin 


0.5 


5 










Bromotri fluoromethane 

(75-63-8) 


1,000 


6,085 










1,3-Butadiene 
(106-99-0) 


5 












Butane, all isomers 
(106-97-8) 


800 


1,900 










1-Butanethiol 
(109-79-5) 


0.5 


1.8 










2-Butanone 
(78-93-3) 


200 


590 


300 


885 






2-Butoxyethanol 
(111-76-2) Skin 


20 












2-Butoxyethyl acetate (EGBEA) 
(112-07-2) 


20 












(Butoxymethyl) oxirane 
(2426-08-6) 


25 


133 










n-Butyl acetate 
(123-86-4) 


150 


710 


200 


950 






sec-Butyl acetate 
(105-46-4) 


200 


950 










tcrt-Butyl acetate 
(540-88-5) 


200 


950 










n-Butyl acrylate 
(141-32-2) 


2 












n-Butanol, also known as n-Butyl alcohol 
(71-36-3) 




20 










sec-Butyl alcohol 

(78-92-2) 


100 


303 


150 


454 






tert-Butyl alcohol 
(75-65-0) 


100 


303 


150 


454 







56 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



415 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


n-Butyl lactate 
(138-22-7) 


5 


30 










n-Butylamine 
(109-73-9) — Skin 










5 


15 


o-sec-Butyiphenoi 
(89-72-5) - Skin 


5 


31 










p-tert-Butyltoiuene 
(98-51-1) 


1 












tert-Butyl chromate, (as chromate) 
(1 189-85-1) — Skin 












0.1 


Cadmium, elemental 

(7440-43-9), and compounds, as Cd 




0.01 










Cadmium, elemental 

(7440-43-9), and compounds, as Cd, 

respirable 




0.002 










Calcium carbonate 
(471-34-1) 




10(D) 










Calcium chloride 
(10043-52-4) 




5 










Calcium chromate 
(13765-19-0), as Cr 




0.001 










Calcium cyanamide 
(156-62-7) 




0.5 










Calcium hydroxide 
(1305-62-0) 




5 










Calcium oxide 
(1305-78-8) 




2 










Calcium silicate (total dust) 
(1344-95-2) 




10 










Calcium sulfate, including plaster of Paris 

(total dust) 

(10101-41-4) 




10 










Camphor 

(76-22-2) 


2 


12 


3 


19 






Caprolactam, inhalable, vapour and 

aerosol 

(105-60-2) 




5 










Captafol 
(2425-06-1) -Skin 




0.1 










Captan, inhalable 
(133-06-2) 




5 










Carbofuran, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 
(1563-66-2) 




0.1 










Carbon black 
(1333-86-4) 




3.5 










Carbon dioxide 
(124-38-9) 


5,000 


9,000 


30,000 


54,000 






Carbon disulfide 
(75-15-0) Skin 


10 


31 










Carbon monoxide 
(630-08-0) 


35 


40 


400 


460 






Carbon tetrabromide 
(558-13-4) 


0.1 


1.4 


0.3 


4.1 






Carbon tetrachloride 
(56-23-5) — Skin 


2 


13 


3 


19 






Carbonyl chloride 
(75-44-5) 


0.1 


0.4 










Carbonyl fluoride 
(353-50-4) 


2 


5.4 


5 


13 






Cellulose (paper fibre, total dust) 
(9004-34-6) 




10 











57 



416 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


nig/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Cesium hydroxide 
(21351-79-1) 




2 










Charcoal, except activated 
(16291-96-6) 




10 










Chloroacetaldehyde 
(107-20-0) 










1 


3 


Chlordane 
(57-74-9) Skin 




0.5 




2 






Chlorinated diphenyl oxides 
(55720-99-5) 




0.5 




2 






Chlorine 

(7782-50-5) 


0.5 




1 








Chlorine dioxide 
(10049-04-4) 


0.1 


0.3 


0.3 


0.9 






Chlorine trifluoride 

(7790-91-2) 










0.1 


0.4 


Chloroacetone 

(78-95-5) 










I 




Chloroacetyl chloride 
(79-04-9) 


0.05 




0.15 








Chlorobenzene 
(108-90-7) 


10 












o-Chlorobenzaldehyde 
(89-98-5) 






4 


23 






o-Chlorobenzylidenemalononitrile 
(2698-41-1) Skin 










0.05 


0.4 


2-Chloro- 1 ,3-butadiene 
(126-99-8) Skin 


10 


36 










Chlorodifluoromethane 

(75-45-6) 


1,000 


3,535 


1,250 


4,415 






1 -Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane 
(106-89-8) Skin 


0.5 












2-Chloroethanol 
(107-07-3) Skin 










1 


3.3 


p-Chloronitrobenzene 
(100-00-5) 


0.1 


0.6 










1 -Chloro- 1 -nitropropane 
(600-25-9) 


2 


10 










Chloropentafluoroethane 
(76-15-3) 


1,000 


6,315 










2-Chloro- 1 -phenylethanone 

(532-27-4) 


0.05 


0.32 










1 -Chloro-2-propanol 
(127-00-4) Skin 


1 












2-Chloro- 1 -propanol 
(78-89-7) Skin 


1 












2-Chloropropionic acid 
(598-78-7) Skin 


0.1 












o-Chlorostyrene 
(2039-87-4) 


50 


283 


75 


425 






o-Chlorotoliiene 
(95-49-8) 


50 


260 


75 


388 






2-Chloro-6-(trichloro-methyl)pyridine 
(1929-82-4) 




10 




20 






Chlorpyrifos, inhalable, vapour and 

aerosol 

(2921-88-2) Skin 




0.1 










Chromâtes, dichromates and other 
hexavaient chromium compounds (as 
chromium) 
(7440-47-3) 




0.05 











58 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



417 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Chromium 

(7440-47-3), insoluble Cr VI compounds, 

asCr 




0.01 










Chromium metal, and divalent and 
trivalent chromium compounds (as 
chromium) 
(7440-47-3) 




0.5 










Chromyl chloride 
(14977-61-8) 


0.025 


0.16 










Clopidol 
(2971-90-6) 




10 




20 






Coal dust. Anthracite (respirablc) 




0.4 










Coal dust. Bituminous (respirable) 




0.9 










Coal tar pitch volatiles (as total benzene- 
soluble compounds) 
(65996-93-2) 




0.2 










Cobalt carbonyl and hydrocarbonyl (as 

cobalt) 

(7440-48-4) 




0.1 










Cobalt metal, dust and fume (as cobalt) 
(7440-48-4) 




0.02 










N-Coco morpholine 
(1541-81-7)- Skin 


5 


52 










Copper fume (as copper) 
(7440-50-8) 




0.2 










Copper dust and mists (as copper) 
(7440-50-8) 




1 










Cotton dust, fabric knitting 




0.5 










Cotton dust, raw 




0.2(F) 










Cotton dust, slashing and weaving 




0.75(F) 










Cotton dust, waste 




0.5(F) 










'Coumin 100' Polymer Flakes (total dust) 
(63393-89-5) 




5 










Cresol (sum of o-, m-, and p-isomers) 
(1319-77-3)" Skin 


5 


22 










Crotonaldehyde 
(4170-30-3) 










0.3 




Crufomate 
(299-86-5) 




5 




20 






Cumene 
(98-82-8) - Skin 


50 


245 










Cyanamide 
(420-04-2) 




2 










Cyanogen 
(460-19-5) 


10 


21 










Cyanogen chloride 
(506-77-4) 










0.3 


0.75 


Cyclohexane 
(110-82-7) 


100 












Cyclohexanol 
(108-93-0) -Skin 


50 


200 










Cyclohexanone 
(108-94-1) — Skin 


20 




50 








Cyclohexene 
(110-83-8) 


300 


1,010 










Cyclohexylamine 
(108-91-8) 


10 


40 










Cyclopentadiene 
(542-92-7) 


75 


200 










Cyclopentane 
(287-92-3) 


600 


1,720 











59 



418 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mR/m3 


Cyhexatin 
(13121-70-5) 




5 










Cymene (sum of o-,ni- and p-isomers) 
(25155-15-1) Skin 


50 


274 










Decaborane 
(17702-41-9) Skin 


0.05 


0.25 


0.15 


0.75 






Demeton, inhalablc, vapour and aerosol 
(8065-48-3) Skin 




0.05 










Demeton-S-methyl, inhalable, vapour and 

aerosol 

(919-86-8) Skin 




0.05 










1,2-Diaminoethane 
(107-15-3) 


10 


25 










Diatomaceous earth, (uncalcined) 

inhalable 

(61790-53-2) 




10(D) 










Diatomaceous earth (uncalcined) 

respirable 

(61790-53-2) 




3(D) 










Diazinon, inhalable, vapour and aerosol, 
also known as Phosphoroth ionic acid 0,0- 
diethyl 0-(6-methyl)-2-( 1 -methylethyl)-4- 
pyrimidinyl) ester 
(333-41-5) - Skin 




0.01 


• 








Diazomethane 

(334-88-3) 


0.2 


0.34 










Diborane 

(19287-45-7) 


0.1 


0.1 1 










Dibromodifluoromethane 
(75-61-6) 


100 


860 










2-N-(Dibutylamino) ethanol 
(102-81-8) Skin 


0.5 












Dibutyl phenyl phosphate 
(2528-36-1) Skin 


0.3 












Dibutyl phosphate 
(107-66-4) 


1 


8.6 


2 


17 






Dibutyl phthalate 

(84-74-2) 




5 










o-Dichlorobenzene 
(95-50-1) 


25 




50 








p-Dichlorobenzene 
(106-46-7) 


10 












Dichlorodifluoromethane 

(75-71-8) 


1,000 


4,940 










1 ,4-Dichloro-2-butene 
(764-41-0) Skin 


0.005 












l,3-Dichloro-5,5-dimethyl-hydantoin 
(118-52-5) 




0.2 




0.4 






1, 3-Dichloro-2-Propanol 
(96-23-1) Skin 






1 


5 






1,1-Dichloroethane 

(75-34-3) 


100 












1 ,2-Dichloroethane 
(107-06-2) 


10 


40 










1,1-Dichloroethene 
(75-35-4) 


1 


4 


20 


80 






1 ,2-Dichloroethylene 
(540-59-0) 


200 


790 


250 


990 






Dichloroethyne 

(7572-29-4) 










0.1 


0.4 


Dichlorofluoromethane 

(75-43-4) 


10 


42 











60 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



419 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Dichloromethane 
(75-09-2) 


50 


175 










1 , 1 -Dichloro- 1 -nitroethane 
(594-72-9) 


2 


12 










(2,4-Dichlorophenoxy) acetic acid and its 

esters (as 2,4-D) 

(94-75-7) 




10 










2-(2,4-Dichiorophenoxy) ethanol 
hydrogen sulfate sodium salt 
(136-78-7) 




10 










1 ,2-Dichloropropane 
(78-87-5) 


75 


350 


110 


510 






1 ,3-Dichloropropcne 
(542-75-6) — Skin 


1 


5 










2,2-Dichloropropionic acid, inhalable 
(75-99-0) 




5 










1 ,2-Dichloro- 1 , 1 ,2,2-tetra-fluoroethane 

(76-14-2) 


1,000 


6,985 










Dichlorvos (DDVP), inhalable, vapour 
and aerosol 
(62-73-7) — Skin 




0.1 










Dicrotophos, inhalable, vapour and 

aerosol 

(141-66-2)- Skin 




0.05 










Dicyclopentadicne 

(77-73-6) 


5 


27 










Dicldrin 
(60-57-1)- Skin 




0.25 










Diesel fuel, as total hydrocarbons, 
vapour and aerosol 
(68334-30-5; 68476-30-2; 68476-31-3; 
68476-34-6; 77650-28-3) -- Skin 




100 










Dielhanolamine 
(II 1-42-2) 




2 










Diethylamine 
(109-89-7) 


5 




15 








2-Diethylaminoethanol 
(100-37-8) — Skin 


2 












Diethylene glycol monoethyl ether 
(111-90-0) 


30 


165 










Diethylene triamine 
(II 1-40-0)- Skin 


1 


4 










Diethyl phthalate 
(84-66-2) 




5 










1 ,2-Dihydroxybcnzene 
(120-80-9) 


5 


22 










1 ,4-Dihydroxybenzene 
(123-31-9) 




2 










Diisodecyl phthalate 
(26761-40-0) 




5 










Diisopropylamine 
(108-18-9) — Skin 


5 


20 










Dimethoxymethane 
(109-87-5) 


1,000 


3,110 










N,N-Dimethylacetamide 
(127-19-5) Skin 


10 


36 










Dimethylamine 
(124-40-3) 


5 




15 








3-(Dimethylaniino) propylattiine 
(111-90-0) -Skin 


0.5 


2 










N,N-Dimethylaniline 
(121-69-7)- Skin 


5 


25 


10 


50 







61 



420 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ar,ar-Dimethylbcnzcnaminc (sum of all 
isomers), inhalable, vapour and aerosol, 
also known as Xyiidinc 
(1300-73-8) Skin 


0.5 












Dimethylbcnzene (sum of o-, m- and p- 

isomers) 

(1330-20-7) 


100 


435 


150 


650 






N, N-Dimethyl-cyclohexylamine 
(98-94-2) 






5 


26 






Dimethylethoxysilane 

(14857-34-2) 


0.5 




1.5 








N, N-Dimethyl-ethanolamine 
(108-01-0) 


3 


11 


6 


22 






N.N-Dimcthylformamidc 
(68-12-2) Skin 


10 


30 










2,6-Dimethyl-4-heptanone 
(108-83-8) 


25 


145 










1 , 1 -Dimethylhydrazine 
(57-14-7) Skin 


0.01 












2-(2,2-Dimethyl- 1 -oxopropyl)-H-indenc- 

l,3(2H)-dione 

(83-26-1) 




0.1 










Dimethyl phthalate 
(131-11-3) 




5 










Dimethyl sulfate 
(77-78-1) -Skin 


0.1 


0.5 










Dimethyl sulfide 

(75-18-3) 


10 












Dimethyl lerephthalate 
(120-61-6) 




5 










Dimethyl 2,3,5,6-tetracholorotere- 

phthalate 

(1861-32-1) 




5 










Dinitrobenzcnc (sum of m-, o-, and p- 

isomers: 

(99-65-0), (528-29-0), and (100-25-4)) - 

Skin 


0.15 


1.0 










Dinitro-o-cresol 
(534-52-1)- Skin 




0.2 










Dinitrotoluenc (sum of all isomers) 
(25321-14-6) -Skin 




0.2 










1,4-Dioxane 
(123-91-1) - Skin 


20 












Dioxathion, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 
(78-34-2) Skin 




0.1 










1,3-Dioxolane 
(646-06-0) 


20 












N,N-Diphcnylamine 
(122-39-4) 




10 










Dipropylene glycol monomethyl ether 
(34590-94-8) 


100 


605 


150 


910 






Dipropylene glycol monomethyl ether 

acetate 

(88917-22-0) 


100 


776 


150 


1,164 






Diquat 

(2764-72-9) Skin 




0.5 










Diquat, respirable 
(2764-72-9) Skin 




0.1 










Disulfiram 

(97-77-8) 




2 










Disulfoton, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 
(298-04-4) Skin 




0.05 











62 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



421 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Diuron 

(330-54-1) 




10 










m-Divinylbenzene 
(108-57-6) 


10 


53 










Dodecyl mercaptan 
(112-55-0) 


0.1 












Emery (total dust) 
(1302-74-5) 




10 










Endosulfan 
(115-29-7) Skin 




0.1 










Endrin 
(72-20-8) — Skin 




0.1 










Enflurane 
(13838-16-9) 


2 


16 










l,2-Epoxy-4-(epoxycthyl)-cyclohexane 
(106-87-6)-- Skin 


0.1 












1 ,2-Epoxypropane 
(75-56-9) 


20 


47 










2,3-Epoxy-l-propanol 
(556-52-5) 


2 












Ethane 
(74-84-0) 


1,000 












Ethanethiol 
(75-08-1) 


0.5 


1.3 










Ethanol 
(64-17-5) 


1,000 


1,900 










Ethion, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 
(563-12-2) — Skin 




0.05 










Ethoxyethane 
(60-29-7) 


400 


1,210 


500 


1,515 






2-Ethoxyethanol (EGEE) 
(110-80-5) -Skin 


5 


18 










2-Ethoxyethyl acetate (EGEEA) 
(111-15-9) Skin 


5 


27 










Ethyl acetate 
(141-78-6) 


400 


1,440 










Ethyl acrylate 
(140-88-5) -Skin 


5 




15 








Ethylamine 
(75-04-7) 


5 




15 








Ethylbenzene 
(100-41-4) 


100 


435 


125 


540 






Ethyl bromide 
(74-96-4) 


5 












Ethyl tert-butyl ether (ETBE) 
(637-92-3) 


5 












Ethyl chloride 
(75-00-3) 


100 












Ethyl cyanoacrylate 
(7085-85-0) 


0.2 












Ethyl-3-ethoxy propionate 
(763-69-9) 


50 


300 










Ethylene glycol 
(107-21-1) 












100 


Ethylene glycol dimethyl ether 
(110-71-4)- Skin 


5 


18 










Ethylene glycol dinitrate (EGDN) 
(628-96-6) Skin 


0.05 


0.31 










Ethylene glycol mono-n-propyl ether 
(2807-30-9)- Skin 


25 


110 











63 



422 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Res. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


PPm 


ms/m3 


Ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/mS 


Ethylene glycol mononitrate 
(16051-48-2)- Skin 


0.05 


0.22 










5-Ethylidene-2-norbomene 
(16219-75-3) 










5 


25 


Ethyienimine 
(151-56-4) Skin 


0.5 


0.9 










Ethyl formate 
(109-94-4) 


100 


300 










2-Ethylhexanoic acid, inhalable, vapour 

and aerosol 

(149-57-5) 




5 










Ethyl mcthacrylate 
(97-63-2) 


100 


470 










N-Ethylmorpholine 
(100-74-3) Skin 


5 


23 










0-Ethyl O-p-nitrophenyl 
phenylphosphonothioate (EPN), inhalable 
(2104-64-5) Skin 




0.1 










Ethyl silicate 

(78-10-4) 


10 


85 










Fenamiphos 
(22224-92-6) Skin 




0.1 










Fensulfothion 
(115-90-2) 




0.1 










Fenthion 
(55-38-9) Skin 




0.1 










Ferbam 
(14484-64-1) 




10 










Ferrovanadium dust 
(12604-58-9) 




1 




3 






Fluorides (as fluoride) 
(16984-48-8) 




2.5 










Fluorine 

(7782-41-4) 


1 


1.6 


2 


3.1 






Fonofos 
(944-22-9) - Skin 




0.1 










Forane 

(26675-46-7) 


2 


15 










Formaldehyde 
(50-00-0) 


1 


1.5 


2 


3 






Formamide 
(75-12-7)- Skin 


10 


15 










Formic acid 
(64-18-6) 


5 




10 








Furfural 
(98-01-1) Skin 


2 


8 










Furfuryl alcohol 
(98-00-0) Skin 


10 


40 


15 


60 






Gasoline 
(86290-81-5) 


300 




500 








Germanium tetrahydride 

(7782-65-2) 


0.2 


0.63 










Glycerin mist 
(56-81-5) 




10 










Glutaraldehyde 

(1 1 1-30-8), activated and inactivated 










0.05 




Glyoxal, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 

(107-22-2) 




0.1 










Grain dust (oats, wheat, barley) 




4 










Grain dust, not otherwise classified (total 
dust) 




4 











64 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



423 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Graphite (all forms except graphite 

fibres), respirabie 

(7782-42-5) 




2 










Gypsum (total dust) 
(10101-41-4) 




10 










Hafnium 
(7440-58-6) 




0.5 










Halothane 
(151-67-7) 


2 


16 










Heptachlor 

(76-44-8) and Heptachlor epoxide (1024- 

57-3) — Skin 




0.05 










n-Heptane, also known as Heptane 
(142-82-5) 


400 


1,635 


500 


2,045 






2-Heptanone 
(110-43-0) 


25 


115 










3-Heptanone 
(106-35-4) 


50 




75 








4-Heptanone 
(123-19-3) 


50 


233 










Heptyl acetate 
(90438-79-2) 


50 


320 










Hexachiorobenzene 
(118-74-1) -Skin 




0.002 










Hexachloro- 1 ,3-butadiene 
(87-68-3) Skin 


0.02 


0.21 










Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 

(77-47-4) 


0.01 


0.11 










Hexachloroethane 
(67-72-1) 


1 












Hexachloronaphthalene 
(1335-87-1) -Skin 




0.2 










Hexafluoroacetone 
(684-16-2) Skin 


0.1 


0.7 










Hexahydrophthalic anhydride. All 
isomers, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 
(85-42-7; 13149-00-3; 14166-21-3) 












0.005 


Hexahydro- 1 ,3,5-trinitro- 1 ,3,5-triazine 
(121-82-4)- Skin 




0.5 










Hexamethylenetetramine (HMT) 
(100-97-0) 






0.35 


2 






n-Hexane 
(110-54-3) 


50 


176 










Hexane, other isomers of 


500 


1,760 


1,000 


3,520 






1 ,6-Hexanediamine 
(124-09-4) 


0.5 












2-Hexanone 
(591-78-6) 


1 


4 










1-Hexene 
(592-41-6) 


30 












sec-Hexyl acetate 
(142-92-7) 


50 


294 










Hexyl acetate (isomeric mixture) 
(88230-35-7) 


50 


294 










Hexylene glycol 
(107-41-5) 










25 


120 


Hydrazine 
(302-01-2)- Skin 


0.01 












Hydrogenated terphenyls' 
(61788-32-7) 


0.5 












Hydrogen bromide 
(10035-10-6) 










2 





65 



424 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZEITE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Hydrogen chloride 
(7647-01-0) 










5 


7.4 


Hydrogen cyanide and Cyanide salts, as 
CN 














Hydrogen cyanide 
(74-90-8) Skin 










4.7 




Calcium cyanide 
(592-01-8) Skin 












5 


Potassium cyanide 
(151-50-8) Skin 












5 


Sodium cyanide 
(143-33-9) Skin 












5 


Hydrogen fluoride (as fluoride) 
(7664-39-3) 










3 


2.5 


Hydrogen peroxide 

(7722-84-1) 


1 


1.4 










Hydrogen selenide (as selenium) 

(7783-07-5) 


0.05 


0.16 










Hydrogen sulfide 
(7783-06-4) 


10 


14 


15 


21 






4-Hydroxy-4-methyl-2-pentanone 

(123-42-2) 


50 


240 


75 


360 






2-Hydroxypropyl acryiate 
(999-61-1) Skin 


0.5 


2.7 










Indene 
(95-13-6) 


10 


47 










Indium and its compounds (as indium) 

(7440-74-6) 




0.1 










Iodine 

(7553-56-2) 










0.1 


1 


Iodoform 

(75-47-8) 


0.6 


10 










Iron oxide (Fe^Oj) dust and fiime (as Fe) 
(1309-37-1) 




5 










Iron pentacarbonyl (as iron) 
(13463-40-6) 


0.1 


0.8 


0.2 


1.6 






Iron salts, water-soluble (as iron) 
(7439-89-6) 




1 










Isoamyl alcohol 
(123-51-3) 


100 


360 


125 


450 






Isobutyl acetate 
(110-19-0) 


150 


710 


187 


887 






Isobutyl alcohol 

(78-83-1) 


50 


150 










Isobutyl nitrite, inhalable, vapour and 

aerosol 

(542-56-3) 










1 




Isooctyl alcohol 
(26952-21-6) Skin 




270 










2-Isopropoxyethanol 
(109-59-1) 


25 


105 










Isopropanol, also known as Isopropyl 

alcohol 

(67-63-0) 


200 




400 








Isopropyl acetate 
(108-21-4) 


100 




200 








Isopropylamine 
(75-31-0) 


5 


12 


10 


24 






Isopropylaminocthanols 






400 


1,900 






N-Isopropylaniline 
(768-52-5) - Skin 


2 


II 











66 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



425 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Isosorbide dinitrate 
(87-33-2) - Skin 




0.2 










Kaolin, respirable 
(1332-58-7) 




2(D) 










Kerosene, as total hydrocarbon vapour 
(8008-20-6; 64742-8 1-0/ Jet foels) — 
Skin 




200 (G) 










Ketene 
(463-51-4) 


0.5 


0.9 


1.5 


2.6 






L.P.G. (Liquified petroleum gas) 
(68476-85-7) 


1,000 












Lead chromate 
(7758-97-6), as Cr 




0.012 










Limestone (total dust) 
(1317-65-3) 




10(D) 










Lincomycin 
(154-21-2) 




0.1 










Lindane 
(58-89-9) Skin 




0.5 










Lithium hydride 
(7580-67-8) 




0.025 










Lithium hydroxide, Anyhydrous 
(1310-65-2) 








1 






Lithium hydroxide. Monohydrate 
(1310-66-3) 








1 






Magnesite (total dust) 
(546-93-0) 




10(D) 










Magnesium oxide, inhalable 
(1309-48-4) 




10 










Malathion, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 
(121-75-5) -Skin 




1 










Maleic anhydride 
(108-31-6) 


0.1 












Manganese, and inorganic compounds (as 

manganese) 

(7439-96-5) 




0.2 










Manganese cyclo-pentadienyltricarbonyl 
(as manganese) 
(12079-65-1) -Skin 




0.1 










Manganese tetroxide (as manganese) 
(1317-35-7) -Skin 




1 










Mesityl oxide 
(141-79-7) 


15 


60 


25 


100 






Methacrylic acid 
(79-41-4) 


20 


70 










Methanethiol 
(74-93-1) 


0.5 


1 










Methanol 
(67-56-1)- Skin 


200 


260 


250 


325 






Methomyl 
(16752-77-5) 




2.5 










Methoxychlor 

(72-43-5) 




10 










2-Methoxyethanol (EGME) 
(109-86-4) Skin 


5 


16 










2-Methoxyethyl acetate (EGMEA) 
(110-49-6) Skin 


5 


24 










Methoxyflurane 
(76-38-0) 


2 


13 










4-Methoxyphenol 
(150-76-5) 




5 











67 



426 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Res. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


l-Methoxy-2-propanoi (POME) 
(107-98-2) 


100 


365 


150 


550 






Methyl acetate 
(79-20-9) 


200 


605 


250 


755 






Methyl acetylene-propadiene mixture 
(MAPP) 


1,000 




1,250 








Methyl aerylate 
(96-33-3) Skin 


2 












Mcthylamine 
(74-89-5) 


5 




15 








N-Methylbenzenamine 
(100-61-8) Skin 


0.5 


2.2 










Methylbenzene 
(108-88-3) 


50 












Methyl bromide 
(74-83-9) Skin 


1 












3-Methyl-2-butanone 
(563-80-4) 


200 


705 










Methyl tert-butyi ether (MTBE) 
(1634-04-4) 


40 












Methyl chloride 
(74-87-3) 


50 


103 


100 


205 






Methyl 2-cyanoacrylate 
(137-05-3) 


0.2 












Methyleyclohexanc 
(108-87-2) 


400 


1,600 










2-Methylcyclohexanol 

(583-59-5) 


50 


233 










2-Methylcyclohexanone 
(583-60-8) Skin 


50 


230 


75 


345 






2-Methylcyclopentadienyl-manganese 
tricarbonyl (as manganese) 
(I2I08-I3-3) -Skin 




0.2 










Methyl demeton 
(8022-00-2) Skin 




0.5 










2-Methyl-3,5-dinitrobenzamide 
(148-01-6) 




5 




10 






Methylene bis (4-cyclohcxyl isocyanate) 
(5124-30-1) 


0.005 












4,4 -Methylene bis (2-chloroaniline) 
(101-14-4) Skin 


0.0005 


0.005 










4,4'-Methylene-dianiline 
(101-77-9) Skin 




0.04 










(( 1 -Methylethoxy)methyl)-oxirane 
(4016-14-2) 


50 


237 


75 


356 






Methyl ethyl ketone peroxides 










0.2 


1.5 


Methyl formate 
(107-31-3) 


100 


245 


150 


370 






5-Methyl-3-heptanone 
(541-85-5) 


25 


130 










5-Methyl-2-hexanone 
(110-12-3) 


50 


233 










Methylhydrazine 
(60-34-4) Skin 


0.01 












Methyl iodide 
(74-88-4) Skin 


2 


12 










Methyl methacrylate 
(80-62-6) 


50 




100 








Methyl parathion 
(298-00-0) Skin 




0.2 










4-Methyl-2-pentanol 
(108-11-2) Skin 


25 


104 


40 


167 







68 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



427 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


m}i/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


4-Methyl-2-pentanone 
(108-10-1) 


50 


205 


75 








2-Methyl-2-propenenitrile 
(126-98-7)- Skin 


1 


2.7 










N-Methyi-2-pyrrolidone 
(872-50-4) 




400 










alpha-Methylstyrene 
(98-83-9) 


50 


241 


100 


482 






1 -Methyl-2,4,6-trinitrobenzene 
(118-96-7) Skin 


0.01 


0.1 


0.02 


0.2 






Methyl vinyl ketone 
(78-94-4) Skin 










0.2 




Metribuzin 
(21087-64-9) 




5 










Mevinphos, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 
(7786-34-7) — Skin 




0.01 










Mica, respirable 
(12001-26-2) 




3(D) 










Mineral Spirits 




525 










Molybdenum metal, dioxide and disulfide 

(as molybdenum) 

(7439-98-7) 




10 










Molybdenum trioxide and molybdates (as 

molybdenum) 

(7439-98-7) 




5 










Monocrotophos, inhalable, vapour and 

aerosol 

(6923-22-4) -~ Skin 




0.05 










Morpholine 
(110-91-8) Skin 


20 


70 


30 


105 






Naled, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 
(300-76-5) - Skin 




0.1 










Naphthalene 
(91-20-3) 


10 


52 


15 


78 






1 -Naphthyl N-methyl-carbamate 
(63-25-2) 




5 










alpha-Naphthylthiourea 
(86-88-4) 




0.3 










Natural rubber latex, as Total proteins, 

inhalable 

(9006-04-6) - Skin 




0.001 










Nepheline syenite (total dust) 
(37244-96-5) 




10 










Nickel carbonyl (as nickel) 
(13463-39-3) 


0.05 


0.35 










Nickel, elemental/metal, inhalable 
(7440-02-0) 




1 










Nickel, insoluble compounds, as Ni, 

inhalable 

(7440-02-0) 




0.2 










Nickel, soluble compounds, as Ni, 

inhalable 

(7440-02-0) 




0.1 










Nickel subsulfide, inhalable, as Ni 
(12035-72-2) 




0.1 










Nicotine 
(54-11-5) — Skin 




0.5 










Nitramine 
(479-45-8) - Skin 




1.5 










Nitric acid 
(7697-37-2) 


2 


5 


4 


10 







69 



428 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Nitric oxide 
(10102-43-9) 


25 


31 










p-Nitroaniline 
(100-01-6) Skin 




3 










Nitrobenzene 
(98-95-3) - Skin 


1 


5 










Nitrocthane 
(79-24-3) 


100 


306 






' 




Nitrogen dioxide 
(10102-44-0) 


3 


5.6 


5 


9.4 






Nitrogen trifluoride 

(7783-54-2) 


10 


29 










Nitroglycerine (NG) 
(55-63-0) Skin 


0.05 


0.5 










Nitromethane 

(75-52-5) 


20 












1 -Nitropropane 
(108-03-2) 


25 


90 










2-Nitropropane 
(79-46-9) 


1 


35 


20 


70 






Nitrotoluene (sum of m-, o-, and p- 

isomers; 

(99-08-1), (88-72-2), and (99-99-0)) - 

Skin 


2 


11 










Nitrous oxide 
(10024-97-2) 


25 


45 










Nonane 
(111-84-2) 


200 


1,050 










Octachloronaphthalene 
(2234-13-1) - Skin 




0.1 




0.3 






Octane 
(111-65-9) 


300 


1,400 


375 


1,750 






Oil, mineral — Mist 
(8012-95-1) 




5 




10 






Osmium tetroxidc (as osmium) 
(20816-12-0) 


0.0002 


0.002 


0.0006 


0.006 






Oxalic acid 

(144-62-7) 




1 




2 






1,1 -Oxybisbenzcne 
(101-84-8) 


1 


7 


2 


14 






p,p'-Oxybis(benzenesulfonyl hydrazide), 

inhalable 

(80-51-3) 




0.1 










1 , r-Oxybis(2-chloroethane) 
(111-44-4) Skin 


5 


29 


10 


58 






Oxybis (chloromethane) 
(542-88-1) 


0.001 


0.005 










2,2'-(Oxybis(methylenc))-bisoxirane 
(2238-07-5) 


0.1 


0.53 










2,2-Oxybis(propane) 
(108-20-3) 


250 


1,045 


310 


1,295 






Oxygen difluoride 

(7783-41-7) 










0.05 


O.I 


Ozone 
(10028-15-6) 


0.1 


0.2 


0.3 


0.6 






Paraffin wax fume 
(8002-74-2) 




2 










Paraquat 
(1910-42-5) 




0.1 










Parathion, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 
(56-38-2) Skin 




0.05 











70 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



429 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Particles (insoluble or poorly soluble) Not 
Otherwise Specified (PNOS) 














- inhalable particulate 




10 










- respirable particulate 




3 










Penicillin (total dust) 
(1406-05-9) 




0.1 










Pentaborane 
(19624-22-7) 


0.005 


0.013 


0.015 


0.039 






Pentachloronaphthalene 
(1321-64-8) 




0.5 










Pentachloronitrobenzenc 
(82-68-8) 




0.5 










Pentachlorophenol 
(87-86-5) Skin 




0.5 










Pentaerythritol (total dust) 
(115-77-5) 




10 










Pentaerythritol tetrabenzoate 
(4196-86-5) 








2 






Pentane 
(109-66-0) 


600 


1,770 


750 


2,210 






2-Pcntanone 
(107-87-9) 


200 


700 


250 


880 






3-Pentanone 
(96-22-0) 


200 




300 








Pentyl acetate. All isomers 
(628-63-7, n-Amyl acetate; 626-38-0, 
Sec-amyl acetate; 1 23-92-2, Isoamyl 
acetate; 625- 1 6- 1 ; 624-4 1 -9; 620- 1 1 - 1 ) 


50 




100 








Perch lory 1 fluoride 
(7616-94-6) 


3 


13 


6 


25 






Pcrfluorobutyl ethylene 
(19430-93-4) 


100 












Perfluoroisobutylene 
(382-21-8) 










0.01 




Perlite (a) 




10(D) 










Persulfates, ammonium (7727-54-1), 
sodium (7775-27-1) and potassium 
persulfates (7727-21-1) 




0.1 










Petroleum ether 




500 










Petroleum coke (total dust) 
(64741-79-3) 




3.5(A) 










Phenol 
(108-95-2) Skin 


5 


19 










Phenothiazine 
(92-84-2)-- Skin 




5 










2-Phenoxyethanol 
(122-99-6) Skin 


25 


141 










(Phenoxymethyl)oxirane, also known as 
Phenyl glycidyl ether (PGE) — Skin 
(122-60-1) 


0.1 












o-Phenylenediamine 
(95-54-5) 




0.1 










m-Pheny lenedi am ine 
(108-45-2) 




0.1 










p-Phenylenediamine 
(106-50-3) Skin 




0.1 










Phenylhydrazine 
(100-63-0) Skin 


0.1 












Phenyl mercaptan 
(108-98-5) Skin 


0.1 












Phenylphosphine 
(638-21-1) 










0.05 


0.23 



71 



430 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Res. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Phoratc 
(298-02-2) Skin 




0.05 




0.2 






Phosphine 
(7803-51-2) 


0.3 


0.4 


1 


1.4 






Phosphoric acid 
(7664-38-2) 




1 




3 






Phosphorus (yellow) 
(12185-10-3) 




0.1 










Phosphorus oxychloride 
(10025-87-3) 


0.1 


0.6 


0.5 


3 






Phosphorus pentachloride 
(10026-13-8) 


0.1 


0.85 










Phosphorus pentasulfide 
(1314-80-3) 




1 




3 






Phosphorus trichloride 

(7719-12-2) 


0.2 


I.I 


0.5 


2.8 






Phthalic anhydride 
(85-44-9) 


1 


6 










m-Phthalodinitrile 
(626-17-5) 




5 










Piperazine dihydrochloride 
(142-64-3) 




5 










Platinum metal 
(7440-06-4) 




1 










Platinum, water-soluble compounds of, 
including chloroplatinates (as platinum) 
(7440-06-4) 




0.002 










Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)' 




0.05 










Portland cement (total dust) 
(65997-15-1) 




10(D) 










Potassium hydroxide 
(1310-58-3) 












2 


Poultry dust (total dust) 




5 










Precipitated silica (total dust) 
(1309-37-1) 




10 










Propane 
(74-98-6) 


1,000 












n-Propanol, also known as n-Propyl 
alcohol 

(71-23-8) 


200 


490 


250 


615 






Propargyl alcohol 
(107-19-7) Skin 


1 


2.3 










((2-Propenyloxy) methyl) oxirane 
(106-92-3) - Skin 


1 












beta-Propiolactone 

(57-57-8) 


0.5 


1.5 










Propionaldehyde 

(123-38-6) 


20 












Propionic acid 
(79-09-4) 


10 


30 










Propoxur 
(114-26-1) 




0.5 










n-Propyl acetate 
(109-60-4) 


200 


830 


250 


1,040 






1 ,2-Propylene glycol dinitrate 
(6423-43-4) Skin 


0.05 


0.34 










1,2-Propylene glycol, total vapour and 

aerosol 

(57-55-6) 


50 


155 










1,2-Propylene glycol, aerosol only 
(57-55-6) 




10(C) 











72 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



431 



AGENT 
(CAS Ren. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Propylene glycol monomethyl ether 

acetate 

(108-65-6) 


50 


270 










Propylene oxide , 
(75-56-9) 


2 












Propylenimine 
(75-55-8) - Skin 


2 


4.7 










n-Propyl nitrate 
(627-13-4) 


25 


105 


40 


170 






Propyne 

(74-99-7) 


1,000 


1,635 


1,250 


2,045 






Pyrethrum 
(8003-34-7) 




5 










Pyridine 
(110-86-1) 


1 












Quinone 
(106-51-4) 


0.1 


0.44 










Resorcinol 
(108-46-3) 


10 


45 


20 


90 






Rhodium, metal and water-insoluble 
compounds of (as rhodium) 
(7440-16-6) 




1 










Rhodium, water-soluble compounds of, 
including chloride, nitrate, and sulfate (as 
rhodium) 
(7440-16-6) 




0.01 










Ronnel 
(299-84-3) 




10 










Rosin core solder pyrolysis products (as 
formaldehyde) 




0.1 










Rotenone (commercial) 
(83-79-4) 




5 










Rouge (total dust) 
(1309-37-1) 




10(D) 










Rubber solvent' 




1,600 










Selenium and its compounds except 
selenium hexafluoride and hydrogen 
selenide (as selenium) 
(7782-49-2) 




0.2 










Selenium hexafluoride (as selenium) 
(7783-79-1) 


0.025 


0.1 










Shellac dust (total dust) 
(9000-59-3) 




10 










Silane 
(7803-62-5) 


5 


6.6 










Silica fume, respirable 
(69012-64-2) 




2 










Silica fused, respirable 
(60676-86-0) 




0.1 










Silica gel 
(112926-00-8) 




10 










Silicon (total dust) 
(7440-21-3) 




10 










Silicon carbide 
(409-21-2) 

Nonflbrous - inhalable 

- respirable 
Fibrous (including whiskers) 

- respirable 


0.1 f/cc(F) 


10(D) 
3(D) 










Silver, metal 

(7440-22-4) 




0.1 











73 



432 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Silver, water-soluble compounds of (as 

silver) 

(7440-22-4) 




0.01 










Sisal dust (total dust) 




2 










Soap dust 
(68918-36-5) 




5 










Soapstone, total dust 




6(D) 










Soapstonc, respirable 




3(D) 










Sodium azide 

(26628-22-8) 










0.1 


0.26 


Sodium bisulfite 
(7631-90-5) 




5 










Sodium fluoroacetatc 
(62-74-8) Skin 




0.05 




0.15 






Sodium hydroxide 

(1310-73-2) 












2 


Sodium metabisulfite 

(7681-57-4) 




5 










Spectinomycin 




2 










Starch (total dust) 
(9005-25-8) 




10 










Stéarates (total dust) 




10 










Stoddard solvent' 
(8052-41-3) 




525 










140 Degree C Flash Aliphatic Solvent, 
Type of Stoddard Solvent 




525 










Strontium chromate, as Cr 

(7789-06-2) 




0.0005 










Strychnine 
(57-24-9) 




0.15 










Styrene* 
(100-42-5) 


50 


213 


200 


852 






Sucrose (total dust) 
(57-50-1) 




10 










Subtilisins (proteolytic enzymes as 100% 
pure crystalline enzyme) 
(9014-01-1) 












0.00006 


Sulfometuron methyl 

(74222-97-2) 




5 










Sulfur dioxide 
(7446-09-5) 


2 


5.2 


5 


10.4 






Sulfur hexafluoride 
(2551-62-4) 


1,000 


5,970 










Sulfijr monochloride 
(10025-67-9) 










1 


6 


Sulfur pcntafluoride 

(5714-22-7) 










0.01 


0.1 


Sulfur tetra fluoride 
(7783-60-0) 










0.1 


0.4 


Sulfuric acid 
(7664-93-9) 




1 




3 






Sulfuryl fluoride 
(2699-79-8) 


5 


21 


10 


42 






Sulprofos 
(35400-43-2) 




1 










Synthetic Vitreous Fibres (Man made 
Mineral Fibres) 














- Continuous filament glass fibres 


1 f/cc 












- Continuous filament glass fibres, 
inhalable 




5 










- Glass wool fibres 


If/cc 












- Rock wool fibres 


If/cc 








. 





74 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



433 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


- Slag wool fibres 


If/cc 












- Special purpose glass fibres 


If/cc 












- Synthetic vitreous fibres, not 
otherwise classified (excluding 
fibrous glass dust and mineral wool 
fibre) 


lf/cc(E) 












Talc (containing no asbestos fibres), 

respirable 

(14807-96-6) 




2(D) 










Talc (containing fibres other than those of 
asbestos and tremolite asbestos) 




2f/cc(B) 










Tantalum, metal and oxide (total dust) 
(7440-25-7) 




10 










Tellurium and its compounds except 
tellurium hexafluoride (as tellurium) 
(13494-80-9) 




0.1 










Tellurium hexafluoride (as tellurium) 
(7783-80-4) 


0.01 


0.1 










Temephos 
(3383-96-8) 




10 










Terbufos, inhalable, vapour and aerosol 
(13071-79-9) — Skin 




0.01 










Terephthalic acid 
(100-21-0) 




10 










Terphenyls (sum of o-, m-, and p- 

isomers) 

(84-15-1), (92-06-8), (92-94-4) 










0.5 


4.7 


1 , 1 ,2,2-Tetrabromoethane 
(79-27-6) 


1 


14 










1,1,1 ,2-Tetrachloro-2,2-difluoroethane 
(76-11-9) 


500 


4,165 










1 , 1 ,2,2-Tetrachloro- 1 ,2-di fluorocthane 
(76-12-0) 


500 


4,165 










1 , 1 ,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 
(79-34-5)- Skin 


1 


7 










Tetrachloroethylene 
(127-18-4) 


25 




100 








Tetrachloronaphthalene 
(1335-88-2) 




2 










Tetrachlorophathalic anhydride 
(117-08-8) 




0.1 










Tetrachlorophenol 
(25167-83-3) — Skin 




0.5 










Tetraethyl dithiono-pyrophosphate 

(TEPP) 

(3689-24-5) - Skin 




0.2 










Tetraethyl pyrophosphate 
(107-49-3) Skin 


0.004 


0.047 










Tetrafl uoroethy 1 ene 
(116-14-3) 


2 












Tetrahydrofuran 
(109-99-9) 


200 


590 


250 


735 






Tetramethoxy si lane 
(681-84-5) 


1 


6.2 










Tetramethylsuccino-dinitrile 
(3333-52-6) - Skin 


0.5 


2.8 










Tetranitromethane 
(509-14-8) 


0.005 












Tetrasodium pyrophosphate 
(7722-88-5) 




5 











75 



434 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Thallium, water-soluble compounds of 
(as thallium) 
(7440-28-0) Skin 




0.1 










4,4'-Thiobis(6-tert-butyl-m-eresol) 
(96-69-5) 




10 










Thioglycolic acid 
(68-1 l-l) - Skin 


1 


3.8 










Thionyi chloride 
(7719-09-7) 










1 


5 


Tin, metal, oxide and inorganic 
compounds of, except stannane (as tin) 
(7440-31-5) 




2 










Tin, organic compounds of (as tin) 
(7440-31-5) Skin 




0.1 










Titanium dioxide (total dust) 
(13463-67-7) 




10 










Toluidine (sum of o-, m- and p-isomcrs: 
(95-53-4), ( 1 08-44- 1 ), and ( 1 08-49-0)) - 
Skin 


2 


9 










Toxaphene' 
(8001-35-2) -Skin 




0.5 




1 






Tributyl phosphate 

(126-73-8) 


0.2 


2.2 










Trichloroacetic acid 
(76-03-9) 


1 


6.7 










1 ,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 
(120-82-1) 










5 


37 


1,1,1 -Trichloro-2,2-bis-(p- 

chlorophenyi)ethane 

(50-29-3) 




1 










1,1,1 -Trichloroethane 
(71-55-6) 


350 


1,910 


450 


2,455 






1 , 1 ,2-Trichloroethane 
(79-00-5) Skin 


10 


55 










Trichloroethylene 
(79-01-6) 


50 




100 








Trichlorofluoromethane 
(75-69-4) 










1,000 


5,600 


Trichloromethane 
(67-66-3) 


10 


49 










Trichloromethanesulfcnyi chloride 

(594-42-3) 


0.1 


0.8 










Trichloronaphthalenc 
(1321-65-9) Skin 




5 










Trichloronitromethane 
(76-06-2) 


0.1 


0.67 


0.3 


2 






(2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy) acetic acid and 

esters of (as 2,4,5-T) 

(93-76-5) 




10 










1 ,2,3-Trichloropropane 
(96-18-4) Skin 


10 


60 










1 , 1 ,2-Trichloro- 1 ,2,2-trifluorocthane 
(76-13-1) 


1,000 


7,650 


1,250 


9,560 






Trichlorphon, inhalabic 
(52-68-6) 




1 










Tri-ortho-cresyl phosphate 
(78-30-8) Skin 




0.1 










Triethanolamine 
(102-71-6) 


0.5 


3.1 










Triethylamine 
(121-44-8) 


1 




3 









76 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



435 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Triethylenediamine 
(280-57-9) - Skin 


1 


4.6 










Triethylenetetramine 
(112-24-3) Skin 


0.5 


3 










1,3,5-Triglycidyl-s-triazinetrione 
(2451-62-9) 




0.05 










3,5,5-Trimethyl-2-cyclohexen- 1 -one 
(78-59-1) 










5 


28 


Trimellitic anhydride 
(552-30-7) 












0.04 


Trimethoxyvinylsilane 
(2768-02-7) 






10 


60 






Trimethylamine 
(75-50-3) 


5 




15 








Trimethyibenzene (sum of isomers) 
(25551-13-7) 


25 


123 










Trimethyl phosphite 
(121-45-9) 


2 


10 










2,4,6-Trinitrophenol 
(88-89-1)- Skin 




0.1 




0.3 






Triphenyl amine 
(603-34-9) 




5 










Triphenyl phosphate 
(115-86-6) 




3 










Trixylylphosphate 
(25155-23-1) 




0,1 










Tungsten, water-insoluble compounds of 

(as tungsten) 

(7440-33-7) 




5 




10 






Tungsten, water-soluble compounds of, 
including tungstic acids, phosphotungstic 
acids and their salts (as tungsten) 
(7440-33-7) 




1 




3 






Turpentine and selected monoterpenes 
(8006-64-2; 80-56-8; 127-91-3; 13466- 
78-9) 


20 












Uranium (natural) and its compounds (as 

uranium) 

(7440-61-1) 




0.2 




0.6 






V.M.& P. Naphtha' 
(8030-30-6) 




1,350 










n-Valeraldehyde 
(110-62-3) 


50 


175 










Vanadium respirable dust and fiime (as 

vanadium pentoxide) 

(1314-62-1) 




0.05 










Vegetable oils (mists) except mists of 
irritant oils such as oils of castor and 
cashew nut 




10 










Vinyl acetate 
(108-05-4) 


10 




15 








Vinyl bromide 
(593-60-2) 


0.5 












4-Vinyl cyclohexene 
(100-40-3) 


0.1 












Vinyl fluoride 
(75-02-5) 


1 












Vinylidene fluoride 
(75-38-7) 


500 












N-Vinyl-2-pyrrolidone 
(88-12-0) 


0.05 













77 



436 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



AGENT 
(CAS Reg. no) 


TWAEV 


STEV 


CEV 1 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


ppm 


mg/m3 


Vinyltoluene (mixture of m- and p- 

isomers) 

(25013-15-4) 


50 


241 


100 


482 






Warfarin 

(81-81-2) 




0.1 










Welding fiime, not otherwise specified 














Aluminum-containing (as 

Aluminum) 

(7429-90-5) 




5 










Iron-containing (as iron) 
(7439-89-6) 




5 










Other, not otherwise classified (total 
weight, oil free) 




5 










Wheat flour dust (total dust) 




3 










Wood dust 














- certain hardwoods as beech and oak 




1 










- softwood 




5 




10 






m-Xylene-alpha, alpha'-diamine 
(1477-55-0) Skin 












0.! 


Yttrium, metal and compounds (as 

yttrium) 

(7440-65-5) 




1 










Zinc chloride ftime 

(7646-85-7) 




1 




2 






Zinc chromâtes, 

( 1 3530-65-9; 1 1 1 03-86-9;37300-23-5) as 

Cr 




0.01 










Zinc oxide, respirable 
(1314-13-2) 




2 




10 






Zirconium compounds (as zirconium) 

(7440-67-7) 




5 




10 







* Special exceptions may apply to this substance; see section 9 of the Regulation. 
Footnotes 

(A) Provided that the total dust contains less than 0.7% vanadium. 

(B) Provided that the respirable dust concentration does not exceed 2 mg/m^. 

(C) For assessing the visibility in a work environment where 1 ,2-propylene glycol aerosol is present. 

(D) The value is for particulate matter containing no asbestos and less than 1% crystalline silica. 

(E) A secondary limit of 5 nig/m^ (total dust) is recommended to deal with dusty operations where fibre counts are usually 
difficult to determine. Where both types of measurements are made simultaneously, the more restrictive limit should 
be used to assess the exposures. 

(F) As measured by the vertical elutraitor, cotton-dust sampler. 

(G) Application of limit restricted to conditions in which there are negligible aerosol exposures. 
' As sum of components assayed by chromatographic procedure with reference to the bulk sample. 

(2) Part 4 of the Schedule to the Regulation is amended by striking out, 



1, 3-Butadiene 
(106-99-0) 


5 














Carbon monoxide 
(630-08-0) 


35 


40 


400 


460 






and substituting the following: 


1,3-Butadiene 
(106-99-0) 


2 













78 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



437 



Carbon monoxide 
(630-08-0) 


25 


29 


100 


115 







(3) Part 4 of the Schedule to the Regulation is amended by striking out. 



Hydrogen chloride 
(7647-01-0) 










5 


7.4 



Molybdenum metal, dioxide and 
disulfide (as molybdenum) 
(7439-98-7) 




10 










Molybdenum trioxide and molybdates 

(as molybdenum) 

(7439-98-7) 




5 











and substituting the following: 



Hydrogen chloride 
(7647-01-0) 










2 





Molybdenum, as molybdenum 
(7439-98-7) 














Metal and insoluble compounds 














- inhalable 




10 










- rcspirablc 




3 










Soluble compounds 














-respirable 




0.5 











(4) Part 9 of the Schedule to the Regulation is amended by striking out. 



Ethane 



(74-84-0) 



Propane 



(74-98-6) 



(5) Part 11 of the Schedule to the Regulation is amended by striking out. 



Acrylonitrile 
(107-13-1) 


2 


4.3 






10 


21.5 


and substituting the following: 


Acrylonitrile 
(107-13-1) -Skin 


2 


4.3 











2. (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), this Regulation comes into force on Filing. 

(2) Subsection 1 (2) comes into force on December 31, 2005. 

(3) Subsection 1 (3) comes into force on March 1, 2006. 



8/OS 



79 



438 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

ONTARIO REGULATION 17/05 

made under the 
CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT, 2002 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

GENERAL 



CONTENTS 

PARTI 
EXEMPTIONS FROM APPLICATION OF THE ACT 

Exemption ior Profkssional Servicks Regulated by Statute ~- Clause 2 (2) (e) oh the Act 

1 . Professional services regulated by statute 

Other Exemptions - Clause 123(1) (c) of the Act 

2. Professional services at facilities 

3. Services at an independent health facility 

4. Accommodation 

5. Public auction 

6. Supply to one person at the request of another 

7. Perishable food 

8. Lottery scheme 

9. Agreements subject to other Acts 

Provisions not Applying when Agreement is ok More Than One Type - Section 4 ok the Act 

10. Exceptions to rule in s. 4 of the Act 

1 1 . Credit agreement 

12. Lease 

13. Agreement for work on or repairs to vehicle 

14. Agreement for loan brokering or credit repair 

1 5. Time share agreement 

16. Personal development services agreement 

17 Direct agreement 

1 8 Internet agreement 

19. Remote agreement 

PART il 
UNSOLICITED GOODS OR SERVICES — SECTION 13 OF THE ACT 

20. Material change 

21. Time for refund 

PART ill 
UNFAIR PRACTICES — SECTION 18 OF THE ACT 

22. Period for responding to consumer notice 

PART IV 
SPECIFIC CONSUMER AGREEMENTS — PART iV OF THE ACT 

Future Performance Agreements 

23. Prescribed amount 

24. Requirements for future performance agreements 

25. Express opportunity to accept or decline agreement 

Time Share Agreements 

26. Requirements for time share agreements 

Personal Development Services 

27. Prescribed amount 

28. Requirements for agreement where no alternate facility 

29. Requirements for agreement where alternate facility to be used 

30. Supplier obligations for renewal or extension 

Internet Agreements 

31. Prescribed amount 

32. Disclosure of information 

33. Copy of internet agreement 

80 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 439 



Direct Agreements 

34. Prescribed amount 

35. Requirements for direct agreements 

Remote Agreements 

36. Prescribed amount 

37. Disclosure of information 

38. Express opportunity to accept or decline agreement 

39. Copy of remote agreement 

Leases to which Part VIII of the Act does not Apply 

40. Requirements for certain leases 

Amendment, Renewal and Extension of Certain Consumer Agreements 

41. Amendment, renewal or extension by explicit agreement to proposal 

42. Amendment, renewal or extension in accordance with consumer agreement 

43. Agreement type continues 

PARTY 
LOAN BROKERING AND CREDIT REPAIR— PART V OF THE ACT 

44. • Requirements for loan brokering agreements 

45. Prohibited representations, loan broker 

46. Requirements for credit repair agreements 

47. Prohibited representations, credit repairer 

PART VI 
REPAIRS TO MOTOR VEHICLES — PART VI OF THE ACT 

48. Estimates 

49. Authorization not in writing 

50. Posting signs 

51. Invoices 

52. Exemption from vehicle warranty 

PART VII 
CREDIT AGREEMENTS — PART VII OF THE ACT 

53. Definition 

54. ' Advance 

55. Annual percentage rate for credit agreement 

56. Cost of borrowing 

57. Floating rate 

58. Maximum liability for unauthorized charges 

59. Transition, liability for cost of borrowing 

60. Refund or credit to borrower on prepayment 

61. Advertising 

62. Disclosure, credit card applications 

63. Initial disclosure statement, fixed credit agreement 

64. Initial disclosure statement, open credit agreement 

65. Subsequent disclosure, fixed credit agreement with floating rate 

66. Subsequent disclosure, fixed credit agreement with changeable rate 

67. Transition, open credit subsequent disclosure 

68. Statement of account, open credit agreement 

69. Material and non-material changes 

70. Disclosures under Part VII of the Act, general 

71. Exemptions from Part VII 

PART VIII 
LEASING — PART VIII OF THE ACT 

72. Interpretation 

73. Advertising 

74. Disclosure statement for a lease 

75. Consequence of non-disclosure 

76. Maximum liability under residual obligation lease 

77. Exemption from Part VIII 

PART IX 
PROCEDURES FOR CONSUMER REMEDIES — PART IX OF THE ACT 

78. Definitions 

79. Supplier obligations on cancellation 

80. Consumer obligations on cancellation of certain agreements 

81. Consumer obligations on cancellation of other agreements 

82. Period of reasonable care 

83. Limitations on cancellation of direct agreement 

81 



440 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



84. 


Time for refund of illegal payment 


85. 


Cancellation or reversal of credit card charges, etc. 




PARTX 




PUBLIC RECORD — SUBSECTION 103 (2) OF THE ACT 


86. 


Requirements for maintenance of public record 


87. 


Orders made 


88. 


Charges laid 


89. 


Actions taken 


90. 


Complaints received 




PART XI 




PRESCRIBED ACTS AND JURISDICTIONS — PART XI OF THE ACT 


9L 


Prescribed Acts 


92. 


Prescribed jurisdictions 




PART XII 




COMMENCEMENT 


93. 


Commencement 



PART I 

exemptions from application of the act 

Exemption for Professional Services Regulated by Statute — Clause 2 (2) (e) of the Act 

Professional services regulated by statute 

1. A professional service provided by a person governed by, or subject to, any of the following Acts is exempt from the 
application of the Consumer Protection Act, 2002: 

1. The Architects Act. 

2. The Certified General Accountants Association of Ontario Act, 1983. 

3. The Chartered Accountants Act, 1956. 

4. The Drugless Practitioners Act. 

5. The Law Society Act. 

6. The Ontario College of Teachers Act, 1996. 

7. The Professional Engineers Act. 

8. The Professional Foresters Act, 2000. 

9. The Professional Geoscientists Act, 2000. 

1 0. The Public Accountancy Act. 

1 1. The Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991 and any Act named in Schedule 1 to the Regulated Health Professions 
Act, 1991. 

1 2. The Social Work and Social Sen'ice Work Act, 1 998. 

13. The Society of Management Accountants of Ontario Act, 1941. 

14. The Surveyors Act. 

15. The Veterinarians Act. 

Other Exemptions — Clause 123 (I) (c) of the Act 

Professional services at facilities 

2. A professional service provided at any of the following facilities is exempt from the application of the Consumer 
Protection Act. 2002: 

1 . An institution under the Mental Hospitals Act. 

2. A hospital under the Public Hospitals Act. 

3 . A pharmacy under Part VI of the Drug and Pharmacies Regulation Act. 
Services at an independent health facility 

3. A service provided at an independent health facility pursuant to a licence issued under the Independent Health Facilities 
Act is exempt from the application of the Consumer Protection Act, 2002. 

82 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 44 1 



Accommodation 



4. The supply of accommodation, other than time share accommodation, is exempt from the application of sections 21 to 
26, 37 to 40 and 44 to 47 of the Act. 

Public auction 

5. ( I ) The supply by public auction of goods or services, other than personal development services and other than time 
shares, is exempt from the application of sections 21 to 26 and 37 to 47 of the Act. 

(2) Subsection (1) applies regardless of whether the goods or services being auctioned are owned by the person operating 
the auction or by another supplier. 

Supply to one person at the request of another 

6. (1) The supply of goods or services to one person at the request of another is exempt from the application of sections 
22, 23, 26, 37 to 40 and 44 to 47 of the Act, if, 

(a) the goods or services are to be supplied on a single occasion and not on an ongoing basis; and 

(b) the person requesting the supply of the goods or services pays the price in full at the time of the request. 

(2) The exemption from the application of sections 22, 23 and 26 of the Act is effective even if section 21 of the Act states 
that sections 22 to 26 of the Act do apply in the circumstances. 

Perishable food 

7. The supply of perishable food or a perishable food product is exempt from the application of sections 21 to 26 and 37 to 
47 of the Act, if the food or food product is to be delivered to the consumer within 24 hours after it is ordered from the 
supplier. 

Lottery scheme 

8. The supply of a lottery ticket or a good or service in the nature of a lottery ticket is exempt from the application of 
sections 21 to 26 and 41 to 47 of the Act, if the supplier is a charitable or religious organization licensed under the authority 
of paragraph 207 ( 1 ) (b) of the Criminal Code (Canada) to conduct or manage the lottery scheme and the proceeds from the 
lottery scheme are to be used for a charitable or religious object or purpose. 

Agreements subject to other Acts 

9. ( 1 ) The supply of goods or services pursuant to an agreement that is subject to any of the following Acts is exempt 
from the application of sections 22, 23, 26 and 37 to 47 of the Act: 

1 . The Motor Vehicle Dealers Act or the Motor Vehicle Dealers Act, 2002. 

2. The Real Estate and Business Brokers Act or the Real Estate and Business Brokers Act, 2002. 

3. The Travel Industry Act or the Travel Industry Act, 2002. 

4. The Cemeteries Act (Revised), the Funeral Directors and Establishments Act or the Funeral, Burial and Cremation 
Services Act, 2002. 

(2) The exemption from the application of sections 22, 23 and 26 of the Act is effective even if section 21 of the Act states 
that sections 22 to 26 of the Act do apply in the circumstances. 

Provisions not Applying when Agreement is of More Than One Type — Section 4 of the Act 

Exceptions to rule in s. 4 of the Act 

10. (1) Sections 11 to 19 of this Regulation set out the exceptions to the rule in section 4 of the Act that a consumer 
agreement that meets the criteria of more than one type of agreement to which the Act applies shall comply with the 
provisions of the Act and of the regulations that apply to each type of agreement for which it meets the criteria. 

(2) If any of sections 1 1 to 19 of this Regulation exclude the application of section 22, 23, 25 or 26 of the Act, the 
exclusion is effective even if section 21 of the Act states that sections 22 to 26 of the Act do apply in the circumstances. 

(3) A word or expression that is used in sections 1 1 to 19 of this Regulation has the same meaning as in the part of the Act 
that defines it. 

Credit agreement 

11. (1) If a credit agreement, other than a supplier credit agreement, is also a future performance agreement, a direct 
agreement, an internet agreement or a remote agreement, Part IV of the Act does not apply to the agreement. 

(2) If a supplier credit agreement is also a future performance agreement, a time share agreement, a personal development 
services agreement, a direct agreement, an internet agreement or a remote agreement, 

83 



442 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(a) Part IV of the Act does not apply to the part of the agreement under which the supplier or an associate of the supplier 
extends fixed credit to the consumer to assist the consumer in obtaining goods or services, other than credit or a loan of 
money, from the supplier; 

(b) Part IV of the Act applies to the part of the agreement under which the supplier supplies the goods or services, other 
than credit or a loan of money, to the consumer. 

Lease 

12. Sections 22, 23, 25, 26 and 29 to 47 of the Act do not apply to a lease that is also a future performance agreement, a 
personal development services agreement, a direct agreement, an internet agreement or a remote agreement, if Part Vlll of 
the Act applies to the lease. 

Agreement for work on or repairs to vehicle 

13. Sections 22, 23 and 27 to 47 of the Act do not apply to a consumer agreement for work to be done on or repairs to be 
made to a vehicle, if the agreement is also a future performance agreement, a time share agreement, a personal development 
services agreement, a direct agreement, an internet agreement or a remote agreement. 

Agreement for loan brokering or credit repair 

14. Sections 22, 23 and 27 to 47 of the Act do not apply to a consumer agreement for loan brokering or credit repair that is 
also a future performance agreement, a time share agreement, a personal development services agreement, a direct 
agreement, an internet agreement or a remote agreement. 

Time sliare agreement 

15. Sections 22, 23 and 29 to 47 of the Act do not apply to a time share agreement that is also a future performance 
agreement, a personal development services agreement, a direct agreement, an internet agreement or a remote agreement. 

Personal development services agreement 

16. Sections 22, 23 and 37 to 47 of the Act do not apply to a personal development services agreement that is also a future 
perfomiance agreement, a direct agreement, an internet agreement or a remote agreement but is not a time share agreement. 

Direct agreement 

17. Sections 22, 23, 37 to 40 and 44 to 47 of the Act do not apply to a direct agreement that is also a future performance 
agreement, an internet agreement or a remote agreement but is not a time share agreement or a personal development services 
agreement. 

Internet agreement 

18. Sections 22, 23 and 44 to 47 of the Act do not apply to an internet agreement that is also a future perfomiance 
agreement or a remote agreement but is not a time share agreement, a personal development services agreement or a direct 
agreement. 

Remote agreement 

19. Sections 22 and 23 of the Act do not apply to a remote agreement that is also a future performance agreement but is 
not a time share agreement, a personal development services agreement, a direct agreement or an internet agreement. 

PART II 
UNSOLICITED GOODS OR SERVICES — SECTION 13 OF THE ACT 

Material change 

20. For the purpose of subsection 13 (4) of the Act, a change or a series of changes is a material change if it is of such 
nature or quality that it could reasonably be expected to influence a reasonable person's decision as to whether to enter into 
the agreement for the supply of the goods or services. 

Time for refund 

21. For the purpose of subsection 13 (7) of the Act, a supplier shall refund a payment received from a consumer in respect 
of unsolicited goods or services within 15 days after the day the consumer demands the refund under subsection 13 (6) of the 
Act. 

PART III 
UNFAIR PRACTICES — SECTION 18 OF THE ACT 

Period for responding to consumer notice 

22. For the purpose of subsection 18 (8) of the Act, a consumer may commence an action if the consumer does not receive 
a satisfactory response within 30 days after the day the consumer gives notice under section 18 of the Act. 



84 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 443 



PART IV 

specific consumer agreements — part iv of the act 

Future Performance Agreements 

Prescribed amount 

23. The prescribed amount for Ihe purpose of subsection 21 (1) of the Act is $50. 
Requirements for future performance agreements 

24. For the purpose of section 22 of the Act, a future performance agreement shall set out the following information: 

1 . The name of the consumer. 

2. The name of the supplier and, if different, the name under which the supplier carries on business. 

3. The telephone number of the supplier, the address of the premises from which the supplier conducts business, and 
information respecting other ways, if any, in which the supplier can be contacted by the consumer, such as the fax 
number and e-mail address of the supplier. 

4. A fair and accurate description of the goods and services to be supplied to the consumer, including the technical 
requirements, if any, related to the use of the goods or services. 

5. An itemized list of the prices at which the goods and services are to be supplied to the consumer, including taxes and 
shipping charges. 

6. A description of each additional charge that applies or may apply, such as customs duties or brokerage fees, and the 
amount of the charge if the supplier can reasonably determine it. 

7. The total amount that the supplier knows is payable by the consumer under the agreement, including amounts that are 
required to be disclosed under paragraph 6, or, if the goods and services are to be supplied during an indefinite period, 
the amount and frequency of periodic payments. 

8. The terms and methods of payment. 

9. As applicable, the date or dates on which delivery, commencement of performance, ongoing performance and 
completion of performance are to occur. 

10. For goods and services that are to be delivered, 

i. the place to which they are to be delivered, and 

ii. if the supplier holds out a specific manner of delivery and will charge the consumer for delivery, the manner in 
which the goods and services are to be delivered, including the name of the carrier, if any, and including the 
method of transportation to be used. 

1 1 . For services that are to be performed, the place where they are to be performed, the person for whom they are to be 
performed, the supplier's method of performing them and, if the supplier holds out that a specific person other than the 
supplier will perform any of the services on the supplier's behalf, the name of that person. 

12. The rights, if any, that the supplier agrees the consumer will have in addition to the rights under the Act and the 
obligations, if any, by which the supplier agrees to be bound in addition to the obligations under the Act, in relation to 
cancellations, returns, exchanges and refunds. 

13. If the agreement includes a trade-in arrangement, a description of the trade-in arrangement and the amount of the 
trade-in allowance. 

14. The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

15. Any other restrictions, limitations and conditions that are imposed by the supplier. 

1 6. The date on which the agreement is entered into. 
Express opportunity to accept or decline agreement 

25. In the case of a future performance agreement to which sections 22 to 26 of the Act apply, the supplier shall provide 
the consumer with an express opportunity to accept or decline the agreement and to correct errors immediately before 
entering into it. 

Time Share Agreements 

Requirements for time share agreements 

26. ( 1 ) For the purpose of section 27 of the Act, a time share agreement shall be signed by the consumer and the supplier 
and shall set out the following information: 

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1 . The name of the consumer. 

2. The name of the suppher and, if different, the name under which the suppHer carries on business. 

3. The telephone number of the supplier, the address of the premises from which the supplier conducts business, and 
information respecting other ways, if any, in which the supplier can be contacted by the consumer, such as the fax 
number and e-mail address of the supplier. 

4. The names of, 

i. the person, if any, who solicited the consumer in connection with the agreement, 
ii. the person, if any, who negotiated the agreement with the consumer, and 
iii. the person who concluded the agreement with the consumer. 

5. If the supplier has contracted with a property manager, other than an employee of the supplier, to manage the property 
that is the subject of the agreement, the name and telephone number of the property manager and information 
respecting other ways, if any, in which the properly manager can be contacted by the consumer, such as the fax 
number and e-mail address of the property manager. 

6. The date on which and the place where the agreement is entered into. 

7. The commencement date and the term of the agreement including, if that is the case, that the term is indefinite. 

8. A statement containing the text set out in subsection (2) and, if applicable, the additional text set out in subsection (3), 

i. which shall be in at least 10 point type, except for the heading which shall be in at least 12 point bold type, and 

ii. which shall appear on the first page of the agreement, unless there is a notice on the first page of the agreement in 
at least 12 point bold type indicating where in the agreement the statement appears. 

9. A fair and accurate description of the consumer's rights in respect of the use of the property that is the subject of the 
agreement, including, 

i. the precise location of the property, 

ii. the precise suite or the type of suite that the consumer will have the right to occupy, 

iii. the periods during or the dates on which the consumer will have the right to use the property, 

iv. the goods and services, including facilities, that will be provided to the consumer or to which the consumer will 
have access, together with any conditions attached to, and any restrictions and limitations on, the use of or access 
to these goods and services, and 

V. any conditions attached to, and any restrictions and limitations on, the consumer's right to dispose of the time 
share the consumer is acquiring under the agreement. 

10. The details respecting the consumer's right, if any, to use a different property in substitution for the property that is the 
subject of the agreement, including, 

i. the times at which the right may be exercised, 

ii. the method by which the right is to be exercised, 

iii. the amounts payable by the consumer in connection with exercising the right, and 

iv. the name of the individual or entity responsible for co-ordinating the substitution and information respecting the 
various ways in which the individual or entity can be contacted by the consumer, such as the telephone number, 
fax number and e-mail address of the individual or entity. 

1 1. The details respecting the consumer's right, if any, to exchange his or her right to occupy a precise suite or a type of 
suite for a right to occupy a different suite or type of suite, including, 

i. the times at which the right may be exercised, 

ii. the method by which the right is to be exercised, 

iii. the amounts payable by the consumer in connection with exercising the right, and 

iv. the name of the individual or entity responsible for co-ordinating the exchange and information respecting the 
various ways in which the individual or entity can be contacted by the consumer, such as the telephone number, 
fax number and e-mail address of the individual or entity. 

12. A fair and accurate description of the access to be provided to the consumer with respect to discounts or benefits for 
the future provision of transportation, accommodation or other goods or services related to travel. 



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13. An itemized list setting out, . ^ 

i. the amount of the one-time payment payable by the consumer upon entering into the agreement and the goods or 
services for which it is payable, 

ii. the amount of each additional one-time payment payable by the consumer and the good or service for which it is 
payable, and ; 

iii. the amount and frequency of the periodic payments payable by the consumer and the good or service for which 
each payment is payable. 

14. An itemized list setting out, 

i. each optional good and service, including a facility and a membership, that the suppUer represents will be 
available to the consumer by virtue of the consumer entering into the agreement, and 

ii. the amount that the consumer would have to pay for such good or service if the consumer decided to avail 
himself or herself of it. 

15. If any of the amounts set out in the agreement is subject to change or if the consumer may be required to make a 
payment in addition to the payments set out in the agreement, 

i. a statement to that effect, 

ii. a description of the circumstances in which the amount may change or the additional payment may be required, 
and 

iii. either, 

A. what the changed amount or the additional payment will be, or 

B. the objective standard that will be applied to determine the changed amount or the additional payment. 

16. If the agreement includes a trade-in arrangement, a description of the trade-in arrangement and the amount of the 
trade-in allowance. 

1 7. The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

18. With respect to every amount that is or may be payable by the consumer, as referred to in paragraphs 10, II, 13, 14 
and 15, the terms and methods of payment. 

19. The consequences of non-payment of any amount that is payable by the consumer. 

(2) The statement mentioned in paragraph 8 of subsection (1) shall set out the following: 

Your Rights under the Consumer Protection Act, 2002 

You may cancel this agreement at any time during the period that ends ten (10) days after the day you receive a written copy 
of the agreement. You do not need to give the supplier a reason for cancelling during this 10-day period. 

If the supplier does not make delivery within 30 days after the delivery date specified in this agreement or if the supplier does 
not begin performance of his, her or its obligations within 30 days after the commencement date specified in this agreement, 
you may cancel this agreement at any time before delivery or commencement of performance. You lose the right to cancel if, 
after the 30-day period has expired, you agree to accept delivery or authorize commencement of performance. 

If the delivery date or commencement date is not specified in this agreement and the supplier does not deliver or commence 
performance within 30 days after the date this agreement is entered into, you may cancel this agreement at any time before 
delivery or commencement of performance. You lose the right to cancel if, after the 30-day period has expired, you agree to 
accept delivery or authorize commencement of performance. 

In addition, there are other grounds that allow you to cancel this agreement. You may also have other rights, duties and 
remedies at law. For more information, you may contact the Ministry of Consumer and Business Services. 

To cancel this agreement, you must give notice of cancellation to the supplier, at the address set out in the agreement, by any 
means that allows you to prove the date on which you gave notice. If no address is set out in the agreement, use any address 
of the supplier that is on record with the Government of Ontario or the Government of Canada or is known by you. 

If you cancel this agreement, the supplier has fifteen (15) days to refund any payment you have made and return to you all 
goods delivered under a trade-in arrangement (or refund an amount equal to the trade-in allowance). 

(3) If the consumer is to receive goods under the agreement, the statement mentioned in paragraph 8 of subsection (I) 
shall also set out the following: 

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If the supplier requests in writing repossession of any goods that came into your possession under the agreement, you must 
return the goods to the supplier's address or allow one of the following persons to repossess the goods at your address: 

The supplier. 

A person designated in writing by the supplier. 

If you cancel this agreement, you must take reasonable care of any goods that came into your possession under the agreement 
until one of the following happens: 

The supplier repossesses the goods. 

The supplier has been given a reasonable opportunity to repossess the goods and twenty-one (21) days have passed since 
the agreement was cancelled. 

You return the goods. 

The supplier directs you in writing to destroy the goods and you do so in accordance with the supplier's instructions. 

Personal Development Services 

Prescribed amount 

27. The prescribed amount for the purpose of clause 29 ( I ) (b) of the Act is $50. 
Requirements for agreement where no alternate facility 

28. ( 1 ) This section applies to a personal development services agreement, 

(a) for a facility that is available; or 

(b) for a facility that is not available, if the agreement does not provide for the consumer to use an alternate facility until 
the primary facility becomes available. 

(2) For the purpose of subsection 30 (I) of the Act, a personal development services agreement described in subsection (1) 
shall be signed by the consumer and the supplier and shall set out the following information: 

1. The name of the consumer. 

2. The name of the supplier and, if different, the name under which the supplier carries on business. 

3. The telephone number of the supplier, the address of the premises from which the supplier conducts business, and 
information respecting other ways, if any, in which the supplier can be contacted by the consumer, such as the fax 
number and e-mail address of the supplier. 

4. The names of, 

i. the person, if any, who solicited the consumer in connection with the agreement, 
ii. the person, if any, who negotiated the agreement with the consumer, and 
iii. the person who concluded the agreement with the consumer. 

5. The address of the facility at which the personal development services will be available. 

6. An itemized list of the personal development services that the supplier is to make available to the consumer, that fairly 
and accurately describes each service. 

7. For each personal development service contracted for, the date on or as of which it will be available to the consumer. 

8. The reduction, if any, in the price payable by the consumer if a personal development service is not available on the 
date specified under paragraph 7. 

9. If a personal development service will not be available at the time the consumer is to make a payment in respect of it, 

i. a statement that, if a personal development service is not available at the time the consumer is to make a payment 
in respect of it, the consumer shall make the payment through the trust corporation whose name and address are 
set out in the agreement, and 

ii. the name and address of the trust corporation. 

10. A statement containing the text set out in subsection (3) and, if applicable, the additional text set out in subsection (4), 

i. which shall be in at least 10 point type, except for the heading which shall be in at least 12 point bold type, and 

ii. which shall appear on the first page of the agreement, unless there is a notice on the first page of the agreement in 
at least 1 2 point bold type indicating where in the agreement the statement appears. 

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IL If the agreement includes a trade-in arrangement, a description of the trade-in arrangement and the amount of the 
trade-in allowance. 

12. The total amount payable by the consumer and the terms and methods of payment. 

13. The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

14. The date on which the agreement is entered into. 

15. The commencement date of the agreement and the date on which the agreement expires. 

1 6. If the agreement provides for the renewal or extension of the agreement, 

i. the requirements for renewal or extension of the agreement, as set out in section 30, 

ii. the manner in which the supplier shall deliver a notice about renewal and extension to the consumer, and the 
agreement may require the supplier to use one of the following methods or may permit the supplier to choose one 
method from among one or more of the following methods: 

A. by mail or personal delivery to an address specified by the consumer in the agreement, 

B. by e-mail to an e-mail address specified by the consumer in the agreement, 

C. by fax to a fax number specified by the consumer in the agreement, or 

D. in some other manner specified by the consumer in the agreement, and 

iii. that the agreement shall be deemed not to be renewed or extended if the consumer notifies the supplier, before the 
time for renewal or extension, that the consumer does not want to renew or extend. 

(3) The statement mentioned in paragraph 10 of subsection (2) shall set out the following: 

Your Rights under the Consumer Protection Act, 2002 

You may cancel this agreement at any time during the period that ends ten (10) days after the later of the day you receive a 
written copy of the agreement and the day all the services are available. You do not need to give the supplier a reason for 
cancelling during this 1 0-day period. 

In addition, there are grounds that allow you to cancel this agreement. You may also have other rights, duties and remedies 
at law. For more information, you may contact the Ministry of Consumer and Business Services. 

To cancel this agreement, you must give notice of cancellation to the supplier, at the address set out in the agreement, by any 
means that allows you to prove the date on which you gave notice. If no address is set out in the agreement, use any address 
of the supplier that is on record with the Government of Ontario or the Government of Canada or is known by you. 

If you cancel this agreement, the supplier has fifteen (15) days to refund any payment you have made and return to you all 
goods delivered under a trade-in arrangement (or refund an amount equal to the trade-in allowance). 

(4) If the consumer is to receive goods under the agreement, the statement mentioned in paragraph 10 of subsection (2) 
shall also set out the following: 

If the supplier requests in writing repossession of any goods that came into your possession under the agreement, you must 
return the goods to the supplier's address or allow one of the following persons to repossess the goods at your address; 

The supplier. 

A person designated in writing by the supplier. 

If you cancel this agreement, you must take reasonable care of any goods that came into your possession under the agreement 
until one of the following happens: 

The supplier repossesses the goods. 

The supplier has been given a reasonable opportunity to repossess the goods and twenty-one (2 1 ) days have passed since 
the agreement was cancelled. 

You return the goods. 

The supplier directs you in writing to destroy the goods and you do so in accordance with the supplier's instructions. 

Requirements for agreement where alternate facility to be used 

29. (1) This section applies to a personal development services agreement for a facility that is not available, if the 
consumer agrees in writing to use an alternate facility until the primary facility becomes available. 

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(2) For the purpose of subsection 30 (1) of the Act, a personal development services agreement described in subsection (I) 
shall be signed by the consumer and the supplier, shall set out the information referred to in paragraphs 1, 2, 3, 4, 10, II, 12, 
13, 14, 15 and 16 of subsection 28 (2) and shall set out the following information; 

1. The address of the primary facility and the address of the alternate facility. 

2. An itemized list of the personal development services that the supplier is to make available to the consumer at the 
alternate facility, that fairly and accurately describes each service and that sets out the price payable for the services on 
a monthly basis. 

3. An itemized list of the personal development services that the supplier is to make available to the consumer at the 
primary facility, that fairly and accurately describes each service. 

4. For each personal development service that the supplier is to make available to the consumer at the alternate facility, 
the date on which it will be available, and for each personal development service that the supplier is to make available 
to the consumer at the primary facility, the date on which it will be available. 

5. The reduction, if any, in the price payable by the consumer if a personal development service is not available at the 
facility at which it is supposed to be available on the date on which it is supposed to be available at that facility. 

Supplier obligations for renewal or extension 

30. (1) For the purpose of subsection 31 (3) of the Act, a personal development services agreement that provides for the 
renewal or extension of the agreement is not valid unless the supplier complies with the requirements of subsection (2). 

(2) At least 30 days but not more than 90 days before the agreement expires, the supplier shall deliver to the consumer, in 
the manner specified in the agreement pursuant to subparagraph 16 ii of subsection 28 (2), « ,• 

(a) a written notice about renewal or extension, 

(i) setting out the date of the proposed renewal or extension of the agreement, 

(ii) stating that under the Consumer Protection Act, 2002, the supplier is required to deliver the notice to the 
consumer, in the manner specified in the agreement, at least 30 days but not more than 90 days before the 
agreement expires, 

(iii) setting out the address of the premises from which the supplier conducts business and information respecting 
other ways, if any, in which the supplier can be contacted by the consumer, such as the fax number and e-mail 
address of the supplier, and 

(iv) stating that the agreement will not be renewed or extended if, before the date set out under subclause (i), the 
consumer notifies the supplier, at the address set out under subclause (iii) or by contacting the supplier in some 
other way as set out under that subclause, that the consumer does not want to renew or extend the agreement; and 

(b) a copy of the agreement that clearly notes all changes that the supplier has made to the agreement. 

(3) A notice under clause (2) (a) that is sent to the consumer by registered mail shall be deemed to be delivered on the 
third day after the day of mailing. 

Internet Agreements 

Prescribed amount 

31. The prescribed amount for the purpose of section 37 of the Act is $50. 
Disclosure of information 

32. For the purpose of subsection 38 (1) of the Act, the information that the supplier shall disclose to the consumer before 
the consumer enters into an internet agreement is: 

1. The name of the supplier and, if different, the name under which the supplier carries on business. 

2. The telephone number of the supplier, the address of the premises from which the supplier conducts business, and 
information respecting other ways, if any, in which the supplier can be contacted by the consumer, such as the fax 
number and e-mail address of the supplier. 

3. A fair and accurate description of the goods and services proposed to be supplied to the consumer, including the 
technical requirements, if any, related to the use of the goods or services. 

4. An itemized list of the prices at which the goods and services are proposed to be supplied to the consumer, including 
taxes and shipping charges. 

5. A description of each additional charge that applies or may apply, such as customs duties or brokerage fees, and the 
amount of the charge if the supplier can reasonably determine it. 



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6. The total amount that the supplier knows would be payable by the consumer under the agreement, including amounts 
that are required to be disclosed under paragraph 5, or, if the goods and services are proposed to be supplied during an 
indefinite period, the amount and frequency of periodic payments. 

7. The terms and methods of payment. 

8. As applicable, the date or dates on which delivery, commencement of performance, ongoing performance and 
completion of performance would occur. 

9. For goods and services that would be delivered, 

i. the place to which they would be delivered, and 

ii. if the supplier holds out a specific manner of delivery and intends to charge the consumer for delivery, the 
manner in which the goods and services would be delivered, including the name of the carrier, if any, and 
including the method of transportation that would be used. 

10. For services that would be performed, the place where they would be performed, the person for whom they would be 
performed, the supplier's method of performing them and, if the supplier holds out that a specific person other than the 
supplier would perform any of the services on the supplier's behalf, the name of that person. 

11. The rights, if any, that the supplier agrees the consumer will have in addition to the rights under the Act and the 
obligations, if any, by which the supplier agrees to be bound in addition to the obligations under the Act, in relation to 
cancellations, returns, exchanges and refunds. 

12. If the agreement is to include a trade-in arrangement, a description of the trade-in arrangement and the amount of the 
trade-in allowance. 

13. The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

14. Any other restrictions, limitations and conditions that would be imposed by the supplier. 
Copy of internet agreement 

33. (1) For the purpose of subsection 39 (1) of the Act, the supplier shall deliver a copy of the internet agreement in 
writing to the consumer within 15 days after the consumer enters into the agreement. 

(2) For the purpose of subsection 39 (2) of the Act, the following information shall be included in the copy of the internet 
agreement: 

1. The information listed in section 32 of this Regulation. 

2. The name of the consumer. 

3. The date on which the agreement is entered into. 

(3) For the purpose of subsection 39 (3) of the Act, the manner in which the copy of the internet agreement shall be 
delivered is any one of the following: 

1 . Transmitting it in a manner that ensures that the consumer is able to retain, print and access it for future reference, 
such as sending it by e-mail to an e-mail address that the consumer has given the supplier for providing information 
related to the agreement. 

2. Transmitting it by fax to the fax number that the consumer has given the supplier for providing information related to 
the agreement. 

3. Mailing or delivering it to an address that the consumer has given the supplier for providing information related to the 
agreement. 

4. Providing it to the consumer in any other manner that allows the supplier to prove that the consumer has received it. 

Direct Agreements 

Prescribed amount 

34. The prescribed amount for the purpose of subsection 41 (1) of the Act is $50. 
Requirements for direct agreements 

35. ( 1 ) For the purpose of section 42 of the Act, a direct agreement shall be signed by the consumer and the supplier and 
shall set out the following information: 

1 . The name and address of the consumer. 

2. The name of the supplier and, if different, the name under which the supplier carries on business. 

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3. The telephone number of the supplier, the address of the premises from which the supplier conducts business, and 
information respecting other ways, if any, in which the supplier can be contacted by the consumer, such as the fax 
number and e-mail address of the supplier. 

4. The names of, 

i. the person, if any, who solicited the consumer in connection with the agreement, 
ii. the person, if any, who negotiated the agreement with the consumer, and 
iii. the person who concluded the agreement with the consumer. 

5. The date on which and the place where the agreement is entered into. 

6. A fair and accurate description of the goods and services to be supplied to the consumer, including the technical 
requirements, if any, related to the use of the goods or services. 

7. The total amount payable by the consumer under the agreement or, if the goods and services are to be supplied during 
an indefinite period, the amount and frequency of periodic payments. 

8. The terms of payment. 

9. An itemized list of the prices at which the goods and services are to be supplied to the consumer, including taxes and 
shipping charges. 

10. If the agreement includes a trade-in arrangement, a description of the trade-in arrangement and the amount of the 
trade-in allowance. t 

11. A statement containing the text set out in subsection (2) and, if applicable, the additional text set out in subsection (3), 

i. which shall be in at least 10 point type, except for the heading which shall be in at least 12 point bold type, and 

ii. which shall appear on the first page of the agreement, unless there is a notice on the first page of the agreement in 
at least 1 2 point bold type indicating where in the agreement the statement appears. 

12. As applicable, the date or dates on which delivery, commencement of performance, ongoing performance and 
completion of performance are to occur. 

13. The rights, if any, that the supplier agrees the consumer will have in addition to the rights under the Act and the 
obligations, if any, by which the supplier agrees to be bound in addition to the obligations under the Act, in relation to 
cancellations, returns, exchanges and refunds. 

14. The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

1 5. Any other restrictions, limitations and conditions that are imposed by the supplier. 
(2) The statement mentioned in paragraph 1 1 of subsection ( 1 ) shall set out the following: 

Your Rights under the Consumer Protection Act, 2002 

You may cancel this agreement at any time during the period that ends ten (10) days after the day you receive a written copy 
of the agreement. You do not need to give the supplier a reason for cancelling during this 10-day period. 

If the supplier does not make delivery within 30 days after the delivery date specified in this agreement or if the supplier does 
not begin performance of his, her or its obligations within 30 days after the commencement date specified in this agreement, 
you may cancel this agreement at any time before delivery or commencement of performance. You lose the right to cancel if, 
after the 30-day period has expired, you agree to accept delivery or authorize commencement of performance. 

If the delivery date or commencement date is not specified in this agreement and the supplier does not deliver or commence 
performance within 30 days after the date this agreement is entered into, you may cancel this agreement at any time before 
delivery or commencement of performance. You lose the right to cancel if, after the 30-day period has expired, you agree to 
accept delivery or authorize commencement of performance. 

In addition, there are other grounds that allow you to cancel this agreement. You may also have other rights, duties and 
remedies at law. For more information, you may contact the Ministry of Consumer and Business Services. 

To cancel this agreement, you must give notice of cancellation to the supplier, at the address set out in the agreement, by any 
means that allows you to prove the date on which you gave notice. If no address is set out in the agreement, use any address 
of the supplier that is on record with the Government of Ontario or the Government of Canada or is known by you. 

If you cancel this agreement, the supplier has fifteen (15) days to refund any payment you have made and return to you all 
goods delivered under a trade-in arrangement (or refund an amount equal to the trade-in allowance). 

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However, if you cancel this agreement after having solicited the goods or services from the supplier and having requested 
that delivery be made or performance be commenced within ten (10) days after the date this agreement is entered into, the 
supplier is entitled to reasonable compensation for the goods and services that you received before the earlier of the 1 1 th day 
after the date this agreement was entered into and the date on which you gave notice of cancellation to the supplier, except 
goods that can be repossessed by or returned to the supplier. 

(3) If the consumer is to receive goods under the agreement, the statement mentioned in paragraph 11 of subsection (1) 
shall also set out the following: 

If the supplier requests in writing repossession of any goods that came into your possession under the agreement, you must 
return the goods to the supplier's address, or allow one of the following persons to repossess the goods at your address: 

The supplier. 

A person designated in writing by the supplier. 

If you cancel this agreement, you must take reasonable care of any goods that came into your possession under the agreement 
until one of the following happens: 

The supplier repossesses the goods. 

The supplier has been given a reasonable opportunity to repossess the goods and twenty-one (21) days have passed since 
the agreement was cancelled. 

You return the goods. 

The supplier directs you in writing to destroy the goods and you do so in accordance with the supplier's instructions. 

(4) The supplier may meet the requirements of paragraph 1 1 of subsection (1) by providing a statement that is required 
under legislation of another province or territory of Canada that is enacted for the protection of consumers, if, 

(a) the statement is required in connection with agreements that are substantially equivalent to direct agreements; and 

(b) the statement is substantially equivalent to the statement requirement by paragraph 1 1 . 

Remote Agreements 

Prescribed amouni 

36. The prescribed amount for the purpose of section 44 of the Act is $50. 
Disclosure of information 

37. (1) For the purpose of section 45 of the Act, the information that the supplier shall disclose to the consumer before the 
consumer enters into a remote agreement is: 

1. The name of the supplier and, if different, the name under which the supplier carries on business. 

2. The telephone number of the supplier and, if the consumer is required to deal with the supplier at particular premises, 
the address of the premises at which the consumer is required to deal with the supplier. 

3. A fair and accurate description of the goods and services proposed to be supplied to the consumer, including the 
technical requirements, if any, related to the use of the goods or services. 

4. An itemized list of the prices at which the goods and services are proposed to be supplied to the consumer, including 
taxes and shipping charges. 

5. A description of each additional charge that applies or may apply, such as customs duties or brokerage fees, and the 
amount of the charge if the supplier can reasonably determine it. 

6. The total amount that the supplier knows would be payable by the consumer under the agreement, including amounts 
that are required to be disclosed under paragraph 5, or, if the goods and services are proposed to be supplied during an 
indefinite period, the amount and frequency of periodic payments. 

7. The terms and methods of payment. 

8. As applicable, the date or dates on which delivery, commencement of performance, ongoing performance and 
completion of performance would occur. 

9. For goods and services that would be delivered, 

i. the place to which they would be delivered, and 

ii. if the supplier holds out a specific manner of delivery and intends to charge the consumer for delivery, the 
manner in which the goods and services would be delivered, including the name of the carrier, if any, and 
including the method of transportation that would be used. 

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10. For services that would be performed, the place where Ihey would be performed, the person for whom they would be 
performed, the supplier's method of performing them and, if the supplier holds out that a specific person other than the 
supplier would perform any of the services on the supplier's behalf, the name of that person. 

1 1. The rights, if any, that the supplier agrees the consumer will have in addition to the rights under the Act and the 
obligations, if any, by which the supplier agrees to be bound in addition to the obligations under the Act, in relation to 
cancellations, returns, exchanges and refunds. 

12. If the agreement is to include a trade-in arrangement, a description of the trade-in arrangement and the amount of the 
trade-in allowance. 

13. The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

14. Any other restrictions, limitations and conditions that would be imposed by the supplier. 

(2) The disclosure required under section 45 of the Act and subsection (1) of this section may be made orally or in writing, 
and may be made by referring the consumer to a pre-existing publication setting out the information required to be disclosed. 

Express opportunity to accept or decline agreement 

38. For the purpose of section 45 of the Act, before a consumer enters into a remote agreement, the supplier shall provide 
the consumer with an express opportunity to accept or decline the agreement and to correct errors. 

Copy of remote agreement 

39. (1) For the purpose of subsection 46 (1) of the Act, the period within which the supplier shall deliver a copy of the 
remote agreement in writing to the consumer is the period that begins on the day the consumer enters into the agreement and 
ends on the earlier of, 

(a) the day that is 30 days after the supplier bills the consumer for the goods or services; and 

(b) the day that is 60 days after the day the consumer enters into the agreement. 

(2) For the purpose of subsection 46 (2) of the Act, the following information shall be included in the copy of the remote 
agreement: 

1. The information listed in paragraphs I and 3 to 14 of subsection 37 (1) of this Regulation. 

2. The telephone number of the supplier, the address of the premises from which the supplier conducts business, and 
information respecting other ways, if any, in which the supplier can be contacted by the consumer, such as the fax 
number and e-mail address of the supplier. 

3. The name of the consumer. 

4. The date on which the agreement is entered into. 

(3) For the purpose of subsection 46 (3) of the Act, the manner in which the copy of the remote agreement shall be 
delivered is any one of the following: 

1. Transmitting it in a manner that ensures that the consumer is able to retain, print and access it for future reference, 
such as sending it by e-mail to an e-mail address that the consumer has given the supplier for providing information 
related to the agreement. 

2. Transmitting it by fax to the fax number that the consumer has given the supplier for providing information related to 
the agreement. 

3. Mailing or delivering it to an address that the consumer has given the supplier for providing information related to the 

agreement. 

4. Providing it to the consumer in any other manner that allows the supplier to prove that the consumer has received it. 

Leases to which Part VllI of the Act does not Apply 

Requirements for certain leases 

40. ( 1 ) This section applies to a lease, as defined in Part VIII of the Act, if, 

(a) Part IV of the Act applies to it; and 

(b) Part VIII of the Act does not apply to it by virtue of section 87 of the Act or section 77 of this Regulation. 

(2) in addition to any other requirements that apply to it under Part IV of the Act, a lease described in subsection ( I ) shall 
set out the following: 

1 . That the lease does not transfer title to the leased goods to the lessee. 

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2. The penalties, or the manner of determining the penalties, that may be imposed on the lessee for unreasonable or 
excessive wear or use of the leased goods and the standards that will be applied to determine whether unreasonable or 
excessive wear or use of the leased goods has occurred. 

3. In the case of an option lease, as defined in subsection 72 (1), 

i. when and how the option may be exercised, 

ii. the amount of the additional payment that the lessee is required to make in order to exercise the option at the end 
of the lease term, and 

iii. the manner of determining the amount of the additional payment that the lessee is required to make in order to 
exercise the option before the end of the lease term. , 

4. That on early termination of the lease by the lessee, the lessee is not liable for more than the sum of the following 
amounts: 

i. The periodic payments due on or before the day the lease is terminated that have not already been paid. 

ii. The expenses incurred by the lessor for the removal of the leased goods from the possession of the lessee. 

iii. The penalties, if any, imposed on the lessee in accordance with the lease for unreasonable or excessive wear or 
use of the leased goods. 

(3) In this section, 

"lease term" has the same meaning as in section 86 of the Act. 

Amendment, Renewal and Extension of Certain Consumer Agreements 

Amendment, renewal or extension by explicit agreement to proposal 

41. (1) This section applies only to the following consumer agreements: 

1. Future performance agreements to which sections 22 to 26 of the Act apply. 

2. Time share agreements to which sections 27 and 28 of the Act apply. 

3. Internet agreements to which sections 38 to 40 of the Act apply. 

4. Direct agreements to which sections 42 and 43 of the Act apply. 

5. Remote agreements to which sections 45 to 47 of the Act apply. 

(2) A consumer agreement mentioned in subsection ( 1 ), whether it provides for amendment, renewal or extension or not, 
may be amended, renewed or extended if, 

(a) the supplier or the consumer makes a proposal for amendment, renewal or extension; 

(b) the supplier provides to the consumer an update of all of the information that was required by the Act or this 
Regulation to be set out in the agreement when it was first entered into and the update reflects the effect of the 
proposal to amend, renew or extend; and 

(c) the party who receives the proposal agrees, explicitly and not merely by implication, to the proposal. 

(3) For the purpose of clause (2) (c), an acknowledgement that the proposal has been received does not in itself constitute 
agreement to the proposal. 

(4) If the events described in clauses (2) (a), (b) and (c) occur, the amendment, renewal or extension is effective on the 
date specified in the proposal, but only if the supplier provides a written copy of an updated version of the agreement to the 
consumer within 45 days after the party who receives the proposal agrees to it. 

(5) The amendment, renewal or extension does not retroactively affect rights and obligations acquired by the consumer 
before the effective date of the amendment, renewal or extension. 

(6) On the day on which an amendment, renewal or extension of a time share agreement or a direct agreement is effective 
under this section, the supplier and the consumer shall be deemed to have entered into the updated version of the agreement 
for the purposes of subsections 28(1) and 43 ( 1 ) of the Act. 

Amendment, renewal or extension in accordance with consumer agreement 

42. ( 1 ) This section applies only to the following consumer agreements: 

1 . Future performance agreements to which sections 22 to 26 of the Act apply. 

2. Internet agreements to which sections 38 to 40 of the Act apply. 

3. Remote agreements to which sections 45 to 47 of the Act apply. 

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(2) A consumer agreement mentioned in subsection (1) that provides for amendment, renewal or extension may, in 
addition to being amendable, renewable or extendable under section 41, be amended, renewed or extended if the following 
conditions are satisfied; 

1. The agreement indicates what elements of the agreement the supplier may propose to amend, renew or extend and at 
what intervals the supplier may propose an amendment, renewal or extension. 

2. The agreement gives the consumer at least one of the following alternatives to accepting the supplier's proposal to 
amend, renew or extend: 

i. terminating the agreement, or 

ii. retaining the existing agreement unchanged. 

3. The agreement requires the supplier to give the consumer advance notice of a proposal to amend, renew or extend. 

(3) The amendment, renewal or extension takes effect on the later of, 

(a) the date specified in the notice; and 

(b) the date that is 30 days after the day on which the consumer receives the notice. 

(4) The amendment, renewal or extension does not retroactively affect rights and obligations acquired by the consumer 
before the effective date of the amendment, renewal or extension. 

(5) The supplier's notice of a proposal to amend, renew or extend shall, 

(a) provide an update of all of the information that was required by the Act or this Regulation to be set out in the 
agreement when it was first entered into and ensure that the update reflects the effect of the proposal to amend, renew 
or extend; 

(b) disclose all changes proposed to be made to the agreement, including, for each provision that is to be changed, the text 
of the provision as it would read after the change; 

(c) be consistent with those aspects of the agreement mentioned in paragraphs 1 and 2 of subsection (2); 

(d) specify the date on which the amendment, renewal or extension would become effective; 

(e) specify a means that complies with subsection (6) for the consumer to respond to the notice; 

(f) state what the effect will be if the consumer does not respond to the notice; 

(g) be provided to the consumer in such a way that it is likely to come to his or her attention; and 

(h) be provided to the consumer at least 30 days but not more than 90 days before the date on which it is proposed that the 
amendment, renewal or extension would take effect. 

(6) The means for the consumer to respond to the notice shall involve no cost to the consumer and shall be easy for the 
consumer to use. 

(7) A purported amendment, renewal or extension under this section that does not comply with subsections (5) and (6) is 
not effective. 

Agreement type continues 

43. A time share agreement, an internet agreement, a direct agreement or a remote agreement that has been amended, 
renewed or extended under section 41 or 42 shall continue to be considered a time share agreement, an internet agreement, a 
direct agreement or a remote agreement, as the case may be, even if the method by which the amendment, renewal or 
extension occurred would result in the agreement no longer being within the definition of "time share agreement", "internet 
agreement", "direct agreement" or "remote agreement", as the case may be, under subsection 20 ( 1 ) of the Act. 

PART V 
LOAN BROKERING AND CREDIT REPAIR — PART V OF THE ACT 

Requirements for loan brokering agreements 

44. ( 1 ) For the purpose of section 49 of the Act, a consumer agreement for loan brokering shall be signed by the consumer 
and the loan broker and shall set out the following information: 

1 . The name of the consumer. 

2. The name of the loan broker and, if different, the name under which the loan broker carries on business. 

3. The telephone number of the loan broker, the address of the premises from which the loan broker conducts business, 
and information respecting other ways, if any, in which the loan broker can be contacted by the consumer, such as the 
fax number and e-mail address of the loan broker. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 455 

4. The names of, 

i. the person, if any, who solicited the consumer in connection with the agreement, 
ii. the person, if any, who negotiated the agreement with the consumer, and 
iii. the person who concluded the agreement with the consumer. 

5. An itemized list of the services and goods that the loan broker is to supply to the consumer, that fairly and accurately 
describes each service and good and that includes, 

i. if known, the names of the persons from whom the loan broker will attempt to obtain credit or a loan of money 
for the consumer, and 

ii. the amount of the credit or loan of money that the loan broker will attempt to obtain for the consumer. 

6. As applicable, the date or dates on which delivery, commencement of performance, ongoing performance and 
completion of performance are to occur. 

7. The date by which the consumer is to receive the credit or the loan of money. 

8. The total amount payable by the consumer to the loan broker and the terms and methods of payment. 

9. The portion, expressed in dollars and cents, of the total amount payable that is attributable to each service or good to 
be supplied under the agreement. 

10. The statement set out in subsection (2), 

i. which shall be in at least 10 point type, except for the heading which shall be in at least 12 point bold type, and 

ii. which shall appear on the first page of the agreement, unless there is a notice on the first page of the agreement in 
at least 1 2 point bold type indicating where in the agreement the statement appears. 

1 1 . The date on which the agreement is entered into. 

12. If the agreement includes a trade-in arrangement, a description of the trade-in arrangement and the amount of the 
trade-in allowance. 

13. The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

14. Any other restrictions, limitations and conditions that are imposed by the loan broker. 
(2) The statement mentioned in paragraph 1 of subsection { 1 ) is as follows: 

Your Rights under the Consumer Protection Act, 2002 

You may cancel this agreement at any time during the period that ends ten (10) days after the day you receive a written copy 
of the agreement. You do not need to give the loan broker a reason for cancelling during this 10-day period. 

In addition, there are grounds that allow you to cancel this agreement. You may also have other rights, duties and remedies 
at law. For more information, you may contact the Ministry of Consumer and Business Services. 

To cancel this agreement, you must give notice of cancellation to the loan broker, at the address set out in the agreement, by 
any means that allows you to prove the date on which you gave notice. If no address is set out in the agreement, use any 
address of the loan broker that is on record with the Government of Ontario or the Government of Canada or is known by 
you. 

It is an offence for the loan broker to require or accept payment or security for payment before you receive the credit or the 
loan of money that the loan broker is assisting you to obtain. If, before you receive the credit or the loan of money, the loan 
broker requires or accepts payment, or security for payment, from you, you may, within one (1) year after the date of 
providing the payment or security, demand that it be returned. 

If you cancel this agreement, the loan broker has fifteen (15) days to refund any payment you have made and return to you all 
goods delivered under a trade-in arrangement (or refund an amount equal to the trade-in allowance). 

Prohibited representations, loan broker 

45. For the purpose of section 53 of the Act, the following are prohibited representations in the case of a loan broker: 

1. An express or implied representation that the loan broker is approved, licensed or registered by the Government of 
Canada, the Government of Ontario or the government of any other province or territory of Canada. 

2. An express or implied representation that the operations of the loan broker are regulated by the Government of 
Canada, the Government of Ontario or the government of any other province or territory of Canada. 

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Requirements fur credit repair agreements 

46. (1) For the puq)ose of section 49 of the Act, a consumer agreement for credit repair shall be signed by the consumer 
and the credit repairer and shall set out the following information: 

1. The name of the consumer. 

2. The name of the credit repairer and, if ditïerent, the name under which the credit repairer carries on business. 

3. The telephone number of the credit repairer, the address of the premises from which the credit repairer conducts 
business, and information respecting other ways, if any, in which the credit repairer can be contacted by the consumer, 
such as the fax number and e-mail address of the credit repairer. 

4. The names of, 

i. the person, if any, who solicited the consumer in connection with the agreement, 
ii. the person, if any, who negotiated the agreement with the consumer, and 
iii. the person who concluded the agreement with the consumer. 

5. An itemized list of the services and goods that the credit repairer is to supply to the consumer, that fairly and 
accurately describes each service and good. 

6. As applicable, the date or dates on which delivery, commencement of performance, ongoing performance and 
completion of performance are to occur. 

7. The date by which the credit repairer is to cause a material improvement to the consumer report, credit information, 
file, personal information, credit record, credit history or credit rating of the consumer. 

8. The total amount payable by the consumer to the credit repairer and the terms and methods of payment. 

9. The portion, expressed in dollars and cents, of the total amount payable that is attributable to each service or good to 
be supplied under the agreement. 

10. The statement set out in subsection (2), 

i. which shall be in at least 10 point type, except for the heading which shall be in at least 12 point bold type, and 
ii. which shall appear on the first page of the agreement. 

1 1 . The statement set out in subsection (3), 

i. which shall be in at least 10 point type, except for the heading which shall be in at least 12 point bold type, and 

ii. which shall appear on the first page of the agreement, unless there is a notice on the first page of the agreement in 
at least 1 2 point bold type indicating where in the agreement the statement appears. 

1 2. The date on which the agreement is entered into. 

13. If the agreement includes a trade-in arrangement, a description of the trade-in arrangement and the amount of the 
trade-in allowance. 

14. The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

15. Any other restrictions, limitations and conditions that are imposed by the credit repairer. 

(2) The statement mentioned in paragraph 10 of subsection (1) is as follows: 

Your Rights under the Consumer Reporting Act 

If a consumer reporting agency maintains a credit file with respect to you, you have the right to dispute with the agency, at no 
cost to you, the accuracy or completeness of the information about you in its file. You do not need to hire a credit repairer, or 
anyone else, to exercise this right. If the file contains inaccurate or incomplete infonnation, the consumer reporting agency 
must correct it within a reasonable period of time. 

However, you do not have the right to have negative infonnation that is accurate removed from your credit file. The 
consumer reporting agency generally removes negative information after seven (7) years. 

You may also file a complaint with the Ministry of Consumer and Business Services regarding the information about you in a 
credit file maintained by a consumer reporting agency. 

(3) The statement mentioned in paragraph 1 1 of subsection ( I ) is as follows: 



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Your Rights under the Consumer Protection Act, 2002 

You may cancel this agreement at any time during the period that ends ten (10) days after the day you receive a written copy 
of the agreement. You do not need to give the credit repairer a reason for cancelling during this 10-day period. 

In addition, there are grounds that allow you to cancel this agreement. You may also have other rights, duties and remedies 
at law. For more information, you may contact the Ministry of Consumer and Business Services. 

To cancel this agreement, you must give notice of cancellation to the credit repairer, at the address set out in the agreement, 
by any means that allows you to prove the date on which you gave notice. If no address is set out in the agreement, use any 
address of the credit repairer that is on record with the Government of Ontario or the Government of Canada or is known by 
you. 

It is an offence for the credit repairer to require or accept payment or security for payment in advance of causing a material 
improvement to your credit file. If, before causing a material improvement to your credit file, the credit repairer requires or 
accepts payment, or security for payment, from you, you may, within one ( I ) year from the date of providing the payment or 
security, demand that it be returned. 

If you cancel this agreement, the credit repairer has fifteen (15) days to refund any payment you have made and return to you 
all goods delivered under a trade-in arrangement (or refund an amount equal to the trade-in allowance). 

Prohibited representations, credit repairer 

47. ( 1 ) For the purpose of section 53 of the Act, the following are prohibited representations in the case of a credit 
repairer: 

1 . An express or implied representation that the credit repairer is approved, licensed or registered by the Government of 
Canada, the Government of Ontario or the government of any other province or territory of Canada. 

2. An express or implied representation that the operations of the credit repairer are regulated by the Government of 
Canada, the Government of Ontario or the government of any other province or territory of Canada. 

3. Subject to subsection (2), an express or implied representation that the credit repairer will be able to cause a material 
improvement to the consumer report, credit information, file, personal information, credit record, credit history or 
credit rating of a consumer. 

(2) The representation described in paragraph 3 of subsection (1) is not a prohibited representation if the credit repairer 
makes the representation after, 

(a) examining the consumer's consumer report, credit information, file, personal information, credit record, credit history 
or credit rating; and 

(b) reasonably concluding that the consumer's consumer report, credit information, file, personal information, credit 
record, credit history or credit rating is inaccurate or incomplete and correcting, supplementing or deleting any item of 
information would cause a material improvement to the consumer's consumer report, credit information, file, personal 
information, credit record, credit history or credit rating. 

PART VI 
REPAIRS TO MOTOR VEHICLES — PART VI OF THE ACT 

Estimates 

48. For the purpose of subsection 56 ( 1 ) of the Act, an estimate of the total cost of work on and repairs to a vehicle shall 
be in writing and shall set out the following information: 

1 . The name of the consumer. 

2. The name of the repairer and, if different, the name under which the repairer carries on business. 

3. The telephone number of the repairer, the address of the premises from which the repairer conducts business, and 
information respecting other ways, if any, in which the repairer can be contacted by the consumer, such as the fax 
number and e-mail address of the repairer. 

4. The make, model, vehicle identification number and licence number of the vehicle. 

5. The odometer reading of the vehicle at the time of the estimate. 

6. An exact description of the work to be done on and the repairs to be made to the vehicle. 

7. An itemized list of the parts to be installed and a statement as to whether each part is a new part provided by the 
original equipment manufacturer, a new part not provided by the original equipment manufacturer, a used part or a 
reconditioned part. 

8. The amount that the consumer will be charged for each part listed under paragraph 7. 

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9. The number of hours to be billed for doing the work and making the repairs, the hourly rate to be charged, any flat rate 
that will be applied in respect of any of the work or repairs and the total charge for labour. 

10. An itemized list of all other goods and services, such as storing the vehicle, picking up or delivering the vehicle or 
providing the consumer with another vehicle on a temporary basis, that are to be provided to the consumer in 
connection with the transaction and for which the consumer will be charged, and the amount to be charged for each 
such good or service. 

11. I f the consumer has declined the return of any parts to be removed in the course of work on or repairs to the vehicle, 

i. a statement to that effect, and 
ii. the resulting reduction, if any, in price. 

1 2. The total amount to be billed to the consumer. 

13. The date on which the estimate is given and the date after which it ceases to apply. 

14. The date by which the work and repairs will be completed. 

15. That the repairer will not charge the consumer an amount that exceeds the amount estimated under paragraph 12 by 
more than 1 per cent. 

Autliorization not in writing 

49. For the purpose of section 59 of the Act, if an authorization that is not in writing is given to a repairer who works on or 
repairs vehicles, the following is required to be recorded in order for the authorization to be effective: 

1 . The name of the person giving the authorization. 

2. The date and time of the authorization. 

3. If the non-written authorization is given by telephone, the telephone number of the person giving the authorization, 
and if the non-written authorization is given by a method other than telephone, information regarding how the person 
giving the authorization can be contacted using the other method. 

Posting signs 

50. For the purpose of section 60 of the Act, a repairer who works on or repairs vehicles shall post the following 
information on one or more signs, in such a manner that the disclosure of the information is clear, comprehensible and 
prominent: 

1. That the repairer is required to provide a written estimate unless, 

i. the repairer offers to give the consumer an estimate and the consumer declines the offer of an estimate, 

ii. the consumer specifically authorizes a maximum amount that the consumer will pay the repairer to do the work 
and make the repairs, and 

iii. the cost charged for the work and repairs does not exceed the maximum amount authorized by the consumer. 

2. Whether there is a fee for an estimate and, if so, 

i. the amount of the fee, and 

ii. that if the work and repairs are authorized and carried out, the fee for the estimate will not be charged unless the 
authorization is unreasonably delayed and the vehicle is reassembled before being worked on or repaired so that it 
can be moved in order to free repair space. 

3. A description of the method that will be used to compute labour charges, including, 

i. the hourly rate that will be charged, 

ii. whether a flat rate will be applied in respect of any of the work or repairs and, if so, the flat rate and the work or 
repairs to which it will be applied, and 

iii. whether there will be a charge for diagnostic time and, if so, the manner of determining the amount that will be 
charged. 

4. Whether the repairer or any of the persons doing the work or making the repairs on the repairer's behalf receive any 
commissions for parts sold and, if so, the manner of determining the commission and the parts to which it applies. 

5. An itemized list of all goods and services, other than parts, shop supplies and labour, for which the consumer may be 
charged, such as storing the vehicle, picking up or delivering the vehicle or providing the consumer with another 
vehicle on a temporary basis, and the amount that will be charged for each such good or service. 

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6. That each part removed in the course of work or repairs will be available to the consumer after the work and repairs 
are completed, unless, 

i. the repairer is advised, at the time the work and repairs are authorized, that the consumer does not require the 
return of the part, 

ii. the part is replaced under a warranty that requires the return of the part to the manufacturer or distributor, or 

iii. the consumer is not charged for the replacement part or for work on or repair to the part. 

Invoices 

51. For the purpose of section 62 of the Act, an invoice with respect to work on or repairs to a vehicle shall be in writing 
and shall set out the following information: 

1. The name of the consumer. 

2. The name of the repairer and, if different, the name under which the repairer carries on business. 

3. The telephone number of the repairer, the address of the premises from which the repairer conducts business, and 
information respecting other ways, if any, in which the repairer can be contacted by the consumer, such as the fax 
number and e-mail address of the repairer. 

4. The make, model, vehicle identification number and licence number of the vehicle. 

5. The date on which the consumer authorized the work and repairs. 

6. The date on which the work and repairs were completed. 

7. The date on which the vehicle is returned to the consumer. 

8. The odometer reading of the vehicle at the time the consumer authorized the work or repairs and the odometer reading 
of the vehicle at the time it is returned to the consumer. 

9. An exact description of the work done on and the repairs made to the vehicle. 

10. An itemized list of the parts installed and a statement as to whether each part is a new part provided by the original 
equipment manufacturer, a new part not provided by the original equipment manufacturer, a used part or a 
reconditioned part. 

1 1 . The amount that the consumer is being charged for each part listed under paragraph 10. 

12. An itemized list of the shop supplies used and for which the consumer is being charged, and the amount charged for 
each of the supplies. 

13. The total charge for labour and the method used to compute it, including, 

i. the number of hours billed for doing the work and making the repairs and the hourly rate charged, 

ii. if a flat rate was applied in respect of any of the work or repairs, the flat rate and the work or repairs to which it 
was applied, and 

iii. the amount, if any, charged for diagnostic time. 

14. An itemized list of all other goods and services, such as storing the vehicle, picking up or delivering the vehicle or 
providing the consumer with another vehicle on a temporary basis, that were provided to the consumer in connection 
with the transaction and for which the consumer is being charged, and the amount charged for each good or service. 

15. If the consumer has declined the return of any parts removed in the course of work on or repairs to the vehicle, 

i. a statement to that effect, and 
ii. the resulting reduction, if any, in price. 

16. The total amount billed to the consumer and the terms and methods of payment. 

17. If the repairer gave the consumer an estimate, the amount set out in the estimate as the estimated total amount to be 
billed to the consumer. 

18. If the repairer did not give the consumer an estimate, the maximum amount that the consumer specifically authorized 
under subsection 56 (2) of the Act. 

19. The terms of the warranty given by the repairer for each new part provided by the original equipment manufacturer, 
each new part not provided by the original equipment manufacturer and each reconditioned part, and for the labour 
required to install each such part, if the repairer's warranty provides, in terms of time and distance, coverage equal to 
or greater than the coverage provided by the warranty under section 63 of the Act, which is subject to clauses 52 (a) 
and (b) of this Regulation. 

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20. For each new or reconditioned part or the labour required to install it, for which the repairer does not give a warranty 
described in paragraph 19, 

i. that the repairer warrants it for a minimum of 90 days or 5,000 kilometres, whichever comes first, 

ii. that the warranty set out in subparagraph i is provided under the Act and may not be waived by the consumer, and 

iii. that the warranty set out in subparagraph i does not apply to, 

A. fluids, filters, lights, tires or batteries, or 

B. a part that was not warranted by the manufacturer of the vehicle when the vehicle was sold as new. 

2 1 . The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

22. Any other restrictions, limitations and conditions that are imposed by the repairer. 

23. The following statement: 

The Consumer Protection Act, 2002 provides you with rights in relation to having a motor vehicle repaired. Among 
other things, you have a right to a written estimate. A repairer may not charge an amount that is more than ten (10) per 
cent above that estimate. If you waived your right to an estimate, the repairer must have your authorization of the 
maximum amount that you will pay for the repairs. The repairer may not charge more than the maximum amount you 
authorized. In either case, the repairer may not charge for any work you did not authorize. 

If you have concerns about the work or repairs performed by the repairer or about your rights or duties under the 
Consumer Protection Act, 2002, you should contact the Ministry of Consumer and Business Services. 

Exemption from vehicle warranty 

52. Section 63 of the Act does not apply to, 

(a) fluids, filters, lights, tires or batteries; 

(b) a part that was not warranted by the manufacturer of the vehicle when the vehicle was sold as new; 

(c) a part installed or the labour required to install it under a warranty that provides, in terms of time and distance, 
coverage equal to or greater than the coverage provided by the warranty under section 63 of the Act. 

PART VII 
CREDIT AGREEMENTS — PART VII OF THE ACT 

Definition ' 

53. In this Part, 

"grace period" means a period for which charges specified in the credit agreement that accrue during the period will be 
forgiven if the borrower satisfies conditions specified in the credit agreement. 

Advance 

54. (1) For the purpose of the definition of "advance" in section 66 of the Act, each of the following constitutes value 
received by a borrower under a credit agreement: 

1 . Money transferred to or to the order of the borrower in accordance with the credit agreement. 

2. In the case of a supplier credit agreement under which the borrower obtains goods or services from the supplier, 

i. the price of the goods or services, had they been sold for cash rather than on credit, subject to subparagraph ii, 

ii. if in order to enter into the supplier credit agreement at a particular interest rate, the borrower is required to 
decline a rebate or a portion of a rebate or is required to pay a higher price for the goods or services, the lowest 
price, less any applicable rebate, at which the goods and services are available from the supplier. 

3. The amount of a pre-existing monetary obligation of the borrower that the lender pays, discharges or consolidates in 
connection with the credit agreement, whether or not the pre-existing monetary obligation is itself connected to the 
credit agreement. 

4. Money obtained by the borrower, or the cash price of a good or service obtained by the borrower, through the use of a 
credit card issued under the credit agreement. 

5. The expense incurred by the lender in paying all or any part of the following in connection with the credit agreement, 
if the borrower is required to repay the expense: 

i. The cost of searching vehicle records under the Highway Traffic Act in order to confirm the ownership or vehicle 
identification number of a vehicle. 

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ii. The cost of obtaining a statement, or a certified copy of a statement, containing information from the vehicle 
records. 

6. if the borrower gives a security interest in personal property to secure the borrower's indebtedness under the credit 
agreement, the expense incurred by the lender in paying all or any part of the following, if the borrower is required to 
repay the expense: 

i. The cost of professional services obtained for the purpose of confirming the value, condition, location or 
conformity to law of the property that is subject to the security interest, if the borrower receives a report signed 
by the person providing the professional services and is entitled to give the report to others. 

ii. The cost of insurance for the property that is subject to the security interest, if the borrower is the beneficiary of 
the insurance and the insured amount is the full insurable value of the property. 

iii. The cost of registering a financing statement or financing change statement in a public registry of security 
interests in personal property, and the cost of searching or obtaining information from the registry, in relation to 
the security interest given by the borrower. 

iv. The cost of registering in the land titles or registry system a notice of security interest under clause 54 (1) (a) of 
the Personal Property Security Act, an extension notice under subsection 54 (3) of that Act or a certificate to 
discharge or partially discharge a notice of security interest under subsection 54 (4) of that Act, and the cost of 
searching or obtaining information from the system, in relation to the security interest given by the borrower. 

(2) "Cost" means, 

(a) in subparagraphs 5 i and ii of subsection (1), the fees paid for the search or statement and the service fees paid to an 
agent, if any, and 

(b) in subparagraphs 6 iii and iv of subsection (1), the fees paid for the registration, search or information and the service 
fees paid to an agent, if any. 

Annual percentage rate for credit agreement 

55. (1) For the purpose of the definition of "annual percentage rate" in section 66 of the Act, 

(a) the annual percentage rate for a credit agreement is the annual interest rate set out in the credit agreement, if, 

(i) the credit agreement does not provide for interest to be calculated more frequently than the frequency with which 
scheduled payments are required to be made by the borrower, and 

(ii) there is no cost of borrowing, other than interest, in connection with the credit agreement; and 

(b) the annual percentage rate for any other credit agreement is the amount detemiined using the formula, 

[C - (T X A)] X 100 

in which, 

"C" is the cost of borrowing, 

"T" is the length of the term of the credit agreement, in years, and 

"A" is the average of the principal balances outstanding at the end of each interest calculation period during the term of the 
credit agreement before applying any payment due by the borrower, with all interest calculation periods under the 
credit agreement being of equal length. 

(2) In calculating "A" in clause ( 1 ) (b), 

(a) the principal outstanding at the beginning of the term of the credit agreement is the result obtained by subtracting the 
total of all payments made by the borrower at or before the beginning of the term from the total of all advances 
received by the borrower at or before the beginning of the term; 

(b) principal does not include any portion of the cost of borrowing, and no portion of the accumulated cost of borrowing 
shall be included in the principal balance outstanding at any time; 

(c) each payment by the borrower in connection with the credit agreement shall be considered to be applied first against 
the accumulated cost of borrowing and then, to the extent that the payment exceeds the accumulated cost of borrowing, 
against the outstanding principal balance; and 

(d) applying the following formula in respect of each interest calculation period shall yield a result that is equal to the cost 
of borrowing for that period, 

APR/100 X L X P 
in which, 

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462 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

"APR" is the annual percentage rate, 

"L" is the length of the interest calculation period as a fraction of a year, and 

"P" is the principal balance outstanding at the end of the interest calculation period before applying any payment due by 
the borrower. 

(3) In calculating the annual percentage rate for a credit agreement, a year shall be considered to have 365 days, despite 
the definition of "year" in section 1 of the Act. 

(4) If a credit agreement provides for payments to be made at intervals measured by reference to weeks or months, the 
annual percentage rate for the credit agreement may be calculated on the assumption that each week is 1/52 of a year long 
and each month is 1/12 of a year long. 

(5) If the annual percentage rate for a credit agreement is required to be calculated when the interest rate for any period 
during the term of the credit agreement is unknown, the annual percentage rate for the credit agreement shall be calculated as 
if the interest rate for that period was to be determined on the basis of circumstances existing at the time of the calculation. 

(6) The annual percentage rate for a credit agreement for fixed credit that does not provide for scheduled payments by the 
borrower shall be calculated on the assumption that the outstanding balance will be repaid in full in a single payment at the 
end of the term of the credit agreement. 

(7) The annual percentage rate for a renewed credit agreement shall be calculated on the assumption that the borrower 
receives, on the renewal date, an advance equal to the outstanding balance at the end of the term of the credit agreement 
being renewed. 

(8) In subsections (3) to (7), the references to the calculation of the annual percentage rate include the calculation of any 
amount that is required to be calculated in order to calculate the annual percentage rate. 

(9) A disclosure of an annual percentage rate for a credit agreement shall be considered to be accurate if it is within one- 
eighth of one per cent of the annual percentage rate calculated in accordance with this section. 

Cos) of borrowing 

56. ( I ) For the purpose of clause (a) of the definition of "cost of borrowing" in section 66 of the Act, the cost of 
borrowing does not include a payment or repayment by the borrower of any portion of the total of the advances received by 
the borrower. 

(2) For the purpose of clause (b) of the definition of "cost of borrowing" in section 66 of the Act, the following are 
prescribed as charges that are not included in the cost of borrowing; 

1. If the borrower gives a security interest in personal property to secure the borrower's indebtedness under the credit 
agreement, 

i. the cost of professional services obtained for the purpose of confirming the value, condition, location or 
conformity to law of the property that is subject to the security interest, if the borrower receives a report signed 
by the person providing the professional services and is entitled to give the report to others, 

ii. the cost of insurance for the property that is subject to the security interest, if the borrower is the beneficiary of 
the insurance and the insured amount is the full insurable value of the property, 

iii. the cost of registering a financing statement or financing change statement in a public registry of security interests 
in personal property, and the cost of searching or obtaining information from the registry, in relation to the 
security interest given by the borrower, and 

iv. the cost of registering in the land titles or registry system a notice of security interest under clause 54 (1) (a) of 
the Personal Property Security Act, an extension notice under subsection 54 (3) of that Act or a certificate to 
discharge or partially discharge a notice of security interest under subsection 54 (4) of that Act, and the cost of 
searching or obtaining infonnation from the system, in relation to the security interest given by the borrower. 

2. The cost of searching vehicle records under the Highway Traffic Act in order to confirm the ownership or vehicle 
identification number of a vehicle and the cost of obtaining a statement, or a certified copy of a statement, containing 
information from the vehicle records. 

3. Default charges. 

4. Prepayment charges and penalties. 

5. Charges for optional services accepted by the borrower. 

(3) "Cost" means, 

(a) in subparagraphs 1 iii and iv of subsection (2), the fees paid for the registration, search or information and the service 
fees paid to an agent, if any; and 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 463 

(b) in paragraph 2 of subsection (2), the fees paid for the search or statement and the service fees paid to an agent, if any. 
Floating rate 

57. In order for an index to qualify as a public index for the purpose of the definition of "floating rate" in section 66 of the 
Act, the index shall be one that is made public at least weekly in a publication that has general circulation in Ontario. 

Maximum liability for unauthorized charges 

58. ( 1 ) This section applies to charges that are incurred without the authorization of the borrower under a credit agreement 
for a credit card when the credit card is used after having been lost or stolen. 

(2) For the purpose of section 69 of the Act, 

(a) the borrower is not liable for charges that are incurred after the borrower gives the lender oral or written notice of the 
loss or theft of the credit card; and 

(b) the maximum liability of the borrower for charges that are incurred before the borrower gives the lender oral or written 
notice of the loss or theft of the credit card is the lesser of, 

(i) $50; and 

(ij) the amount fixed or agreed to by the lender as the maximum amount for which the borrower will be liable in such 
cases. 

Transition, liability for cost of borrowing 

59. In applying section 70 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2002 to a credit agreement that was entered into before the day 
the section was proclaimed in force, a statement that was required to be furnished to the borrower in respect of the credit 
agreement under section 24 or 25 of the Consumer Protection Act before its repeal by the Consumer Protection Stattite Law 
Amendment Act, 2002 shall be deemed to be a statement required to be delivered to the borrower by Part VII of the Consumer 
Protection Act, 2002. i 

Refund or credit to borrower on prepayment 

60. (1) For the purpose of subsection 76 (2) of the Act, if a borrower prepays the full outstanding balance under a credit 
agreement for fixed credit, the lender shall refund to the borrower or credit the borrower with the portion, determined under 
subsection (2), of each charge that was paid by the borrower under the agreement or added to the balance under the 
agreement and that forms part of the cost of borrowing, other than a charge for interest. 

(2) For each charge, other than interest, that was paid by the borrower under the agreement or added to the balance under 
the agreement and that forms part of the cost of borrowing, the portion of the charge that is to be refunded or credited to the 
borrower is the amount determined using the formula, 

C X [(N - M) - N] 

in which, 

"C" is the amount of the charge, 

"N" is the length of the period between the time the charge was imposed and the scheduled end of the term of the credit 
agreement, and 

"M" is the length of the period between the time the charge was imposed and the time of the prepayment. 

(3) If a loan broker assists a consumer to obtain credit or a loan of money and the creditor is not in the business of 
extending credit or lending money, the obligation that subsection 76 (2) of the Act would impose on a lender shall, for the 
purpose of subsection 67 (2) of the Act, be deemed to be an obligation of the creditor and not the loan broker. 

Advertising 

61. (1) Any person who makes representations in respect of a credit agreement, or causes representations to be made in 
respect of a credit agreement, in an advertisement shall do so in accordance with this section, regardless of whether the 
representations are made orally, in writing or in any other form. 

(2) An advertisement that offers fixed credit and discloses the interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit 
agreement or the amount of a payment to be made by the borrower to the lender in connection with the credit agreement shall 
also disclose the following information: 

1 . The annual percentage rate for the credit agreement. 

2. The length of the term of the credit agreement. 

3. If the advertisement is for a supplier credit agreement and applies to a specifically identified good or service, 

i. the cash price of the good or service, and 

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464 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

ii. the cost of borrowing, unless, 

A. the only element of the cost of borrowing is interest, or 

B. the advertisement is broadcast on radio or television, displayed on a billboard or bus board or made through 
any other medium with similar time or space limitations. 

4. If the advertisement is for a supplier credit agreement, applies to a range of goods or services and uses a representative 
credit agreement, the cash price of the good or service represented in the representative credit agreement. 

(3) Subsection (2) applies even if the advertisement discloses that the interest rate payable by the borrower or the amount 
of a payment to be made by the borrower to the lender is zero. 

(4) The annual percentage rate referred to in paragraph 1 of subsection (2) shall be disclosed as prominently as the most 
prominently disclosed of, 

(a) the interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement; and 

(b) the amount of a payment to be made by the borrower to the lender in connection with the credit agreement. 

(5) If the advertisement applies to a range of credit agreements for fixed credit and the information required to be 
disclosed under paragraph 1 or 2 of subsection (2) would not be the same for all credit agreements to which the advertisement 
applies, the advertisement shall disclose that information for a representative credit agreement and shall state that the 
information is for a representative credit agreement. 

(6) An advertisement that offers open credit and that discloses the amount of any element of the cost of borrowing shall 
also disclose the following information: 

1 . The annual interest rate payable under the credit agreement at the time of the advertisement. 

2. The amount or, if the amount cannot be determined at the time of the disclosure, the manner of determining the 
amount, of each element of the cost of borrowing, other than interest, that a borrower is required to pay at the time the 
borrower enters into the agreement or on a periodic basis. 

(7) All disclosures with respect to an element of the cost of borrowing in an advertisement referred to in subsection (6) 
shall be of equal prominence. 

(8) In addition to any other information that it is required to disclose under this section, an advertisement stating or 
implying that no interest is payable for a definite or indefinite period under a credit agreement shall disclose the following 
information: 

1. Whether, 

i. the credit agreement is unconditionally interest-free during the period, or 
ii. interest accrues during the period but will be forgiven if certain conditions are met. 

2. In the situation described in subparagraph 1 ii, 

i. the conditions that are required to be met in order for the interest to be forgiven, 

ii. in the case of an advertisement for fixed credit, what the annual percentage rate for the credit agreement would be 
if the conditions for forgiveness of the interest were not met, and 

iii. in the case of an advertisement for open credit, what the annual interest rate for the period would be if the 
conditions for forgiveness of the interest were not met, assuming that the annual interest rate payable under the 
credit agreement at the time of the advertisement applied to the period. 

(9) In this section, 

"representative credit agreement", in relation to an advertisement, means an example of a credit agreement that fairly depicts 
the credit agreements to which the advertisement applies and is identified as a representative of those credit agreements. 

Disclosure, credit card applications 

62. (I) A credit card issuer shall disclose, in the credit card application form that the issuer requires borrowers to 
complete or in a document accompanying the credit card application form, 

(a) the following information: 

(i) the annual interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement, if it is not a floating rate, 

(ii) if the annual interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement is a floating rate, the public index to 
which the floating rate bears a mathematical relationship and a statement of the mathematical relationship, 

(iii) for each element of the cost of borrowing, other than interest, the nature of the element and, 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 465 

(A) the amount payable by the borrower, or 

(B) if the amount payable by the borrower cannot be determined at the time of the disclosure, the manner of 
determining the amount payable by the borrower, 

(iv) the details with respect to grace periods under the credit agreement, and 

(v) the date as of which the information disclosed under this clause is current; or 

(b) a telephone number at which the borrower can obtain the information described in subclauses (a) (i) to (iv) during 
ordinary business hours without incurring any charges for the telephone call. 

(2) If a borrower applies for a credit card by telephone, the credit card issuer shall disclose the information described in 
subclauses (1) (a) (i) to (iv) when the borrower makes the application. 

(3) A credit card issuer who solicits a borrower directly to apply for a credit card shall disclose the following information 
at the time of the solicitation, regardless of whether the solicitation is made in person, by mail, by telephone or by other 
means, including electronic means: 

1. The annual interest rate in effect under the credit agreement at the time of the solicitation. 

2. If the annual interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement is a floating rate, the public index to 
which the floating rate bears a mathematical relationship and a statement of the mathematical relationship. 

3. For each element of the cost of borrowing, other than interest, the nature of the element and, 

i. the amount payable by the borrower, or 

ii. if the amount payable by the borrower cannot be determined at the time of the solicitation, the manner of 
determining the amount payable by the borrower. 

4. The details with respect to grace periods under the credit agreement. 

initial disclosure statement, fixed credit agreement 

63. (1) The initial disclosure statement for a credit agreement for fixed credit shall be in writing and, for the purpose of 
subsection 79 (2) of the Act, shall disclose the following information, in addition to the information required under 
subsection 78 (1) of the Act: 

1 . The total of the advances to be made to the borrower. 

2. If more than one advance is to be made to the borrower, the nature, timing and amount of each advance. 

3. The length of the term of the credit agreement. 

4. The cost of borrowing. 

5. The length of the term of the amortization period, if different from the length of the term of the credit agreement. 

6. The interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement, if the rate will not change during the term of the 
credit agreement. 

7. If the interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement may change during the term of the credit 
agreement, 

i. the initial interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement, 

ii. the manner of determining the annual interest rate at any time during the term of the credit agreement, and 

iii. unless the amount of the scheduled payments is adjusted to account for changes in the interest rate, the lowest 
interest rate at which the scheduled payments would not cover the interest that would accrue between consecutive 
scheduled payments based on the initial outstanding balance. 

8. The date on which interest begins to accrue under the credit agreement. 

9. The circumstances under which interest is compounded under the credit agreement. 

10. For each element of the cost of borrowing, other than interest, the nature of the element and amount payable by the 
borrower. 

11. The details with respect to grace periods under the credit agreement. 

12. The annual percentage rate for the credit agreement. 

13. Subject to subsection (2), the optional services accepted by the borrower, the charge for each optional service, the 
borrower's right to terminate any optional service of a continuing nature and the manner of exercising that right. 

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14. The total of all payments the borrower is required to make in connection with the credit agreement and the timing and 
amount of each payment, including, without limitation, any down payment, trade-in allowance, balloon payment and 
final payment. 

15. If the credit agreement does not require the borrower to make scheduled payments, 

i. the circumstances under which the outstanding balance or a portion of it is required to be paid by the borrower, or 
ii. the provisions of the credit agreement that set out those circumstances. 

1 6. The method used to apply each payment by the borrower against the accumulated cost of borrowing and against the 
outstanding principal balance. 

1 7. The prepayment rights, charges and penalties that apply to the credit agreement. 

18. The method of calculating the amount that the lender is required to refund or credit to the borrower under subsection 
76 (2) of the Act and section 60 of this Regulation, if the borrower prepays the full outstanding balance under the 
credit agreement. 

19. The default charges under the credit agreement. 

20. If the borrower is giving a security interest in personal property to secure the borrower's indebtedness under the credit 
agreement, a description of the property that will be subject to the security interest. 

21. If the credit agreement requires the borrower to purchase insurance, 

i. that the borrower may purchase the insurance from any insurer who may lawfully provide that type of insurance 
and may purchase the insurance directly from the insurer or through an agent of the borrower's choice, and 

ii. if the credit agreement gives the lender the following right, that despite subparagraph i, the lender has the right to 
disapprove, on reasonable grounds, an insurer selected by the borrower. 

(2) The information referred to in paragraph 1 3 of subsection ( 1 ) need not be disclosed in the initial disclosure statement if 
it is disclosed in a separate statement delivered to the borrower before the optional services are provided to the borrower. 

(3) If the interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement may change during the term of the credit 
agreement, the information required under paragraphs 4 and 14 of subsection (1) shall be based on the initial interest rate 
disclosed under subparagraph 7 i of subsection ( 1 ). 

Initial disclosure statement, open credit agreement 

64. (1) The initial disclosure statement for a credit agreement for open credit shall be in writing and, for the purpose of 
subsection 79 (3) of the Act, shall disclose the following information, in addition to the information required under 
subsection 78 (1) of the Act: 

1. Subject to subsection (2), the initial credit limit. 

2. The annual interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement, if the rate will not change during the term 
of the credit agreement. 

3. If the annual interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement may change during the term of the credit 
agreement, 

i. the initial annual interest rate payable by the borrower under the credit agreement, and 

ii. the manner of determining the annual interest rate at any time during the term of the credit agreement. 

4. In the case of a credit agreement for a credit card, the manner in which interest is calculated. ' 

5. The date on which interest begins to accrue under the credit agreement. 

6. For each element of the cost of borrowing, other than interest, the nature of the element and, 

i. the amount payable by the borrower, or 

ii. if the amount payable by the borrower cannot be determined at the time of the disclosure, the manner of 
determining the amount payable by the borrower. 

7. The details with respect to grace periods under the credit agreement. 

8. Subject to subsection (3), the optional services accepted by the borrower, the charge for each optional service, the 
borrower's right to tenninate any optional service of a continuing nature and the manner of exercising that right. 

9. Each period for which a statement of account will be delivered to the borrower. 

10. The minimum payment or, if the minimum payment cannot be detennined at the time of the disclosure, the manner of 
determining the minimum payment, that the borrower is required to make for each period. 

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11. In the case of a credit agreement for a credit card, if the credit agreement requires the borrower to pay the outstanding 
balance in full on receiving a statement of account, 

i. that requirement, 

ii. the period after receipt of a statement of account within which the borrower is required to pay the outstanding 
balance in full in order to avoid being in default under the credit agreement, and 

iii. the annual interest rate charged on any outstanding balance that is not paid when due. 

12. The default charges under the credit agreement. 

13. In the case of a credit agreement for a credit card, the maximum liability of the borrower for charges that are incurred 
without the authorization of the borrower when the credit card is used after having been lost or stolen. 

14. A telephone number at which the borrower can make inquiries about the borrower's account during ordinary business 
hours without incurring any charges for the telephone call. 

15. If the borrower is giving a security interest in personal property to secure the borrower's indebtedness under the credit 
agreement, 

i. a description of the property that will be subject to the security interest, and 

ii. the amounts, determined as at the time the disclosure statement is delivered, that the borrower will be charged in 
respect of, 

A. the cost of professional services obtained for the purpose of confirming the value, condition, location or 
conformity to law of the property, 

B. the cost of insurance for the property, 

C. the cost of registering a financing statement or financing change statement in a public registry of security 
interests in personal property and the cost of searching or obtaining information from the registry, in 
relation to the security interest given by the borrower, and 

_ D. thecost of registering in the land titles or registry system a notice of security interest under clause 54 (1) (a) 

of the Personal Property Security Act, an extension notice under subsection 54 (3) of that Act or a 
certificate to discharge or partially discharge a notice of security interest under subsection 54 (4) of that 
Act, and the cost of searching or obtaining information from the system, in relation to the security interest 
given by the borrower. 

16. The amounts, determined as at the time the disclosure statement is delivered, that the borrower will be charged in 
connection with the credit agreement in respect of, 

i. the cost of searching vehicle records under the Highway Trajfic Act in order to confirm the ownership or vehicle 
identification number of a vehicle, and 

ii. the cost of obtaining a statement, or a certified copy of a statement, containing information from the vehicle 
records. 

1 7. If the credit agreement requires the borrower to purchase insurance, 

i. that the borrower may purchase the insurance from any insurer who may lawfully provide that type of insurance 
and may purchase the insurance directly from the insurer or through an agent of the borrower's choice, and 

ii. if the credit agreement gives the lender the following right, that despite subparagraph i, the lender has the right to 
disapprove, on reasonable grounds, an insurer selected by the borrower. 

(2) The initial credit limit referred to in paragraph 1 of subsection ( 1 ) need not be disclosed in the initial disclosure 
statement if it is disclosed in the first statement of account delivered under section 81 of the Act or in a separate statement 
delivered to the borrower on or before the day the first statement of account is delivered to the borrower. 

(3) The information referred to in paragraph 8 of subsection (1) need not be disclosed in the initial disclosure statement if 
it is disclosed in a separate statement delivered to the borrower before the optional services are provided to the borrower. 

(4) Any information referred to in subsection (1) that would be relevant to the borrower only if a particular consumer 
transaction occurred need not be disclosed in the initial disclosure statement if it is disclosed in a separate statement delivered 
to the borrower before the particular consumer transaction occurs. 

(5) "Cost" means, 

(a) in sub-subparagraphs 15 ii C and D of subsection (1), the fees paid for the registration, search or information and the 
service fees paid to an agent, if any; and 

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468 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(b) in subparagraphs 16 i and ii of subsection (1), the fees paid for the search or statement and the service fees paid to an 
agent, if any. 

Subsequent disclosure, Tixed credit agreement with floating rate 

65. A disclosure statement required to be delivered under subsection 80 (1) of the Act shall be in writing and shall disclose 
the following information: 

1 . The period covered by the disclosure statement. 

2. The annual interest rate at the beginning of the period covered by the disclosure statement and the annual interest rate 
at the end of that period. 

3. The outstanding balance at the beginning of the period covered by the disclosure statement and the outstanding 
balance at the end of that period. 

4. If the credit agreement requires the borrower to make scheduled payments, the timing and amount of each remaining 
payment and, if the credit agreement provides for the amount of the scheduled payments to be adjusted to account for 
changes in the interest rate and the annual interest rate is different at the end of the period covered by the disclosure 
statement than it was at the beginning of that period, the adjusted amount of the remaining payments based on the 
annual interest rate at the end of the period covered by the disclosure statement. 

Subsequent disclosure, flxed credit agreement with changeable rate 

66. A disclosure statement required to be delivered under subsection 80 (2) of the Act shall be in writing and shall disclose 
the following infomiation: 

1 . The new annual interest rate. 

2. The date the new annual interest rate takes effect. 

3. How the change in the annual interest rate affects the timing or amount of any payment the borrower is required to 
make under the credit agreement. 

Transition, open credit subsequent disclosure 

67. In applying subsection 81 (1) of the Act to a credit agreement for open credit that was entered into before the day the 
subsection was proclaimed in force, the monthly period begins to run on the day the subsection was proclaimed in force. 

Statement of account, open credit agreement 

68. ( 1 ) A Statement of account for a credit agreement for open credit shall be in writing and, for the purpose of subsection 
81 (4) of the Act, shall disclose the following information: 

1 . The period covered by the statement of account. 

2. The outstanding balance at the beginning of the period covered by the statement of account. 

3. For each charge added to the outstanding balance during the period covered by the statement of account, 

i. a description of the consumer transaction that resulted in the charge, 
ii. the amount of the charge, and 
iii. the date the charge was posted. 

4. For each payment or credit subtracted from the outstanding balance during the period covered by the statement of 
account, 

i. the amount of the payment or credit, and 

ii. the date the payment or credit was posted. 

5. The annual interest rates in effect during the period covered by the statement of account and the part of that period 
during which each interest rate was in effect. 

6. The total amount of interest charged to the borrower during the period covered by the statement of account. 

7. The total amount added to the outstanding balance during the period covered by the statement of account. 

8. The total amount subtracted from the outstanding balance during the period covered by the statement of account. 

9. The outstanding balance at the end of the period covered by the statement of account. 

10. The credit limit. 

1 1 . The minimum payment due by the borrower. 

1 2. The date on which payment by the borrower is due. 

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13. The conditions that the borrower is required to satisfy in order to take advantage of a grace period under the credit 
agreement. 

14. The rights and obligations of the borrower with respect to the correction of billing errors. 

15. A telephone number at which the borrower can make inquiries about the borrower's account during ordinary business 
hours without incurring any charges for the telephone call. 

(2) For the purpose of subparagraph 3 i of subsection (1), a description of a consumer transaction shall be considered to be 
sufficient if the description, along with the transaction record included with the statement of account or made available to the 
borrower at the time of the transaction, can reasonably be expected to enable the borrower to verify the transaction. 

Material and non-material changes 

69. (1) For the purpose of clause 81 (7) (a) of the Act, the following are not material changes: 

1 . A change in the credit limit. 

2. A decrease in the annual interest rate payable by the borrower. 

3. A change in the manner of determining the annual interest rate payable by the borrower, if the change can result only 
in a decrease in the annual interest rate payable by the borrower. 

4. A decrease in the amount payable by the borrower for an element of the cost of borrowing, other than interest. 

5. A change in the manner of determining an amount payable by the borrower for an element of the cost of borrowing, 
other than interest, if the change can result only in a decrease in the amount payable by the borrower. 

6. A decrease in any other charge payable by the borrower that is referred to in subsection 64 (1). 

7. An increase in the length of a grace period. 

(2) For the purpose of clause 81 (7) (b) of the Act, a change in any of the matters prescribed under subsection 79 (3) of the 
Act, other than a change mentioned in subsection (1) of this section, is a material change. 

Disclosures under Part VII of the Act, general 

70. (1) A disclosure statement under Part VII of the Act may be a separate document or part of another document. 

(2) Subject to subsections 55 (3) to (8), a disclosure made under Part VII of the Act may be based on an estimate or 
assumption if, 

(a) the information is not ascertainable at the time the disclosure is made; 

(b) the estimate or assumption is reasonable; and 

(c) the estimate or assumption is clearly identified as an estimate or assumption. 

(3) If a disclosure made under Part VII of the Act discloses a monetary amount that is not in Canadian currency, it shall 
disclose the currency in which the amount is expressed. 

Exemptions from Part VII 

71. (1) Subsection 67 (2) of the Act does not apply if all of the assistance by the loan broker occurred before the day the 
subsection was proclaimed in force. 

(2) Section 68 of the Act does not apply if the credit card was first used before the day the section was proclaimed in 
force. 

(3) Although section 69 of the Act applies regardless of whether the credit agreement for the credit card has been entered 
into before or is entered into after the section is proclaimed in force, the section does not apply to unauthorized charges that 
were incurred before the section was proclaimed in force. 

(4) Section 75 of the Act does not apply to, 

(a) a credit agreement for open credit that was entered into before the day the section was proclaimed in force; 

(b) a credit agreement for fixed credit that was entered into before the day the section was proclaimed in force, unless the 
credit agreement is amended, extended or renewed on or after that day; 

(c) default charges that were imposed before the day the section was proclaimed in force. 

(5) If a credit agreement was entered into before the day section 76 of the Act was proclaimed in force, section 76 of the 
Act does not apply to the credit agreement and section 28 of the Consumer Protection Act, as it read immediately before its 
repeal by the Consumer Protection Statute Law Amendment Act, 2002, continues to apply to the credit agreement. 

(6) Subsection 78 (2) of the Act does not apply if the loan broker took the application from the borrower and sent it to a 
lender before the day the subsection was proclaimed in force. 

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470 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(7) Subsection 80 (I) of Ihe Act does not apply to a credit agreement for fixed credit that was entered into before the day 
the subsection was proclaimed in force, unless the credit agreement is amended, extended or renewed on or after that day and, 
in that case, the 1 2-month period begins to run on the day the agreement is amended, extended or renewed. 

(8) Subsection 80 (2) of the Act does not apply to a credit agreement for fixed credit that was entered into before the day 
the subsection was proclaimed in force, unless, 

(a) the credit agreement is amended, extended or renewed on or after that day; and 

(b) the lender's increase of the annual interest rate occurs on or after that day. 

(9) Subsections 80 (3) and (4) of the Act do not apply to a credit agreement for fixed credit that was entered into before 
the day subsection 80 (3) of the Act was proclaimed in force, unless, 

(a) the credit agreement is amended, extended or renewed on or after that day; and 

(b) the point when the amount of the borrower's scheduled payments required by the agreement is no longer sufficient to 
cover the interest accrued under the agreement occurs on or after that day. 

(10) Subsection 80 (5) of the Act does not apply to a credit agreement for fixed credit that was entered into before the day 
the subsection was proclaimed in force, unless the amendment referred to in the subsection is made on or after that day. 

(11) Subsection 81 (5) of the Act does not apply to a credit agreement for open credit that was entered into before the day 
the subsection was proclaimed in force, unless the change referred to in the subsection occurs on or after that day. 

(12) In the case of a credit agreement for a credit card where the interest rate is not a floating rate, if the lender decreases 
the interest rate under the agreement pursuant to the agreement, the lender, 

(a) is exempt from the requirement in subsection 81 (5) of the Act to deliver a disclosure statement disclosing the decrease 
to the borrower at least 30 days before the decrease; and 

(b) shall deliver a disclosure statement disclosing the decrease to the borrower in the next statement of account. 

(13) Subsection 81 (6) of the Act does not apply to a credit agreement for open credit that was entered into before the day 
the subsection was proclaimed in force, unless the amendment referred to in the subsection is made on or after that day. 

(14) Subsection 81 (7) of the Act does not apply to a credit agreement for a credit card that was entered into before the day 
the subsection was proclaimed in force, unless the amendment referred to in the subsection is made on or after that day. 

PART VIII 
LEASING — PART VIII OF THE ACT 

interpretation 

72. (I) In this Part, 

"advance", to a lessee in connection with a lease, includes, 

(a) the amount of a pre-existing monetary obligation of the lessee that the lessor pays, discharges or consolidates in 
connection with the lease, whether or not the pre-existing monetary obligation is itself connected to the lease, and 

(b) the expense incurred by the lessor in paying all or any part of the following in connection with the lease, if the lessee is 
required to repay the expense: 

(i) the cost of insurance for the leased goods, if the lessee is the beneficiary of the insurance and the insured amount 
is the full insurable value of the leased goods, 

(ii) the cost of searching vehicle records under the Highway Traffic Act in order to confinn the ownership or vehicle 
identification number of a vehicle and the cost of obtaining a statement, or a certified copy of a statement, 
containing information from the vehicle records, 

(iii) the cost of registering a financing statement or financing change statement in a public registry of security interests 
in personal property, and the cost of searching or obtaining information from the registry, in relation to the leased 
goods, 

(iv) the cost of registering in the land titles or registry system a notice of security interest under clause 54 (1) (a) of 
the Personal Property Security Act, an extension notice under subsection 54 (3) of that Act or a certificate to 
discharge or partially discharge a notice of security interest under subsection 54 (4) of that Act, and the cost of 
searching or obtaining information from the system, in relation to the leased goods; ("avance") 

"annual percentage rate", in relation to a lease, means the amount determined using the formula, 

(Mxl)xioo 

in which, 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE /LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 471 

"M" is the number of payment periods in a year under the lease, and 
"1" is the periodic interest rate, as determined under this section; ("taux de crédit") 
"assumed residual payment" means, 

(a) in the case of a lease that is neither an option lease nor a residual obligation lease, the sum of the estimated residual 
value of the leased goods and the payment, if any, that the lessee is required to make in the ordinary course of events at 
the end of the lease term, 

(b) in the case of an option lease, the lesser of, 

(i) the sum of the estimated residual value of the leased goods and the payment, if any, that the lessee is required to 
make in the ordinary course of events at the end of the lease term, and 

(ii) the additional payment that the lessee is required to make in order to exercise the option at the end of the lease 
term, 

(c) in the case of a residual obligation lease, the sum of, 

(i) the amount that the lessee is required to pay to the lessor at the end of the lease term if the realizable value of the 
leased goods at the end of the lease term equals the estimated residual value of the lease goods, and 

(ii) the estimated residual value of the leased goods; ("versement résiduel présumé") 

"capitalized amount" means the amount determined by, 

(a) adding, 

(i) the lease value of the leased goods, and 

(ii) the sum of the advances to be made to the lessee in connection with the lease before or at the beginning of the 
lease term, and 

(b) subtracting, from the amount determined under clause (a), the sum of the payments to be made by the lessee in 
connection with the lease before or at the beginning of the lease term, excluding, 

(i) payments that the lease expressly requires the lessor to hold as security for any of the obligations of the lessee to 
the lessor, and 

(ii) periodic payments under the lease; ("somme capitalisée") 

"estimated residual value", in relation to leased goods, means the lessor's reasonable estimate of the wholesale value of the 
leased goods at the end of the lease term; ("valeur résiduelle estimative") 

"implicit finance charge", in relation to a lease, means the amount determined by, 

(a) adding, 

(i) the sum of all non-refundable payments to be made by the lessee under the lease, excluding, 

(A) charges for optional services accepted by the lessee, 

(B) termination charges and penalties, and 

(C) taxes in connection with the lease, and 
(ii) the assumed residual payment, and 

(b) subtracting the capitalized amount from the amount determined under clause (a); ("frais financiers implicites") 
"lease value of the leased goods" means, 

(a) for the purposes of a disclosure statement for a lease, 

(i) if the lessor sells such goods to cash consumers in the ordinary course of business, the lesser of, 

(A) an amount that fairly represents the price at which the lessor sells such goods to cash consumers in the 
ordinary course of business, and 

(B) the price agreed to by the lessor and the lessee in the lease, or 

(ii) if the lessor does not sell such goods to cash consumers in the ordinary course of business, a reasonable estimate 
of the retail price of the goods, or 

(b) for the purposes of an advertisement for a lease, 

(i) if the lessor sells such goods to cash consumers in the ordinary course of business, an amount that fairly 
represents the price at which the lessor sells such goods to cash consumers in the ordinary course of business, or 

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472 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(ii) if the lessor does not sell such goods to cash consumers in the ordinary course of business, a reasonable estimate 
of the retail price of the goods; ("valeur de location des marchandises louées") 

"option lease" means a lease that gives the lessee the option of acquiring title to the leased goods by making a payment in 
addition to the periodic payments required under the lease; ("bail avec option") 

"periodic interest rate" means the value of "I" in the equation, ,. 

PMT = (PV - FV(1+ !)'■') - [((1 - (1 + I)'^-^') - 1) + A] 

in which, 

11 
"PMT" is the amount of each periodic payment under the lease, 

"A" is the number of periodic payments to be made under the lease before or at the beginning of the lease term, 

"PV" is the capitalized amount, 

"FV" is the assumed residual payment, and 

"N" is the number of payment periods under the lease; ("taux d'intérêt périodique") 

"total lease cost" means the total of the payments that are required to be made by the lessee in connection with the lease in 
the ordinary course of events, excluding payments that the lease expressly requires the lessor to hold as security for any of 
the obligations of the lessee to the lessor, ("coût total du bail") 

(2) In calculating the annual percentage rate for a lease, a year shall be considered to have 365 days, despite the defmition 
of "year" in section I of the Act. 

(3) If a lease provides for payments to be made at intervals measured by reference to weeks or months, the annual 
percentage rate for the lease may be calculated on the assumption that each week is 1/52 of a year long and each month is 
1/12 of a year long. 

(4) In subsections (2) and (3), the references to the calculation of the annual percentage rate include the calculation of any 
amount that is required to be calculated in order to calculate the annual percentage rate. 

(5) "Cost" in the definition of "advance" in subsection (I) means, 

(a) in subclause (b) (ii) of the definition, the fees paid for the search or statement and the service fees paid to an agent, if 

any; and 

(b) in subclauses (b) (iii) and (iv) of the definition, the fees paid for the registration, search or information and the service 
fees paid to an agent, if any. 

(6) In subsection (I), for the purposes of the definitions of "assumed residual payment", "estimated residual value" and 
"total lease cost" and for the purposes of subclause (a) (i) of the definition of "implicit finance charge" and "N" in the 
definition of "periodic interest rate", 

(a) if the lease term is indefinite, the lease term shall be considered to be one year long; and 

(b) if the lease tenu is the length of the useful life of the leased goods, the lease term shall be considered to be a 
reasonable estimate of the length of the useful life of the leased goods, and the same estimated length shall be used for 
the purpose of all of those definitions with respect to the same lease. 

(7) An amount payable by the lessee, before or at the beginning of the lease term, in respect of a tax in connection with the 
lease shall be excluded from the sum of the payments to be made by the lessee, calculated under clause (b) of the definition 
of "capitalized amount" in subsection (1), if it was not included in the sum of the advances to be made to the lessee, 
calculated under subclause (a) (ii) of that definition. 

(8) If a lease provides for the servicing of the leased goods and the lessee did not have the option of excluding the 
servicing provisions from the lease, a reference to the goods shall be interpreted as a reference to the goods and the servicing 
of the goods in, 

(a) the expressions "estimated residual value of the leased goods", "lease value of the leased goods" and "realizable value 
of the leased goods" in this Part; and 

(b) the definitions of "estimated residual value" and "lease value of the leased goods" in subsection (I ). 

(9) If there is any irregularity in the amount or timing of payments required during the lease term, the equation in the 
definition of "periodic interest rate" in subsection (I) shall be modified as necessary to calculate the value of "1" in 
accordance with actuarial principles. 

(10) A disclosure of an annual percentage rate for a lease shall be considered to be accurate if it is within one-eighth of 
one per cent of the annual percentage rate calculated in accordance with this section. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 473 



Advertising 

73. ( 1 ) This section prescribes, for the purpose of section 88 of the Act, the requirements with which a person shall 
comply in making representations about the cost of a lease, or causing representations to be made about the cost of a lease, in 
an advertisement. 

(2) An advertisement described in subsection (1), other than an advertisement to which subsection (3) applies, shall 
disclose the following information: 

1. That the consumer agreement is a lease. 

2. The length of the lease term or that the lease term is indefinite. 

3. The amount of each payment to be made by the lessee in connection with the lease before or at the beginning of the 
lease term, other than a periodic payment. 

4. The timing of the periodic payments to be made by the lessee under the lease and the amount of each payment. 

5. For every other payment that the lessee is required to make in connection with the lease in the ordinary course of 
events, the amount or, if the amount cannot be determined at the time of the disclosure, the manner of determining the 
amount, of the payment. 

6. For a motor vehicle lease with an allowance of less than 20,000 kilometres a year, the amount or, if the amount cannot 
be determined at the time of the disclosure, the manner of determining the amount, that the lessee will be charged for 
exceeding the kilometre allowance. 

7. The annual percentage rate for the lease. 

8. The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

(3) An advertisement described in subsection (1) that is broadcast on radio or television, displayed on a billboard or bus 
board or made through any other medium with similar time or space limitations shall disclose the information referred to in 
paragraphs 1 , 3, 4 and 8 of subsection (2) and shall, 

(a) disclose the information referred to in paragraphs 2 and 7 of subsection (2); 

(b) disclose a telephone number that can be called to obtain the information referred to in paragraphs 2 and 7 of subsection 
(2), without incurring any charge for the call; or 

(c) refer to an advertisement that contains the information referred to in paragraphs 2 and 7 of subsection (2) and that is 
published in a publication having general circulation in the area of the radio or television broadcast, the area of the 
billboard or bus board display or the area covered by the other medium, as the case may be. 

(4) When the annual percentage rate for a lease is disclosed under subsection (2) or (3), it shall be disclosed as 
prominently as the most prominently disclosed amount of a payment that forms part of the total lease cost. 

(5) If the advertisement applies to a range of leases and any of the information required to be disclosed under this section 
would not be the same for all leases to which the advertisement applies, the advertisement shall disclose that information for 
a representative lease and shall state that the information is for a representative lease. 

(6) In this section, 

"representative lease", in relation to an advertisement, means an example of a lease that fairly depicts the leases to which the 
advertisement applies and is identified as a representative of those leases. 

Disclosure statement for a lease 

74. (1) A disclosure statement for a lease shall be in writing and may be a separate document or part of another document. 

(2) For the purpose of subsection 89 (2) of the Act, a disclosure statement for a lease shall disclose the following 
information: 

1 . That the consumer agreement is a lease. 

2. The length of the lease term or that the lease term is indefinite. 

3. A fair and accurate description of the leased goods. 

4. The lease value of the leased goods. 

5. The nature and amount of each advance to be made to the lessee in connection with the lease before or at the beginning 
of the lease term, including, without limitation, an advance for an expense to be incurred by the lessee in connection 
with the lease before or at the beginning of the lease term, even if the expense is not payable until after the beginning 
of the lease term. 

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474 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

6. The nature and amount of each payment to be made by the lessee in connection with the lease before or at the 
beginning of the lease term, other than a periodic payment. 

7. The timing and number of the periodic payments to be made by the lessee under the lease and the amount of each 
payment. 

8. The capitalized amount. 

9. The estimated residual value of the leased goods. 

10. In the case of an option lease, 

i. when and how the option may be exercised, 

ii. the amount of the additional payment that the lessee is required to make in order to exercise the option at the end 
of the lease term, and 

iii. the manner of determining the amount of the additional payment that the lessee is required to make in order to 
exercise the option before the end of the lease term. 

11. In the case of a residual obligation lease, 

i. the amount that the lessee is required to pay to the lessor under the lease at the end of the lease term if the 
realizable value of the leased goods at the end of the lease term equals the estimated residual value of the lease 
goods, and 

ii. a statement that the lessee's maximum liability at the end of the lease term is the sum of, 

A. the amount that the lessee is required to pay to the lessor under the lease at the end of the lease term if the 
realizable value of the leased goods at the end of the lease term equals the estimated residual value of the 
leased goods, and 

B. the difference, if any, between the estimated residual value of the leased goods and the realizable value of 
the leased goods at the end of the lease term. 

12. The circumstances, if any, in which the lessor may terminate the lease before the end of the lease term. 

13. The circumstances, if any, in which the lessee may terminate the lease before the end of the lease term. 

14. The amount or, if the amount cannot be determined at the time of the disclosure, the manner of determining the 
amount, of the payments, if any, that the lessee is required to make on early termination of the lease. 

15. The circumstances, if any, in which the lessee is required to make a payment in connection with the lease that is not 
disclosed under the preceding paragraphs and the amount or, if the amount cannot be determined at the time of the 
disclosure, the manner of determining the amount, of the payment. 

1 6. The implicit finance charge for the lease. 

1 7. The annual percentage rate for the lease. 

18. The total lease cost. 

1 9. The currency in which amounts are expressed, if it is not Canadian currency. 

(3) The circumstances referred to in paragraph 15 of subsection (2) include, without limitation, unreasonable or excessive 
wear or use. 

Consequence of non-disclosure 

75. A lessee is not liable to pay the lessor, 

(a) the implicit finance charge for the lease, if the lessee does not receive a disclosure statement for the lease as required 
under subsection 89 ( 1 ) of the Act; or 

(b) any amount in excess of the amount specified as the implicit finance charge for the lease in the disclosure statement 
received by the lessee. 

Maximum liability under residual obligation lease 

76. (1) For the purpose of subsection 90 (2) of the Act, the maximum liability of the lessee at the end of the lease term of 
a residual obligation lease, after returning the leased goods to the lessor, is the amount determined using the formula, 

P + (V - R) 
in which, 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 475 



"P" is the amount that the lessee is required to pay to the lessor under the lease at the end of the lease term if the realizable 
value of the leased goods at the end of the lease term equals the estimated residual value of the lease goods, 

"V" is the estimated residual value of the leased goods, and 

"R" is the realizable value of the leased goods at the end of the lease term, as determined under subsections (2), (3) and (4). 

(2) Subject to subsections (3) and (4), the realizable value of leased goods at the end of the lease term is the greatest of, 

(a) the price, exclusive of taxes, at which the lessor disposes of the leased goods; 

(b) 80 per cent of the estimated residual value of the leased goods; and 

(c) the amount determined by subtracting, from the estimated residual value of the leased goods, the product obtained by 
multiplying the average monthly payment under the lease by three. 

(3) If the amount determined under clause (2) (b) is the greatest of the three amounts, the realizable value of leased goods 
at the end of the lease term is the amount obtained by subtracting, from the amount determined under clause (2) (b), that part 
of the difference between the amount determined under clause (2) (b) and the amount determined under clause (2) (a) that is 
attributable to unreasonable or excessive wear or use of the leased goods or to damage to the leased goods for which the 
lessee is responsible under the lease. 

(4) If the amount determined under clause (2) (c) is the greatest of the three amounts, the realizable value of leased goods 
at the end of the lease term is the amount obtained by subtracting, from the amount determined under clause (2) (c), that part 
of the difference between the amount determined under clause (2) (c) and the amount determined under clause (2) (a) that is 
attributable to unreasonable or excessive wear or use of the leased goods or to damage to the leased goods for which the 
lessee is responsible under the lease. 

(5) Subsection 90 (2) of the Act does not apply to a lease that was entered into before the day the subsection was 
proclaimed in force. 

Exemption from Part VIII 

77. A lease is exempt from the application of Part VIII of the Act, 

(a) if the leased goods are required in order for the lessor to provide a service to the lessee; or 

(b) if the periodic payments required under the lease may change during the lease term in such a way that it is not possible 
to determine, at the time the lessee enters into the lease, the amount of every periodic payment required under the lease 
or if, for any other reason, it is not possible to determine, at the time the lessee enters into the lease, the amount of 
every periodic payment required under the lease. 

PART IX 
PROCEDURES FOR CONSUMER REMEDIES — PART IX OF THE ACT 

Definitions 

78. In this Part, 
"consumer's address" means, 

(a) subject to clause (b), the address of the consumer that is set out in the consumer agreement or, if the address of the 
consumer is not set out in the consumer agreement, the place where the consumer resided at the time the consumer 
agreement was entered into, 

(b) if the supplier knows that the address of the consumer that would be required under clause (a) has changed and knows 
the consumer's current address, the consumer's current address; ("adresse du consommateur") 

"supplier's address" means the address of the supplier that is set out in the consumer agreement or, if the address of the 
supplier is not set out in the consumer agreement or the consumer did not receive a written copy of the consumer 
agreement, 

(a) any address of the supplier on record with the Government of Ontario or the Government of Canada, or 

(b) an address of the supplier known by the consumer, ("adresse du fournisseur") 
Supplier obligations on cancellation 

79. (1) A supplier who is required to comply with subsection 96 (1) of the Act shall do so within 15 days after the day the 
consumer gives notice to the supplier in accordance with section 92 of the Act that the consumer is cancelling the consumer 
agreement. 

(2) A supplier who is required to return goods to a consumer under clause 96 (1) (b) of the Act shall return the goods to 
the consumer's address. 

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476 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Consumer obligations on cancellation of certain agreements 

80. { 1 ) This section applies with respect to subsection 96 (2) of the Act, if the consumer agreement that has been 
cancelled is one of the following: 

1 . A direct agreement to which sections 42 and 43 of the Act apply. 

2. A time share agreement. 

3. A personal development services agreement to which sections 30 to 36 of the Act apply. 

4. A consumer agreement to which section 49 of the Act applies. 

(2) A consumer who receives from the supplier a written request for repossession of the goods shall, 

(a) give the supplier, or a person designated by the supplier in writing, a reasonable opportunity to repossess the goods at 
the consumer's address; or 

(b) return the goods to the supplier's address. 

(3) In the case of goods that are created, recorded, transmitted or stored in digital form or in other intangible form by 
electronic, magnetic or optical means or by any other means that has capabilities for creation, recording, transmission or 
storage similar to those means, a consumer who receives from the supplier a written direction to destroy the goods shall 
destroy the goods in accordance with such instructions as may be set out in the direction. 

(4) The consumer shall comply with subsection (2) or (3), as the case may be, 

(a) forthwith after the supplier complies with subsection 96 ( 1 ) of the Act; or 

(b) forthwith after receiving the written request for repossession of the goods mentioned in subsection (2) or the written 
direction to destroy the goods mentioned in subsection (3), as the case may be, if subsection 96 (1) of the Act does not 
apply because the consumer has not made any payment under the agreement or a related agreement and has not 
delivered any goods to the supplier under a trade-in arrangement. 

(5) A consumer who has not received a written request for repossession of the goods under subsection (2) or a written 
direction to destroy the goods under subsection (3) may return the goods to the supplier's address. 

(6) The supplier shall be deemed to consent to a return of goods under clause (2) (b) or subsection (5) and is responsible 
for the reasonable cost of returning the goods. 

Consumer obligations on cancellation of other agreements 

81. (1) This section applies with respect to subsection 96 (2) of the Act, if the consumer agreement that has been 
cancelled is one of the following: 

1 . An internet agreement to which sections 38 to 40 of the Act apply. 

2. A remote agreement to which sections 45 to 47 of the Act apply. 

3. A future performance agreement to which sections 22 to 26 of the Act apply. 

(2) A consumer who has not received a written direction to destroy the goods under subsection (5) shall return the goods 
to the supplier's address, by any method that provides the consumer with confirmation of delivery, and shall do so within 15 
days after the later of, 

(a) the day the consumer gives notice to the supplier in accordance with section 92 of the Act that the consumer is 
cancelhng the consumer agreement; and 

(b) the day the goods come into the consumer's possession. 

(3) Goods that are returned under subsection (2) other than by personal delivery shall be deemed to have been returned 
when sent by the consumer to the supplier. 

(4) The supplier shall be deemed to consent to a return of goods under subsection (2) and is responsible for the reasonable 
cost of returning the goods. 

(5) In the case of goods that are created, recorded, transmitted or stored in digital fonn or in other intangible form by 
electronic, magnetic or optical means or by any other means that has capabilities for creation, recording, transmission or 
storage similar to those means, a consumer who receives from the supplier a written direction to destroy the goods shall 
destroy the goods forthwith in accordance with such instructions as may be set out in the direction. 

Period of reasonable care 

82. For the purpose of subsection 96 (3) of the Act, the period for which a consumer who cancels a consumer agreement 
shall take reasonable care of the goods that came into the possession of the consumer under the agreement or a related 
agreement begins when the consumer gives notice to the supplier in accordance with section 92 of the Act that the consumer 
is cancelling the consumer agreement and ends at the earliest of the following: 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 477 

1. The time the goods are destroyed under subsection 80 (3) or 81 (5). 

2. The time the goods are returned under clause 80 (2) (b) or subsection 80 (5) or 8 1 (2). 

3. The time the goods are repossessed, in the case of a consumer agreement to which section 80 applies. 

4. The end of the 2 1 st day after the day the consumer gives notice to the supplier in accordance with section 92 of the Act 
that the consumer is cancelling the consumer agreement if, in the case of a consumer agreement to which section 80 
applies, 

i. the consumer has received from the supplier a written request for repossession of the goods, has provided the 
reasonable opportunity to repossess required by clause 80 (2) (a), and the goods have not been repossessed, or 

ii. the consumer has not received from the supplier a written request for repossession of the goods. 

Limitations on cancellation of direct agreement 

83. ( 1 ) This section applies upon the cancellation by a consumer of a direct agreement under section 43 of the Act, if the 
consumer, 

(a) solicited the goods or services from the supplier; and 

(b) requested that, within 10 days after the day the direct agreement is entered into, the supplier make delivery or 
commence performance under the direct agreement. 

(2) In the circumstances described in subsection (I), the supplier is entitled to reasonable compensation for, 

(a) goods, ' 

(i) that were received by the consumer under the direct agreement before the earlier of, 

(A) the 1 1th day after the day the direct agreement was entered into, and 

(B) the time the consumer gives notice to the supplier in accordance with section 92 of the Act that the 
consumer is cancelling the direct agreement, and 

(ii) that cannot be repossessed by or returned to the supplier because they, 

(A) have been used up, 

(B) have perished, or 

(C) have become such an integral part of other property that it would be impractical to remove them from the 
other property; and 

(b) services that were received by the consumer under the direct agreement before the earlier of, 

(i) the 1 1 th day after the day the direct agreement was entered into, and 

(ii) the time the consumer gives notice to the supplier in accordance with section 92 of the Act that the consumer is 
cancelling the direct agreement. 

(3) If a supplier is entitled to reasonable compensation under this section with respect to goods described in sub-subclause 
(2) (a) (ii) (C) or with respect to services, the obligations owed to the consumer by any person with respect to those goods or 
services, under the direct agreement, under a related agreement or at law, continue despite the cancellation of the direct 
agreement and the related agreement. 

(4) A supplier who is entitled to reasonable compensation under this section may, 

(a) deduct the amount of the reasonable compensation to which the supplier is entitled from the refund, if any, that the 
supplier is required to give the consumer under clause 96 (I) (a) of the Act; 

(b) recover the amount of the reasonable compensation to which the supplier is entitled from the consumer; or 

(c) deduct part of the amount of the reasonable compensation to which the supplier is entitled from the refund, if any, that 
the supplier is required to give the consumer under clause 96 (I) (a) of the Act and recover the balance from the 
consumer. 

(5) This section applies pursuant to subsection 20 (2) of the Act. 
Time for refund of illegal payment 

84. For the purposes of subsections 98 (2) and (4) of the Act, the refund shall be provided within 15 days after the day the 
consumer demands it under subsection 98 (1) of the Act. 

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478 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

Cancellation or reversal of credit card charges, etc. 

85. (1) For the purpose of subsection 99 (4) of the Act, a request by a consumer under subsection 99 (1) of the Act shall 
be given to the credit card issuer within 60 days after the end of the period within which the supplier was required under the 
Act to refund the payment. 

(2) For the purpose of subsection 92 (2) of the Act, a request by a consumer to a credit card issuer under subsection 99 (1) 
of the Act shall be signed by the consumer and shall set out the following information: 

1 . The name of the consumer. 

2. The number of the consumer's credit card account. 

3. The expiry date set out on the consumer's credit card. 

4. The name of the supplier who was required to make the refund. 

5. If known, the date of the consumer agreement, if any, between the consumer and the supplier. 

6. Each charge to the consumer's credit card account that the consumer is requesting the credit card issuer to cancel or 
reverse, including, 

i. the amount of the charge, 

ii. the date the charge was posted, and , 

iii. a description of the consumer transaction that resulted in the charge. ^ 

7. If the charge to be cancelled or reversed relates to a payment in respect of a consumer agreement that has been 
cancelled under the Act, 

i. a statement to that effect, 

ii. the date the agreement was cancelled, and 

iii. the method used by the consumer to give the supplier notice of cancellation. 

8. If the charge to be cancelled or reversed relates to a payment that was received in contravention of the Act, 

i. a statement to that effect, 

ii. the date the consumer demanded the refund, and 
iii. the method used by the consumer to give the supplier notice demanding the refund. 

9. If the charge to be cancelled or reversed relates to a payment that was collected in respect of unsolicited goods or 
services for which payment is not required under section 13 of the Act, 

i. a statement to that effect, 

ii. the date the consumer demanded the refund, and 

iii. the method used by the consumer to give the supplier notice demanding the refund. 

(3) For the purpose of clause 99 (5) (a) of the Act, the credit card issuer shall acknowledge the consumer's request within 
30 days after the day the consumer's request is given to the credit card issuer in accordance with section 92 of the Act. 

(4) For the purpose of clause 99 (5) (b) of the Act, the prescribed period begins when the consumer's request is given to 
the credit card issuer in accordance with section 92 of the Act and ends on the date of the second statement of account that 
the credit card issuer delivers to the consumer after the consumer's request was given to the credit card issuer. 

PARTX 
PUBLIC RECORD — SLBSECTION 103 (2) OF THE ACT 

Requirements for maintenance of public record 

86. The following requirements for the maintenance of the public record are prescribed for the purpose of subsection 103 
(2) of the Act: 

1. The Director shall make the material described in paragraphs 1 to 4 of subsection 103 (2) of the Act available to the 
public, from time to time, 

i. by posting it on a Government of Ontario website, 

ii. by orally disclosing it to telephone callers who request it, and 

iii. in printed form. 

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2. The Director shall ensure that the material remains available to the public, as described in subparagraphs 1 i, ii and iii, 
for a period of at least 21 months and not more than 27 months. 

Orders made 

87. Orders made under sections 110, 1 1 1, 112, 115 and 119 of the Act are prescribed for the purpose of paragraph 4 of 
subsection 103 (2) of the Act. 

Charges laid 

88. For the purpose of paragraph 4 of subsection 103 (2) of the Act, the following information is prescribed in respect of 
each person against whom a charge is laid, on or after the day this section comes into force, under section 1 1 6 of the Act or 
under the Athletics Control Act, the Bailiffs Act, the Cemeteries Act (Revised), the Collection Agencies Act, the Consumer 
Reporting Act or the Theatres Act: 

1 . The name of the person against whom the charge was laid, as known to the Ministry. 

2. Any business names used by the person, as known to the Ministry. 

3. The person's business address, business telephone number, business fax number and business e-mail address, if known 
to the Ministry. 

4. With respect to each charge laid against the person, 

i. the Act under which the charge was laid and a description of the charge, 
ii. the date on which the charge was laid, and 

iii. the final disposition of the charge, including details of the sentence, if any. 
Actions talten 

89. For the purpose of paragraph 4 of subsection 103 (2) of the Act, the following information is prescribed in respect of 
each person who is required to hold a permit or to be appointed, licensed or registered under the Athletics Control Act, the 
Bailiffs Act, the Cemeteries Act (Revised), the Collection Agencies Act, the Consumer Reporting Act or the Theatres Act and 
against whom action, other than laying a charge, has been taken under that Act on or after the day this section comes into 
force: 

1. The name of the person against whom the action was taken, as known to the Ministry. 

2. Any business names used by the person, as known to the Ministry. 

3. The person's business address, business telephone number, business fax number and business e-mail address, if known 
to the Ministry. 

4. With respect to each action taken against the person, 

i. the Act under which the action was taken and a description of the action taken, 

ii. the ground for taking the action, 

iii. the date on which the action was taken, and 

iv. the final result of the action, including the revocation or suspension of an appointment, a licence or a registration, 
if any. 

Complaints received 

90. (1) If all of the conditions set out in subsection (2) are met, the following information is prescribed for the purpose of 
paragraph 4 of subsection 103 (2) of the Act, in respect of each person about whom the Director receives, on or after the day 
this section comes into force, a complaint dealing with conduct that may be in contravention of the Act or in contravention of 
the Athletics Control Act, the Bailiffs Act, the Cemeteries Act (Revised), the Collection Agencies Act, the Consumer Reporting 
Act or the Theatres Act, whether the conduct constitutes an offence or not: 

1. The name of the person to whom the complaint relates, as known to the Ministry. 

2. Any business names used by the person, as known to the Ministry. 

3. The person's business address, business telephone number, business fax number and business e-mail address, if known 
to the Ministry. 

4. The number of complaints received by the Director about the person. 

5. The substance and dis[)osition of each complaint. 

6. With respect to each complaint, whether a charge was laid against the person as described in section 88 and whether 
any action was taken against the person as described in section 89, and, 

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480 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

i. if a charge was laid, the information required by paragraph 4 of section 88, and 
ii. if action was taken, the infonnation required by paragraph 4 of section 89. 

(2) The information described in subsection (1) is prescribed for the purpose of paragraph 4 of subsection 103 (2) of the 
Act, only if all of the following conditions are met: 

1. The complaint received by the Director is in writing, identifies the complainant as a consumer and asserts that the 
complainant gave or attempted to give notice of the substance of the complaint to the person about whom the 
complaint is made. 

2. The complainant's total potential payment obligation under the consumer transaction to which the complaint relates, 
excluding the cost of borrowing, exceeds $100. 

3. Either, 

i. Ministry staff gave notice of the substance of the complaint by mail, telephone discussion, telephone message, 
fax or e-mail on two separate occasions no more than 20 days apart lo the person about whom the complaint was 
made, and, 

A. within 20 days after the day the second notice was given, the person did not remedy the situation to -the 
satisfaction of the complainant or otherwise respond to the substance of the complaint and did not request 
an additional 10 days to do so, or 

B. within 20 days after the day the second notice was given, the person requested an additional 10 days lo 
remedy the situation or otherwise respond to the substance of the complaint, but within the additional 10 
days, the person did not remedy the situation to the satisfaction of the complainant or otherwise respond to 
the substance of the complaint, or 

ii. Ministry staff made at least two attempts to give notice of the substance of the complaint to the person about 
whom the complaint was made by any combination of mail, telephone, fax or e-mail, but the mail was returned or 
Ministry staff were unable to have a telephone discussion with the person, leave a telephone message, send a fax 
or send an e-mail. 

(3) Infonnation that is prescribed under this section ceases to be so prescribed if the person about whom the complaint was 
made proves, to the satisfaction of the Director, that, 

(a) the person did not receive notice of the complaint from Ministry staff; and 

(b) the person has remedied the situation to the satisfaction of the complainant or otherwise responded to the substance of 
the complaint. 

PART XI 
PRESCRIBED ACTS AND JURISDICTIONS — PART XI OF THE ACT 

Prescribed Acts 

91. The Athletics Control Act is prescribed for the purposes of section 105 of the Act. 
Prescribed jurisdictions 

92. The following jurisdictions are prescribed for the purpose of subsection 122 (2) of the Act: 

1 . Canada. 

2. Every province and territory of Canada other than Ontario. 

PART XII 
COMMENCEMENT 

Commencement 

93. This Regulation comes into force on July 30, 2005. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 481 

RÈGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 17/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI DE 2002 SUR LA PROTECTION DU CONSOMMATEUR 

pris le 2 février 2005 
déposé le 3 février 2005 

DISPOSITIONS GÉNÉRALES 



SOMMAIRE 

PARTIE I 
SERVICES SOUSTRAITS À L'APPLICATION DE LA LOI 

Services professionnels réolementés soustraits à l'application de la Loi — alinéa 2 (2) e) de la Loi 

1 . Services professionnels réglementés 

Autres services soustraits à l'application de la Loi — alinéa 1 23 ( I ) c) de la Loi 

2. Services professionnels offerts dans les établissements 

3. Services fournis dans les établissements de santé autonomes 

4. Hébergement 

5. Enchères publiques 

6. Fourniture demandée par une personne autre que le destinataire 

7. Aliments périssables 

8. Loteries 

9. Conventions assujetties à d'autres lois 

Non-application des dispositions si la convention appartient à plus d'un type — article 4 de la Loi 

10. Exceptions à la règle de l'art. 4 de la Loi 

11. Conventions de crédit 

12. Baux 

13. Conventions relatives à des travaux ou réparations effectués sur un véhicule 

14. Convention portant sur le courtage en prêts ou le redressement de crédit 

15. Conventions de multipropriété 

16. Conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel 

17. Conventions directes 

18. Conventions électroniques 

19. Conventions à distance 

PARTIE II 
MARCHANDISES OU SERVICES NON SOLLICITÉS — ARTICLE 13 DE LA LOI 

20. Changement important 

21. Délai de remboursement 

PARTIE III 
PRATIQUES DÉLOYALES — ARTICLE 18 DE LA LOI 

22. Délai de réponse 

PARTIE IV 
CERTAINES CONVENTIONS DE CONSOMMATION — PARTIE IV DE LA LOI 

Conventions à exécution différée 

23. Somme prescrite 

24. Exigences : conventions à exécution différée 

25. Possibilité d'accepter ou de refuser la convention 

Conventions de multipropriété 

26. Exigences : conventions de multipropriété 

Services de perfectionnement personnel 

27. Somme prescrite 

28. Exigences en l'absence d'une autre installation 

29. Exigences lors de l'utilisation d'une autre installation 

30. Obligations du fournisseur : renouvellement ou prorogation 

Conventions électroniques 

31. Somme prescrite 

32. Divulgation de renseignements 

33. Copie de la convention électronique 

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482 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



CONVliNTlONS UlRHCTES 

34. Somme prescrite 

35. Exigences : conventions directes 

Conventions à distance 

36. Somme prescrite 

37. Divulgation de renseignements 

38. Possibilité expresse d'accepter ou de refuser la convention 

39. Copie de la convention à distance 

Baux auxquels ne s'applique pas la partie Vlll de la Loi 

40. Exigences relatives à certains baux 

Modification, renouvellement et prorogation de certaines conventions de consommation 
4L Modification, renouvellement ou prorogation par consentement exprès 

42. Modification, renouvellement ou prorogation conforme à la convention de consommation 

43. Aucun changement de nature 

PARTIE V 
COURTAGE EN PRÊTS ET REDRESSEMENT DE CRÉDIT — PARTIE V DE LA LOI 

44. Exigences : conventions de courtage en prêts 

45. Assertions interdites : courtier en prêts 

46. Exigences : conventions de redressement de crédit 

47. Assertions interdites : redresseur de crédit 

PARTIE VI 
RÉPARATIONS DE VÉHICULES AUTOMOBILES — PARTIE VI DE LA LOI 

48. Devis 

49. Autorisation donnée autrement que par écrit 

50. Affichage d'écriteaux 
5L Factures 

52. Dispenses 

PARTIE VII 
CONVENTIONS DE CRÉDIT — PARTIE VII DE LA LOI 

53. Définition 

54. Avance 

55. Taux de crédit d'une convention de crédit 

56. Coût d'emprunt 

57. Taux variable 

58. Responsabilité maximale : débits non autorisés 

59. Disposition transitoire : responsabilité à l'égard du coût d'emprunt 

60. Remboursement ou crédit : paiement anticipé 

61. Publicité 

62. Renseignements à divulguer : demandes de carte de crédit 

63. Déclaration initiale : convention de crédit fixe 

64. Déclaration initiale : convention de crédit en blanc 

65. Déclaration subséquente : convention de crédit fixe à taux variable 

66. Déclaration subséquente : convention de crédit fixe et taux modifiable 

67. Disposition transitoire : déclaration subséquente relative au crédit en blanc 

68. Relevé de compte : convention de crédit en blanc 

69. Importance des modifications 

70. Déclarations visées par la Partie VII : dispositions générales 

71. Dispenses ; partie VII 

PARTIE VIII 
LOCATION À LONG TERME — PARTIE VIII DE LA LOI 

72. Définitions 

73. Publicité 

74. Déclaration : bail 

75. Conséquences de la non-divulgation 

76. Responsabilité maximale : baux à obligation résiduelle 

77. Dispenses : partie VIII 

PARTIE IX 
PROCÉDURES RELATIVES AUX RÉPARATIONS DEMANDÉES PAR LE CONSOMMATEUR — PARTIE IX DE LA LOI 

78. Définitions 

79. Obligations du fournisseur : résiliation 

80. Obligations du consommateur : résiliation de certaines conventions 

81. Obligations du consommateur : résiliation d'autres conventions 

82. Délai de soin raisonnable 

83. Restrictions : résiliation d'une convention directe 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 483 



84. 


Délai de remboursement des paiements illicites 


85. 


Annulation ou contrepassation des débits par carte de crédit 




PARTIE X 




REGISTRE PUBLIC — PARAGRAPHE 103 (2) DE LA LOI 


86. 


Exigences 


87. 


Ordonnances 


88. 


Accusations 


89. 


Prise de mesures 


90. 


Plaintes 




PARTIE XI 




LOIS ET AUTORITÉS LÉGISLATIVES PRESCRITES — PARTIE XI DE LA LOI 


9L 


Loi prescrite 


92. 


Autorités législatives prescrites 




PARTIE XII 




ENTRÉE EN VIGUEUR 


93. 


Entrée en vigueur 



PARTIE I 

services soustraits à l'application de la loi 

Services professionnels réglementés soustraits à l'application de la Loi — alinéa 2 (2) e) de la Loi 

Services professionnels réglementés 

1. Les services professionnels fournis par une personne régie ou visée par l'une des lois suivantes sont soustraits à 
l'application de la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur : 

1 . La Loi sur les architectes. 

2. La loi intitulée Certified General Accountants Association of Ontario Act, 1983. 

3. Laïo\inûlu\éeChartered Accountants Act, 1956. 

4. La Loi sur les praticiens ne prescrivant pas de médicaments. 

5 . La Loi st4r le Barreau. 

6. La Loi de 1 996 sur l 'Ordre des enseignantes et des enseignants de l 'Ontario. 
1. La Loi sur les ingénieurs. 

8. La Loi de 2000 sur les forestiers professionnels. 

9. La Loi de 2000 sur les géoscientifiques professionnels. 

1 0. La Loi sur la comptabilité publique. 

11. La Loi de 1991 sur les professions de la santé réglementées et les lois mentionnées à l'annexe 1 de cette loi. 

12. La Loi de 1 998 sur le travail social et les techniques de travail social. 

13. La \oiinlhu\ée Society of Management Accountants of Ontario, 1941. 

14. La Loi sur les arpenteurs-géomètres. 

15. La Loi sur les vétérinaires. 

Autres services soustraits à l'application de la Loi — alinéa 123 (1) c) de la Loi 

Services professionnels offerts dans les établissements 

2. Les services professionnels qui sont fournis dans les établissements suivants sont soustraits à l'application de la Loi de 
2002 sur la protection du consommateur : 

1 . Les établissements au sens de la Loi sur les hôpitaux psychiatriques. 

2. Les hôpitaux au sens de la Loi sur les hôpitaux publics. 

3. Les pharmacies au sens de la partie VI de la Loi sur la réglementation des médicaments et des pharmacies. 
Services fournis dans les établissements de santé autonomes 

3. Les services fournis dans les établissements de santé autonomes conformément à un permis délivré en vertu de la Loi 
sur les établissements de santé autonomes sont soustraits à l'application de la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du 
consommateur. 

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484 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Hébergement 

4. La fourniture de services d'hébergement, sauf dans le cadre d'une multipropriété, est soustraite à l'application des 
articles 2 1 à 26, 37 à 40 et 44 à 47 de la Loi. 

Enchères publiques 

5. (1) La fourniture par vente aux enchères publiques de marchandises ou de services, à l'exception des services de 
perfectionnement personnel et de la multipropriété, est soustraite à l'application des articles 21 à 26 et 37 à 47 de la Loi. 

(2) Le paragraphe ( 1 ) s'applique, que les marchandises ou les services mis aux enchères appartiennent à l'encanteur ou à 
un autre fournisseur. 

Fourniture demandée par une personne autre que le destinataire 

6. (1) La fourniture de marchandises ou de services à une personne à la demande d'une autre personne est soustraite à 
l'application des articles 22, 23, 26, 37 à 40 et 44 à 47 de la Loi si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) les marchandises ou les services sont fournis en une seule fois plutôt que sur une base continue; 

b) l'auteur de la demande acquitte, au moment de la demande, le prix total des marchandises ou des services. 

(2) La non-application des articles 22, 23 et 26 de la Loi vaut même si l'article 21 de la Loi prévoit l'application des 
articles 22 à 26 de la Loi dans les circonstances. 

Aliments périssables 

7. La fourniture d'aliments ou de produits alimentaires périssables est soustraite à l'application des articles 21 à 26 et 37 à 
47 de la Loi s'ils doivent être livrés au consommateur dans les 24 heures qui en suivent la commande au fournisseur. 

Loteries 

8. La fourniture de billets de loterie ou de marchandises ou de services de même nature est soustraite à l'application des 
articles 21 à 26 et 41 à 47 de la Loi si le fournisseur est un organisme de bienfaisance ou un organisme religieux titulaire 
d'une licence délivrée en application de l'alinéa 207 ( 1 ) b) du Code criminel (Canada) pour mettre sur pied ou administrer la 
loterie et que le produit de celle-ci doit servir à des fins religieuses ou de bienfaisance. 

Conventions assujetties à d'autres lois 

9. (1) La fourniture de marchandises ou de services aux termes d'une convention assujettie à l'une des lois suivantes est 
soustraite à l'application des articles 22, 23, 26 et 37 à 47 de la Loi : 

1 . La Loi sur les commerçants de véhicules automobiles ou la Loi de 2002 sur le commerce des véhicules automobiles. 

2. La Loi sur le courtage commercial et immobilier ou la Loi de 2002 sur le courtage commercial et immobilier. 

3. La Loi sur les agences de voyages ou la Loi de 2002 sur le secteur du voyage. 

4. La Loi sur les cimetières (révisée), la Loi sur les directeurs de services funéraires et les établissements fiénéraires ou la 
Loi de 2002 st4r les services funéraires et les services d'enterrement et de crémation. 

(2) La non-application des articles 22, 23 et 26 de la Loi vaut même si l'article 21 de la Loi prévoit l'application des 
articles 22 à 26 de la Loi dans les circonstances. 

NON-APPLlCATlON DES DISPOSITIONS SI LA CONVENTION APPARTIENT À PLUS D'UN TYPE — ARTICLE 4 DE LA LOI 
Exceptions à la règle de l'art. 4 de la Loi 

10. ( I ) Les articles 11 à 19 du présent règlement énoncent les exceptions à la règle exprimée à l'article 4 de la Loi voulant 
que les conventions de consommation qui répondent aux critères d'au moins deux types de conventions que vise la présente 
loi soient conformes aux dispositions de la Loi et des règlements qui s'appliquent à chacun de ces types. 

(2) Si l'un ou l'autre des articles 1 1 à 19 du présent règlement exclut l'application de l'article 22, 23, 25 ou 26 de la Loi, 
l'exclusion vaut même si l'article 21 de la Loi prévoit l'application des articles 22 à 26 de la Loi dans les circonstances. 

(3) Les mots ou expressions qui figurent aux articles 11 à 19 du présent règlement s'entendent au sens de la partie de la 
Loi qui les définit. 

Conventions de crédit 

11. (I) La Partie IV de la Loi ne s'applique pas aux conventions de crédit qui sont également des conventions à exécution 
différée, des conventions directes, des conventions électroniques ou des conventions à distance, sauf s'il s'agit de 
conventions de crédit fournisseur. 

(2) Si la convention de crédit fournisseur est également une convention à exécution différée, une convention de 
multipropriété, une convention de services de perfectionnement professionnel, une convention directes, une convention 
électronique ou une convention à distance : 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 485 



a) la partie IV de la Loi ne s'applique pas à la partie de la convention selon laquelle le fournisseur ou la personne 
associée avec lui accorde un crédit fixe au consommateur pour l'aider à obtenir du fournisseur des marchandises ou 
des services, à l'exclusion d'un crédit ou d'un prêt d'argent; 

b) la partie IV de la Loi s'applique à la partie de la convention selon laquelle le fournisseur fournit des marchandises ou 
des services, à l'exclusion d'un crédit ou d'un prêt d'argent, au consommateur. 

Baux 

12. Les articles 22, 23, 25, 26 et 29 à 47 de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas aux baux qui sont également des conventions à 
exécution différée, des conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel, des conventions directes, des conventions 
électroniques ou des conventions à distance si la partie VIII de la Loi s'applique à eux. 

Conventions relatives à des travaux ou réparations effectués sur un véhicule 

13. Les articles 22, 23 et 27 à 47 de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas aux conventions de consommation relatives à des travaux 
ou à des réparations à effectuer sur un véhicule qui sont également des conventions à exécution différée, des conventions de 
multipropriété, des conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel, des conventions directes, des conventions 
électroniques ou des conventions à distance. 

Convention portant sur le courtage en prêts ou le redressement de crédit 

14. Les articles 22, 23 et 27 à 47 de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas aux conventions de consommation portant sur le courtage 
en prêts ou le redressement de crédit qui sont également des conventions à exécution différée, des conventions de 
multipropriété, des conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel, des conventions directes, des conventions 
électroniques ou des conventions à distance. 

Conventions de multipropriété 

15. Les articles 22, 23 et 29 à 47 de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas aux conventions de multipropriété qui sont également des 
conventions à exécution différée, des conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel, des conventions directes, des 
conventions électroniques ou des conventions à distance. 

Conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel 

16. Les articles 22, 23 et 37 à 47 de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas aux conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel 
qui sont également des conventions à exécution différée, des conventions directes, des conventions électroniques ou des 
conventions à distance, mais non des conventions de multipropriété. 

Conventions directes 

17. Les articles 22, 23, 37 à 40 et 44 à 47 de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas aux conventions directes qui sont également des 
conventions à exécution différée, des conventions électroniques ou des conventions à distance, mais non des conventions de 
multipropriété ou des conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel. 

Conventions électroniques 

18. Les articles 22, 23 et 44 à 47 de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas aux conventions électroniques qui sont également des 
conventions à exécution différée ou des conventions à distance mais non des conventions de multipropriété, des conventions 
de services de perfectionnement personnel ou des conventions directes. 

Conventions à distance 

19. Les articles 22 et 23 de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas aux conventions à distance qui sont également des conventions à 
exécution différée mais non des conventions de multipropriété, des conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel, 
des conventions directes ou des conventions électroniques. 

PARTIE II 
MARCHANDISES OL SERVICES NON SOLLICITÉS — ARTICLE 13 DE LA LOI 

Changement important 

20. Pour l'application du paragraphe 13 (4) de la Loi, un changement ou une série de changements constitue un 
changement important si la nature ou la qualité du changement est telle qu'il pourrait, selon toute attente raisonnable, 
influencer la décision d'une personne raisonnable de conclure ou non la convention portant sur la fourniture des 
marchandises ou des services. 

Délai de remboursement 

21. Pour l'application du paragraphe 13 (7) de la Loi, le fournisseur rembourse le paiement qu'il a reçu du consommateur 
à l'égard de marchandises ou services non sollicités dans les 15 jours qui suivent la date à laquelle le consommateur en 
demande le remboursement en vertu du paragraphe 13 (6) de la Loi. 

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PARTIE III 
PRATIQUES DÉLOYALES — ARTICLE 18 DE LA LOI 

Délai de réponse 

22. Pour l'application du paragraphe 18 (8) de la Loi, le consommateur peut introduire une action s'il n'a pas reçu de 
réponse satisfaisante dans les 30 jours qui suivent la date à laquelle il a donné l'avis prévu à l'article 18 de la Loi. 

partie iv 
certaines conventions de consommation — partie iv de la loi 

Conventions à exécution différée 

Somme prescrite 

23. La somme prescrite pour l'application du paragraphe 21 ( I ) de la Loi s'élève à 50 $. 
Exigences : conventions à exécution difTérée 

24. Pour l'application de l'article 22 de la Loi, la convention à exécution différée fait état des renseignements suivants : 

1 . Le nom du consommateur. 

2. Le nom du fournisseur et, s'il est différent, le nom sous lequel il exerce ses activités commerciales. 

3. Le numéro de téléphone du foumisseur, l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de 
communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

4. La description juste et fidèle des marchandises et des services devant être fournis au consommateur, y compris les 
exigences techniques éventuelles liées à leur utilisation. 

5. La liste détaillée des prix, taxes et frais d'expédition compris, des marchandises et des services devant être fournis au 
consommateur. 

6. La description des autres frais applicables, tels que les droits de douane et les frais de courtage, et le montant de 
chaque type de frais, si le foumisseur peut raisonnablement le calculer. 

7. La somme totale que, à la connaissance du foumisseur, le consommateur doit payer aux termes de la convention, y 
compris les sommes qui doivent être divulguées en application de la disposition 6, ou, si les marchandises et les 
services doivent être foumis pendant une période indéterminée, le montant et la fréquence des versements périodiques. 

8. Les modalités et les modes de paiement. 

9. S'il y a lieu, la ou les dates de livraison, de commencement de l'exécution, d'exécution successive et d'achèvement de 
l'exécution. 

10. S'il s'agit de marchandises et de services à livrer : 

i. le lieu de livraison, 

ii. le mode de livraison, y compris le nom du transporteur éventuel et le mode de transport, si le foumisseur propose 
un mode de livraison particulier et facture la livraison au consommateur. 

1 1. S'il s'agit de services à exécuter, le lieu d'exécution, le bénéficiaire et le mode d'exécution, ainsi que le nom de la 
personne exécutant des services pour le compte du foumisseur que celui-ci propose, le cas échéant. 

12. Les droits éventuels du consommateur dont convient le foumisseur et qui s'ajoutent à ceux qui lui sont conférés par la 
Loi ainsi que les obligations éventuelles du foumisseur que ce demier assume et qui s'ajoutent à celles qui lui sont 
imposées par la Loi en matière de résiliation, de retour de marchandises, d'échange et de remboursement. 

13. Si une convention de reprise est prévue, les modalités de cette convention et le montant de la valeur de reprise. 

14. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

1 5. Toutes les autres restrictions et conditions qu'impose le foumisseur. 

1 6. La date de conclusion de la convention. 
Possibilité d'accepter ou de refuser la convention 

25. Immédiatement avant de la conclure, le fournisseur donne expressément au consommateur la possibilité d'accepter ou 
de refuser la convention à exécution différée à laquelle s'appliquent les articles 22 à 26 de la Loi et d'y corriger les erreurs. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 487 



Conventions DE MULTIPROPRIÉTÉ 

Exigences : conventions de mullipropriété 

26. (1) Pour l'application de l'article 27 de la Loi, la convention de multipropriété doit être signée par le consommateur et 
le fournisseur et faire état des renseignements suivants : 

1 . Le nom du consommateur. 

2. Le nom du fournisseur et, s'il est différent, le nom sous lequel il exerce ses activités commerciales. 

3. Le numéro de téléphone du fournisseur, l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de 
communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

4. Les noms des personnes suivantes : 

i. la personne éventuelle qui a sollicité le consommateur à propos de la convention, 
ii. la personne éventuelle qui a négocié la convention avec le consommateur, 
iii. la personne qui a conclu la convention avec le consommateur. 

5. Si le fournisseur a conclu un contrat de gestion du bien visé par la convention avec un gérant qui n'est pas un de ses 
employés, le nom et le numéro de téléphone de ce dernier, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de communiquer 
avec lui, telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

6. La date et le lieu de conclusion de la convention. 

7. La date d'entrée en vigueur de la convention et sa durée, avec mention du fait que celle-ci est indéterminée, si tel est le 
cas. 

8. Une déclaration contenant le texte prévu au paragraphe (2), complétée, au besoin, par le texte prévu au paragraphe (3), 
qui : 

i. d'une part, est en caractères d'au moins 10 points, le titre étant en caractères gras d'au moins 12 points, 

ii. d'autre part, figure à la première page de la convention à moins qu'un avis, figurant en caractères gras d'au moins 
12 points à cette page, n'indique où elle se trouve dans la convention. 

9. La description juste et fidèle des droits du consommateur à l'égard de l'utilisation du bien visé par la convention, 
notamment : 

i. l'emplacement précis du bien, 

ii. l'appartement précis ou le type d'appartement que le consommateur aura le droit d'occuper, 

iii. les périodes ou dates où le consommateur aura le droit d'utiliser le bien, 

iv. les marchandises et les services, y compris les installations, qui seront fournis au consommateur ou auxquels il 
aura accès, ainsi que les conditions et restrictions rattachées à leur usage ou accès, 

V. les conditions et restrictions rattachées au droit du consommateur de se départir de la part de multipropriété qu'il 
acquiert en vertu de la convention. 

10. Les délais concernant le droit éventuel du consommateur d'utiliser un autre bien à la place de celui qui est visé par la 
convention, notamment : 

^' i. les moments où il peut exercer ce droit, 

ii. le mode d'exercice de ce droit, 

iii. les sommes qu'il doit payer afin d'exercer ce droit, 

iv. le nom du particulier ou de l'entité chargé de coordonner la substitution des biens et des renseignements sur les 
différentes façons de communiquer avec l'un ou l'autre telles que son numéro de téléphone, son numéro de 
télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

11. La description détaillée du droit éventuel du consommateur d'échanger le droit d'occuper un appartement précis ou un 
type d'appartement pour celui d'en occuper un autre, notamment les renseignements suivants : 

i. les moments où il peut exercer ce droit, 

ii. le mode d'exercice de ce droit, 

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488 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

iii. les sommes qu'il doit payer afin d'exercer ce droit, 

iv. le nom du particulier ou de l'entité chargé de coordonner l'échange des appartements et les renseignements sur 
les différentes façons de communiquer avec l'un ou l'autre telles que son numéro de téléphone, son numéro de 
télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

12. La description juste et fidèle de l'accès du consommateur à des escomptes ou avantages à l'égard de la fourniture 
future de services de transport ou d'hébergement ou d'autres marchandises ou services relatifs aux voyages. 

13. Une liste détaillée énonçant : 

i. le montant du paiement unique que doit faire le consommateur lors de la conclusion de la convention, ainsi que 
les marchandises ou les services concernés, 

ii. le montant de tout autre paiement unique que doit faire le consommateur, ainsi que la marchandise ou le service 
concerné, 

iii. le montant et la fréquence de chaque versement périodique que doit faire le consommateur, ainsi que la 
marchandise ou le service concerné. 

14. Une liste détaillée énonçant : 

i. d'une part, chaque marchandise ou service facultatif, y compris une installation ou une adhésion dont, selon le 
fournisseur, le consommateur pourra se prévaloir du fait qu'il a conclu la convention, 

ii. d'autre part, la somme que le consommateur devrait payer s'il décidait de se prévaloir de la marchandise ou du 
service. 

1 5. Si une somme énoncée dans la convention peut changer ou que le consommateur peut être tenu de faire un paiement en 
sus de ceux énoncés dans la convention : 

i. une déclaration dans ce sens, 

ii. la description des circonstances dans lesquelles la somme peut changer ou le paiement supplémentaire peut être 

exigé, 

iii. l'un ou l'autre des éléments suivants : i 

A. la nouvelle somme ou le montant du paiement supplémentaire, 

B. la norme objective à appliquer pour calculer la nouvelle somme ou le paiement supplémentaire. 

1 6. Si une convention de reprise est prévue, les modalités de cette convention et le montant de la valeur de reprise. 

1 7. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

18. Les modalités et les modes de paiement de toute somme qui est ou peut être payable par le consommateur et qui est 
visée aux dispositions 10, 11, 13, 14 ou 15. 

19. Les conséquences du non-paiement d'une somme payable par le consommateur. . ,• 
(2) La déclaration visée à la disposition 8 du paragraphe ( 1 ) énonce ce qui suit : 

Vos droits selon la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur 

Vous avez le droit de résilier la présente convention en tout temps jusqu'à dix (10) jours après en avoir reçu une copie écrite 
sans donner de raison au fournisseur. 

Vous pouvez également résilier la convention en tout temps avant la livraison ou le commencement de l'exécution si le 
fournisseur n'effectue pas la livraison ou ne commence pas à s'acquitter de ses obligations dans les 30 jours qui suivent la 
date que la convention précise à cette fin. Toutefois, vous perdez ce droit de résiliation si vous consentez à la livraison ou 
autorisez le commencement de l'exécution après l'expiration du délai de 30 jours. 

Vous pouvez résilier la convention qui ne précise pas de date de livraison ou de commencement de l'exécution en tout temps 
avant l'un ou l'autre de ces événements si le fournisseur n'effectue pas la livraison ou ne commence pas à s'acquitter de ses 
obligations dans les 30 jours qui suivent la date de la conclusion de la convention. Toutefois, vous perdez ce droit de 
résiliation si vous consentez à la livraison ou autorisez le commencement de l'exécution après l'expiration du délai de 30 
jours. 

Vous pouvez également résilier la convention pour d'autres motifs et avoir d'autres droits, obligations ou recours en droit. 
Veuillez communiquer avec le ministère des Services aux consommateurs et aux entreprises pour de plus amples 
renseignements. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 489 



Si vous souhaitez résilier la convention, vous devez en aviser le fournisseur à l'adresse qui y est indiquée par un moyen qui 
vous permette de prouver la date de remise de l'avis. En l'absence d'une adresse, vous pouvez utiliser celle qui figure dans 
les dossiers du gouvernement de l'Ontario ou du gouvernement du Canada ou celle que vous connaissez. 

Si vous résiliez la convention, le fournisseur a quinze (15) jours pour vous rembourser les paiements que vous avez faits et 
vous retourner toutes les marchandises livrées aux termes d'une convention de reprise (ou vous rembourser une somme égale 
à la valeur de reprise). 

(3) Si le consommateur doit recevoir des marchandises aux termes de la convention, la déclaration visée à la disposition 8 
du paragraphe ( 1 ) énonce également ce qui suit : 

Si le fournisseur demande par écrit de reprendre possession des marchandises dont vous avez pris possession aux termes de la 
convention, vous devez les lui retourner à son adresse ou permettre à l'une des personnes suivantes d'en reprendre possession 
à votre adresse : 

Le fournisseur. 

La personne qu'il a désignée par écrit. 

Si vous résiliez la convention, vous devez prendre raisonnablement soin des marchandises dont vous avez pris possession aux 
termes de celle-ci jusqu'à ce que se produise l'un des événements suivants : 

Le fournisseur en reprend possession. 

Le fournisseur a eu une occasion raisonnable d'en reprendre possession et un délai de vingt et un (21) jours s'est écoulé 
depuis la résiliation de la convention. 

Vous les avez retournées. 

Le fournisseur vous donne par écrit ordre de les détruire et vous suivez ses instructions. 

Services de perfectionnement personnel 

Somme prescrite 

27. La somme prescrite pour l'application de l'alinéa 29 (1) b) de la Loi s'élève à 50 $. 
Exigences en l'absence d'une autre installation 

28. (1) Le présent article s'applique aux conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel qui visent : 

a) soit une installation qui est disponible; 

b) soit une installation qui n'est pas disponible, si la convention en question ne prévoit pas l'utilisation d'une autre 
installation en attendant que l'installation principale le soit. 

(2) Pour l'application du paragraphe 30 (1) de la Loi, la convention de services de perfectionnement professionnel visée au 
paragraphe ( 1 ) doit être signée par le consommateur et le fournisseur et faire état des renseignements suivants : 

1 . Le nom du consommateur. 

2. Le nom du fournisseur et, s'il est différent, le nom sous lequel il exerce ses activités commerciales. 

3. Le numéro de téléphone du fournisseur, l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de 
communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

4. Les noms des personnes suivantes : 

i. la personne éventuelle qui a sollicité le consommateur à propos de la convention, 
ii. la personne éventuelle qui a négocié la convention avec le consommateur, 
iii. la personne qui a conclu la convention avec le consommateur. 

5. L'adresse de l'installation où les services de perfectionnement personnel seront disponibles. 

6. La liste détaillée des services de perfectionnement personnel mis à la disposition du consommateur par le fournisseur, 
qui décrit fidèlement et précisément chaque service. 

7. La date à laquelle ou à partir de laquelle chaque service de perfectionnement personnel visé par la convention sera mis 
à la disposition au consommateur. 

8. Le cas échéant, la remise qui sera consentie au consommateur si un service de perfectionnement personnel n'est pas 
disponible à la date prévue à la disposition 7. 



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490 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

9. Si un service de perfectionnement personnel n'est pas disponible au moment où le consommateur doit faire un 
paiement à son égard, 

i. la déclaration portant que, si un service de perfectionnement personnel n'est pas disponible au moment où il doit 
faire un paiement à son égard, le consommateur doit le faire par l'intermédiaire de la société de fiducie dont la 
dénomination et l'adresse figurent dans la convention, 

ii. la dénomination et l'adresse de la société de fiducie. 

10. Une déclaration contenant le texte prévu au paragraphe (3), complétée, au besoin, par le texte prévu au paragraphe (4), 
qui : 

i. d'une part, est en caractères d'au moins 10 points, le titre étant en caractères gras d'au moins 12 points, 

ii. d'autre part, figure à la première page de la convention à moins qu'un avis, figurant en caractères gras d'au moins 
12 points à cette page, n'indique où elle se trouve dans la convention. 

11. Si une convention de reprise est prévue, les modalités de cette convention et le montant de la valeur de reprise. 

1 2. La somme totale que le consommateur doit payer ainsi que les modalités et les modes de paiement. 

13. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

14. La date de conclusion de la convention. 

1 5. Les dates d'entrée en vigueur et d'expiration de la convention. 

1 6. Si la convention prévoit son renouvellement ou sa prorogation : 

i. les exigences énoncées à l'article 30 à cet égard, 

ii. le mode de notification de l'avis de renouvellement ou de prorogation que le fournisseur remet au consommateur, 
la convention pouvant exiger du fournisseur qu'il utilise l'un des modes suivants ou lui permettre d'en choisir 
un : 

A. l'envoi par la poste ou la remise à personne à l'adresse que le consommateur a indiquée dans la convention, 

B. l'envoi par courrier électronique à l'adresse électronique que le consommateur a indiquée dans la 
convention, 

C. l'envoi par télécopieur au numéro de télécopieur que le consommateur a indiqué dans la convention, 

D. tout autre mode que le consommateur a indiqué dans la convention, 

iii. la convention est réputée ne pas être renouvelée ou prorogée si le consommateur avise le fournisseur, avant le 
moment prévu pour le renouvellement ou la prorogation, qu'il ne désire pas qu'elle le soit. 

(3) La déclaration visée à la disposition 10 du paragraphe (2) énonce ce qui suit : 

Vos droits selon la Loi de 2002 sut la protection du consommateur 

Vous avez le droit de résilier la présente convention en tout temps jusqu'à dix (10) jours après en avoir reçu une copie écrite 
ou, s'il lui est postérieur, après le jour où tous les services sont disponibles. Vous n'avez alors aucune raison à donner au 
fournisseur. 

Vous pouvez également la résilier pour certains motifs et avoir d'autres droits, obligations ou recours en droit. Veuillez 
communiquer avec le ministère des Services aux consommateurs et aux entreprises pour de plus amples renseignements. 

Si vous souhaitez résilier la convention, vous devez en aviser le foumisseur à l'adresse qui y est indiquée par un moyen qui 
vous permette de prouver la date de remise de l'avis. En l'absence d'une adresse, vous pouvez utiliser celle qui figure dans 
les dossiers du gouvernement de l'Ontario ou du gouvernement du Canada ou celle que vous connaissez. 

Si vous résiliez la convention, le foumisseur a quinze (15) jours pour vous rembourser les paiements que vous avez faits et 
vous retourner toutes les marchandises livrées aux termes d'une convention de reprise (ou vous rembourser une somme égale 
à la valeur de reprise). 

(4) Si le consommateur doit recevoir des marchandises aux termes de la convention, la déclaration visée à la disposition 
10 du paragraphe (2) énonce également ce qui suit : 

Si le foumisseur demande par écrit de reprendre possession des marchandises dont vous avez pris possession aux termes de la 
convention, vous devez les lui retoumer à son adresse ou permettre à l'une des personnes suivantes d'en reprendre possession 
à votre adresse ; 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 491 



Le fournisseur. 

La personne qu'il a désignée par écrit. 

Si vous résiliez la convention, vous devez prendre raisonnablement soin des marchandises dont vous avez pris possession aux 
termes de celle-ci jusqu'à ce que se produise l'un des événements suivants : 

Le fournisseur en reprend possession. 

Le fournisseur a eu une occasion raisonnable d'en reprendre possession et un délai de vingt et un (21) jours s'est écoulé 
depuis la résiliation de la convention. 

Vous les avez retournées. 

Le fournisseur vous donne par écrit ordre de les détruire et vous suivez ses instructions. 

Exigences lors de l'utilisation d'une autre installation 

29. (1) Le présent article s'applique aux conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel qui visent une installation 
qui n'est pas disponible si le consommateur consent par écrit à utiliser une autre installation en attendant que l'installation 
principale le soit. 

(2) Pour l'application du paragraphe 30 (1) de la Loi, la convention de services de perfectionnement personnel visée au 
paragraphe (1) doit être signée par le consommateur et le fournisseur et faire état des renseignements visés aux dispositions 1, 
2, 3, 4, 10, 1 1, 12, 13, 14, 15 et 16 du paragraphe 28 (2) ainsi que des renseignements suivants : 

1 . L'adresse de l'installation principale et celle de l'autre installation. 

2. La liste détaillée des services de perfectionnement personnel mis à la disposition du consommateur par le fournisseur à 
l'autre installation qui décrit fidèlement et précisément chaque service et qui précise le prix payable mensuellement 
pour ces services. 

3. La liste détaillée des services de perfectionnement personnel mis à la disposition du consommateur par le fournisseur à 
l'installation principale qui décrit fidèlement et précisément chaque service. 

4. Les dates auxquelles chaque service de perfectionnement personnel sera mis à la disposition du consommateur par le 
fournisseur à l'autre installation et à l'installation principale. 

5. Le cas échéant, la remise qui sera consentie au consommateur si un service de perfectionnement personnel n'est pas 
disponible à l'installation prévue à la date prévue. 

Obligations du fournisseur : renouvellement ou prorogation 

30. (I) Pour l'application du paragraphe 31 (3) de la Loi, la convention de services de perfectionnement personnel qui 
prévoit son renouvellement ou sa prorogation n'est valide que si le fournisseur satisfait aux exigences du paragraphe (2). 

(2) Entre 30 et 90 jours avant la date d'expiration de la convention, le fournisseur remet les documents suivants au 
consommateur de la façon qui y est précisée conformément à la sous-disposition 1 6 ii du paragraphe 28 (2) : 

a) un avis écrit de renouvellement ou de prorogation qui précise ce qui suit : 

(i) la date du renouvellement ou de la prorogation envisagé, 

(ii) l'obligation qu'a le fournisseur, en vertu de la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur, de remettre un 
avis au consommateur de la façon précisée dans la convention entre 30 et 90 jours avant la date d'expiration, 

(iii) l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de communiquer avec lui telles que son 
numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique, 

(iv) le fait que la convention ne sera ni renouvelée ni prorogée si, avant la date visée sous-alinéa (i), le consommateur 
notifie au fournisseur, à l'adresse visée sous-alinéa (iii) ou en communiquant avec lui d'une autre façon visée à ce 
sous-alinéa, qu'il ne veut pas la renouveler ni la proroger; 

b) une copie de la convention qui montre clairement les changements que le fournisseur lui a apportés. 

(3) L'avis prévu à l'alinéa (2) a) qui est envoyé au consommateur par courrier recommandé est réputé remis le troisième 
jour qui suit la date de sa mise à la poste. 

Conventions électroniques 

Somme prescrite 

31. La somme prescrite pour l'application de l'article 37 de la Loi s'élève à 50 $. 

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492 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Divulgation de renseignements 

32. Pour l'application du paragraphe 38 (1) de la Loi, le fournisseur divulgue au consommateur les renseignements 
suivants avant de conclure une convention électronique avec lui : 

1 . Le nom du fournisseur et, s'il est différent, le nom sous lequel il exerce ses activités commerciales. 

2. Le numéro de téléphone du fournisseur, l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de 
communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

3. La description juste et fidèle des marchandises et des services qu'il est prévu de fournir au consommateur, y compris 
les exigences techniques éventuelles liées à leur utilisation. 

4. La liste détaillée des prix, taxes et frais d'expédition compris, des marchandises et des services qu'il est prévu de 
fournir au consommateur. 

5. La description des autres frais applicables, tels que les droits de douane et les frais de courtage, et le montant de 
chaque type de frais, si le fournisseur peut raisonnablement le calculer. 

6. La somme totale que, à la connaissance du fournisseur, le consommateur doit payer aux termes de la convention, y 
compris les sommes qui doivent être divulguées en application de la disposition 5, ou, s'il est prévu de fournir les 
marchandises et les services pendant une période indéterminée, le montant et la fréquence des versements périodiques. 

7. Les modalités et les modes de paiement. 

8. S'il y a lieu, les dates de livraison, de commencement de l'exécution, d'exécution successive et d'achèvement de 
l'exécution. 

9. S'il s'agit de marchandises et de services à livrer : 

i. le lieu de livraison, 

ii. le mode de livraison, y compris le nom du transporteur éventuel et le mode de transport, si le fournisseur propose 
un mode de livraison particulier et a l'intention de facturer la livraison au consommateur. 

10. S'il s'agit de services à exécuter, le lieu d'exécution, le bénéficiaire et le mode d'exécution, ainsi que le nom de la 
personne exécutant des services pour le compte du fournisseur que celui-ci propose, le cas échéant. 

11. Les droits éventuels du consommateur dont convient le fournisseur et qui s'ajoutent à ceux qui lui sont conférés par la 
Loi ainsi que les obligations éventuelles du fournisseur que ce dernier assume et qui s'ajoutent à celles qui lui sont 
imposées par la Loi en matière de résiliation, de retour de marchandises, d'échange et de remboursement. 

12. Si une convention de reprise est prévue, les modalités de cette convention et le montant de la valeur de reprise. 

1 3. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

14. Toutes les autres restrictions et conditions qu'impose le fournisseur. ' ■ 
Copie de la convention électronique 

33. (I) Pour l'application du paragraphe 39 (1) de la Loi, le fournisseur remet une copie écrite de la convention 
électronique au consommateur dans les 15 jours qui en suivent la conclusion. 

(2) Pour l'application du paragraphe 39 (2) de la Loi, la copie de la convention électronique comprend les renseignements 
suivants : 

1. Les renseignements énumérés dans la liste qui figure à l'article 32 du présent règlement. 

2. Le nom du consommateur. 

3. La date de conclusion de la convention. 

(3) Pour l'application du paragraphe 39 (3) de la Loi, la copie de la convention électronique est remise de l'une des façons 
suivantes : 

1. D'une façon qui permette au consommateur de la conserver, de l'imprimer ou d'y avoir accès à l'avenir, y compris par 
l'envoi d'un courrier électronique à l'adresse électronique qu'il a donnée au fournisseur pour la communication de 
renseignements relatifs à la convention. 

2. Par l'envoi d'une télécopie au numéro de télécopieur que le consommateur a donné au fournisseur pour la 
communication de renseignements relatifs à la convention. 

3. Sous pli envoyé par la poste ou livré à l'adresse que le consommateur a donnée au fournisseur pour la communication 
de renseignements relatifs à la convention. 

4. Par tout autre moyen qui permet au fournisseur de prouver que le consommateur l'a bien reçue. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 493 

Conventions directes 

Somme prescrite 

34. La somme prescrite pour l'application du paragraphe 41 (1) de la Loi s'élève à 50 $. 
Exigences : conventions directes 

35. (1) Pour l'application de l'article 42 de la Loi, la convention directe doit être signée par le consommateur et le 
fournisseur et faire état des renseignements suivants : 

1. Le nom et l'adresse du consommateur. 

2. Le nom du fournisseur et, s'il est différent, le nom sous lequel il exerce ses activités commerciales. 

3. Le numéro de téléphone du fournisseur, l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de 
communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

4. Les noms des personnes suivantes : 

i. la personne éventuelle qui a sollicité le consommateur à propos de la convention, 
ii. la personne éventuelle qui a négocié la convention avec le consommateur, 
iii. la personne qui a conclu la convention avec le consommateur. 

5. La date et le lieu de conclusion de la convention. 

6. La description juste et fidèle des marchandises et des services devant être fournis au consommateur, y compris les 
exigences techniques éventuelles liées à leur utilisation. 

7. La somme totale que le consommateur doit payer aux termes de la convention ou, si les marchandises et les services 
doivent être fournis pendant une période indéterminée, le montant et la fréquence des versements périodiques. 

8. Les modalités de paiement. 

9. La liste détaillée des prix, taxes et frais d'expédition compris, des marchandises et des services devant être fournis au 
consommateur. 

10. Si une convention de reprise est prévue, les modalités de cette convention et le montant de la valeur de reprise. 

1 1 . Une déclaration contenant le texte prévu au paragraphe (2), complétée, au besoin, par le texte prévu au paragraphe (3), 
qui : 

i. d'une part, est en caractères d'au moins 10 points, le titre étant en caractères gras d'au moins 12 points, 

ii. d'autre part, figure à la première page de la convention à moins qu'un avis, figurant en caractères gras d'au moins 
12 points à cette page, n'indique où elle se trouve dans la convention. 

12. S'il y a lieu, les dates de livraison, de commencement de l'exécution, d'exécution successive et d'achèvement de 
l'exécution. 

13. Les droits éventuels du consommateur dont convient le fournisseur et qui s'ajoutent à ceux qui lui sont conférés par la 
Loi, ainsi que les obligations éventuelles du fournisseur que ce dernier assume et qui s'ajoutent à celles qui lui sont 
imposées par la Loi, en matière de résiliation, de retour de marchandises, d'échange et de remboursement. 

14. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

15. Toutes les autres restrictions et conditions qu'impose le fournisseur. 

(2) La déclaration visée à la disposition 1 1 du paragraphe ( 1 ) énonce ce qui suit : 

Vos droits selon la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur 

Vous avez le droit de résilier la présente convention en tout temps jusqu'à dix (10) jours après en avoir reçu une copie écrite 
sans donner de raison au fournisseur. 

Vous pouvez également résilier la convention en tout temps avant la livraison ou le commencement de l'exécution si le 
fournisseur n'effectue pas la livraison ou ne commence pas à s'acquitter de ses obligations dans les 30 jours qui suivent la 
date que la convention précise à cette fin. Toutefois, vous perdez ce droit de résiliation si vous consentez à la livraison ou 
autorisez le commencement de l'exécution après l'expiration du délai de 30 jours. 

Vous pouvez résilier la convention qui ne précise pas de date de livraison ou de commencement de l'exécution en tout temps 
avant l'un ou l'autre de ces événements si le fournisseur n'effectue pas la livraison ou ne commence pas à s'acquitter de ses 
obligations dans les 30 jours qui suivent la date de la conclusion de la convention. Toutefois, vous perdez ce droit de 

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494 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



résiliation si vous consentez à la livraison ou autorisez le commencement de l'exécution après l'expiration du délai de 30 
jours. 

Vous pouvez également résilier la convention pour d'autres motifs et avoir d'autres droits, obligations ou recours en droit. 
Veuillez communiquer avec le ministère des Services aux consommateurs et aux entreprises pour de plus amples 
renseignements. 

Si vous souhaitez résilier la convention, vous devez en aviser le fournisseur à l'adresse qui y est indiquée par un moyen qui 
vous permette de prouver la date de remise de l'avis. En l'absence d'une adresse, vous pouvez utiliser celle qui figure dans 
les dossiers du gouvernement de l'Ontario ou du gouvernement du Canada ou celle que vous connaissez. 

Si vous résiliez la convention, le fournisseur a quinze (15) jours pour vous rembourser les paiements que vous avez faits et 
vous retourner toutes les marchandises livrées aux termes d'une convention de reprise (ou vous rembourser une somme égale 
à la valeur de reprise). 

Toutefois, si vous résiliez la convention après avoir sollicité les marchandises ou les services du fournisseur et avoir demandé 
qu'ils soient livrés ou que leur exécution commence dans les dix (10) jours qui suivent la date de conclusion de la 
convention, le fournisseur a le droit d'être raisonnablement indemnisé à l'égard des marchandises ou des services que vous 
avez reçus avant le 1 1"^ jour suivant cette date ou, si elle lui est antérieure, avant la date à laquelle vous l'avez avisé de la 
résiliation, sauf s'il peut reprendre possession des marchandises en question ou qu'elles peuvent lui être retournées. 

(3) Si le consommateur doit recevoir des marchandises aux termes de la convention, la déclaration visée à la disposition 
1 1 du paragraphe ( 1 ) énonce également ce qui suit : 

Si le fournisseur demande par écrit de reprendre possession des marchandises dont vous avez pris possession aux termes de la 
convention, vous devez les lui retourner à son adresse ou permettre à l'une des personnes suivantes d'en reprendre possession 
à votre adresse : 

Le fournisseur. 

La personne qu'il a désignée par écrit. 

Si vous résiliez la convention, vous devez prendre raisonnablement soin des marchandises dont vous avez pris possession aux 
termes de celle-ci jusqu'à ce que se produise l'un des événements suivants : 

Le fournisseur en reprend possession. 

Le fournisseur a eu une occasion raisonnable d'en reprendre possession et un délai de vingt et un (21) jours s'est écoulé 
depuis la résiliation de la convention. 

Vous les avez retournées. 

Le fournisseur vous donne par écrit ordre de les détruire et vous suivez ses instructions. 

(4) Le fournisseur peut satisfaire aux exigences prévues à la disposition 1 1 du paragraphe (1) en remettant la déclaration 
exigée par la législation sur la protection du consommateur édictée par une autre province ou un territoire du Canada si les 
conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) elle est exigée dans le cadre de conventions essentiellement équivalentes aux conventions directes; 

b) elle est essentiellement équivalente à la déclaration exigée à la disposition 11. 

Conventions à distanci^ 

Somme prescrite 

36. La somme prescrite pour l'application de l'article 44 de la Loi s'élève à 50 S. 
Divulgation de renseignements 

37. (1) Pour l'application de l'article 45 de la Loi, le fournisseur divulgue au consommateur les renseignements suivants 
avant de conclure une convention à distance avec lui : 

1. Le nom du fournisseur et, s'il est différent, le nom sous lequel la dénomination sous laquelle il exerce ses activités 
commerciales. 

2. Le numéro de téléphone du fournisseur et, le cas échéant, l'adresse de l'établissement où le consommateur est tenu de 
faire affaire avec lui. 

3. La description juste et fidèle des marchandises et des services qu'il est prévu de fournir au consommateur, y compris 
les exigences techniques éventuelles liées à leur utilisation. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 495 



4. La liste détaillée des prix, taxes et frais d'expédition compris, des marchandises et des services qu'il est prévu de 
fournir au consommateur. 

5. La description des autres frais applicables, tels que les droits de douane et les frais de courtage, ainsi que le montant de 
chaque type de frais, si le fournisseur peut raisonnablement le calculer. 

6. La somme totale que, à la connaissance du fournisseur, le consommateur doit payer aux termes de la convention, y 
compris les sommes qui doivent être divulguées en application de la disposition 5, ou, s'il est prévu de fournir les 
marchandises et les services pendant une période indéterminée, le montant et la fréquence des versements périodiques. 

7. Les modalités et les modes de paiement. 

8. S'il y a lieu, la ou les dates de livraison, de commencement de l'exécution, d'exécution successive et d'achèvement de 
l'exécution. 

9. S'il s'agit de marchandises et de services à livrer : 

i. le lieu de livraison, 

ii. le mode de livraison, y compris le nom du transporteur éventuel et le mode de transport, si le fournisseur propose 
un mode de livraison particulier et a l'intention de facturer la livraison au consommateur. 

10. S'il s'agit de services à exécuter, le lieu d'exécution, le bénéficiaire et le mode d'exécution, ainsi que le nom de la 
personne exécutant des services pour le compte du fournisseur que celui-ci propose, le cas échéant. 

1 1. Les droits éventuels du consommateur dont convient le fournisseur et qui s'ajoutent à ceux qui lui sont conférés par la 
Loi, ainsi que les obligations éventuelles du fournisseur que ce dernier assume et qui s'ajoutent à celles qui lui sont 
imposées par la Loi, en matière de résiliation, de retour de marchandises, d'échange et de remboursement. 

12. Si une convention de reprise est prévue, les modalités de cette convention et le montant de la valeur de reprise. 

13. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

14. Toutes les autres restrictions et conditions qu'impose le fournisseur. 

(2) La divulgation qu'exigent l'article 45 de la Loi et le paragraphe (1) du présent article peut être faite oralement ou par 
écrit et encore en renvoyant le consommateur à un document publié où figurent les renseignements exigés. 

Possibilité expresse d'accepter ou de refuser la convention 

38. Pour l'application de l'article 45 de la Loi, le fournisseur donne expressément au consommateur la possibilité 
d'accepter ou de refuser la convention à distance et d'y corriger les erreurs avant de la conclure. 

Copie de la convention à distance 

39. (1) Pour l'application du paragraphe 46 (1) de la Loi, le fournisseur remet une copie écrite de la convention à distance 
au consommateur dans le délai qui commence le jour où il l'a conclue et prend fin à celui des jours suivants qui survient en 
premier : 

a) 30 jours après la facturation des marchandises ou des services par le fournisseur; 

b) 60 jours après la conclusion de la convention par le consommateur. 

(2) Pour l'application du paragraphe 46 (2) de la Loi, la copie de la convention à distance comprend les renseignements 
suivants : 

1. Les renseignements énumérés aux dispositions 1 et 3 à 14 du paragraphe 37 (1) du présent règlement. 

2. Le numéro de téléphone du fournisseur, l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de 
communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

3. Le nom du consommateur. 

4. La date de conclusion de la convention. 

(3) Pour l'application du paragraphe 46 (3) de la Loi, la copie de la convention à distance est remise de l'une des façons 
suivantes : 

1 . D'une façon qui permette au consommateur de la conserver, de l'imprimer ou d'y avoir accès à l'avenir, y compris par 
l'envoi d'un courrier électronique à l'adresse électronique qu'il a donnée au fournisseur pour la communication de 
renseignements relatifs à la convention. 

2. Par l'envoi d'une télécopie au numéro de télécopieur que le consommateur a donné au fournisseur pour la 
communication de renseignements relatifs à la convention. 

3. Sous pli envoyé par la poste ou livré à l'adresse que le consommateur a donnée au fournisseur pour la communication 
de renseignements relatifs à la convention. 

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496 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

4. Par tout autre moyen qui permet au fournisseur de prouver que le consommateur l'a bien reçue. 
Baux auxquels ne s'applique pas la partie VIII de la Loi 

Exigences relatives à certains baux 

40. (1 ) Le présent article s'applique aux baux, au sens de la partie VIII de la Loi, auxquels : 

a) d'une part, s'applique la partie IV de la Loi; 

b) d'autre part, la partie Vlll de la Loi ne s'applique pas par l'effet de l'article 87 de la Loi ou de l'article 77 du présent 
règlement. 

(2) Outre les autres exigences qui s'y appliquent en application de la partie IV de la Loi, les baux visés au paragraphe (1) 
font état des renseignements suivants : 

1. Le fait qu'ils n'ont pas pour effet de transférer le titre des marchandises louées au preneur. 

2. Les pénalités qu'encourt le preneur en cas d'usure ou d'usage excessif ou déraisonnable des marchandises louées et les 
critères qui serviront à établir si une telle usure ou un tel usage s'est produit, ou la façon de calculer de telles pénalités. 

3. Dans le cas des baux avec option, au sens du paragraphe 72 ( 1 ) : 

i. la date et le mode d'exercice de l'option, 

ii. le montant du paiement supplémentaire que le preneur est tenu de faire afin d'exercer l'option au terme de la 
durée du bail, 

iii. la façon de calculer le paiement supplémentaire que le preneur est tenu de faire afin d'exercer l'option avant le 
terme de la durée du bail. 

4. Le fait que, en cas de résiliation anticipée du bail par le preneur, ce dernier n'est pas redevable d'une somme 
supérieure au total des sommes suivantes : 

i. Les versements périodiques exigibles au plus tard le jour de la résiliation du bail qui n'ont pas encore été faits. 

ii. Les frais engagés par le bailleur pour reprendre possession des marchandises louées. 

iii. Les pénalités imposées, le cas échéant, au preneur conformément au bail en cas d'usure ou d'usage excessif ou 
déraisonnable des marchandises louées. 

(3) La définition qui suit s'applique au présent article, 
«durée du bail» S'entend au sens de l'article 86 de la Loi. 

Modification, renouvellement et prorogation de certaines conventions de consommation 

Modification, renouvellement ou prorogation par consentement exprès 

41. (1) Le présent article s'applique uniquement aux conventions de consommation suivantes : 

1 . Les conventions à exécution différée visées par les articles 22 à 26 de la Loi. 

2. Les conventions de multipropriété visées par les articles 27 et 28 de la Loi. 

3. Les conventions électroniques visées par les articles 38 à 40 de la Loi. 

4. Les conventions directes visées par les articles 42 et 43 de la Loi. 

5. Les conventions à distance visées par les articles 45 à 47 de la Loi. 

(2) Les conventions de consommation mentionnées au paragraphe (1) peuvent être modifiées, renouvelées ou prorogées, 
qu'elles contiennent ou non une clause à cet effet, si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) le fournisseur ou le consommateur en propose la modification, le renouvellement ou la prorogation; 

b) le fournisseur remet au consommateur une mise à jour de tous les renseignements qui devaient, aux termes de la Loi 
ou du présent règlement, figurer dans la convention initiale et cette mise à jour tient compte des effets de la proposition 
de modification, de renouvellement ou de prorogation; 

c) la partie qui reçoit la proposition l'accepte expressément et pas seulement de manière tacite. 

(3) Pour l'application de l'alinéa (2) c), le seul fait d'accuser réception de la proposition n'emporte pas son acceptation. 

(4) Si les événements visés aux alinéas (2) a), b) et c) se produisent, la modification, le renouvellement ou la prorogation 
prend effet à la date qui est précisée dans la proposition, à condition que le foumisseur remette par écrit au consommateur 
une version à jour de la convention dans les 45 jours qui suivent l'acceptation de la proposition par la partie qui la reçoit. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 497 



(5) La modification, le renouvellement ou la prorogation n'a pas d'effet rétroactif sur les droits et les obligations du 
consommateur avant la date de sa prise d'effet. 

(6) Le fournisseur et le consommateur sont réputés, pour l'application des paragraphes 28 (1) et 43 (1) de la Loi, avoir 
conclu la convention de multipropriété ou la convention directe dans sa version à jour le jour où sa modification, son 
renouvellement ou sa prorogation prend effet en vertu du présent article. 

Modification, renouvellement ou prorogation conforme à la convention de consommation 

42. (1) Le présent article s'applique uniquement aux conventions de consommation suivantes : 

1 . Les conventions à exécution différée visées par les articles 22 à 26 de la Loi. 

2. Les conventions électroniques visées par les articles 38 à 40 de la Loi. 

3. Les conventions à distance visées par les articles 45 à 47 de la Loi. 

(2) Les conventions de consommation mentionnées au paragraphe (1) qui contiennent une clause à cet effet peuvent être 
modifiées, renouvelées ou prorogées dans les conditions prévues à l'article 41 et dans les conditions suivantes : 

1 . La convention énonce ceux de ses éléments que le fournisseur peut proposer de modifier, de renouveler ou de proroger 
et la fréquence à laquelle il peut présenter une proposition de cette nature. 

2. La convention permet au consommateur de choisir au moins une des possibilités suivantes plutôt que d'accepter la 
proposition : 

i. résilier la convention, 

ii. conserver la convention en l'état. 

3. Le fournisseur est tenu par la convention de donner un préavis de la proposition au consommateur. 

(3) La modification, le renouvellement ou la prorogation prend effet au dernier en date des jours suivants : 

a) la date précisée dans l'avis; 

b) 30 jours après réception de l'avis par le consommateur. 

(4) La modification, le renouvellement ou la prorogation n'a pas d'effet rétroactif sur les droits et les obligations du 
consommateur avant la date de sa prise d'effet. 

(5) L'avis de proposition de modification, de renouvellement ou de prorogation qui est présenté par le fournisseur a les 
caractéristiques suivantes : 

a) il fournit une mise à jour de tous les renseignements qui devaient, en application de la Loi ou du présent règlement, 
figurer dans la convention initiale et cette mise à jour tient compte des effets de la proposition de modification, de 
renouvellement ou de prorogation; 

b) il fait état de tous les changements qu'il est proposé d'apporter à la convention et indique notamment le texte modifié 
de chaque clause concernée; 

c) il est conforme aux éléments de la convention mentionnés aux dispositions 1 et 2 du paragraphe (2); 

d) il indique la date de prise d'effet de la modification, du renouvellement ou de la prorogation; 

e) il précise la façon, conforme au paragraphe (6), dont le consommateur pourra y répondre; 

f) il indique les conséquences qu'entraînerait l'absence de réponse du consommateur; 

g) il est remis au consommateur de façon à ce qu'il soit susceptible d'en prendre connaissance; 

h) il est remis au consommateur entre 30 et 90 jours avant la date proposée de prise d'effet de la modification, du 
renouvellement ou de la prorogation. 

(6) La façon dont le consommateur peut répondre à l'avis n'entraîne aucun coût pour lui et est d'un usage facile. 

(7) La modification, le renouvellement ou la prorogation proposé visé au présent article qui n'est pas conforme aux 
paragraphes (5) et (6) n'a pas d'effet. 

Aucun changement de nature 

43. Les conventions de multipropriété, les conventions électroniques, les conventions directes ou les conventions à 
distance qui ont été modifiées, renouvelées ou prorogées en vertu de l'article 41 ou 42 continuent d'être considérées comme 
telles même si, en raison de la façon dont elles l'ont été, elles ne correspondent plus aux définitions de ces termes au 
paragraphe 20 ( 1 ) de la Loi. 

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498 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



PARTIE V 
COURTAGE EN PRÊTS ET REDRESSEMENT DE CRÉDIT— PARTIE V DE LA LOI 

Exigences : conventions de courtage en prêts 

44. (1) Pour l'application de l'arlicle 49 de la Loi, la convention de consommation portant sur le courtage en prêts doit 
être signée par le consommateur et le courtier en prêts et fait état des renseignements suivants : 

1 . Le nom du consommateur. 

2. Le nom du courtier en prêts et, s'il est différent, le nom sous lequel il exerce ses activités commerciales. 

3. Le numéro de téléphone du courtier en prêts, l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de 
communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

4. Les noms des personnes suivantes : 

i. la personne éventuelle qui a sollicité le consommateur à propos de la convention, 
ii. la personne éventuelle qui a négocié la convention avec le consommateur, 
iii. la personne qui a conclu la convention avec le consommateur. 

5. La liste détaillée des services et des marchandises devant être fournis au consommateur par le courtier en prêts, qui 
décrit fidèlement et précisément chaque service et marchandise et qui fait état des renseignements suivants : 

i. s'ils sont connus, les noms des personnes auprès desquelles le courtier tentera d'obtenir un crédit ou un prêt 
d'argent pour le consommateur, 

ii. le montant du crédit ou du prêt d'argent que le courtier tentera d'obtenir pour le consommateur. 

6. S'il y a lieu, les dates de livraison, de commencement de l'exécution, d'exécution successive et d'achèvement de 
l'exécution. 

7. La date à laquelle, au plus tard, le consommateur doit recevoir le crédit ou le prêt d'argent. 

8. La somme totale que le consommateur doit payer au courtier en prêts, ainsi que les modalités et les modes de 
paiement. 

9. La partie, exprimée en dollars et cents, de la somme totale payable qui est attribuable à chaque service ou marchandise 
devant être fourni aux termes de la convention. 

10. La déclaration prévue au paragraphe (2) qui : 

i. d'une part, est en caractères d'au moins 10 points, le titre étant en caractères gras d'au moins 12 points, 

ii. d'autre part, figure à la première page de la convention à moins qu'un avis, figurant en caractères gras d'au moins 
12 points à cette page, n'indique où elle se trouve dans la convention. 

11. La date de conclusion de la convention. 

12. Si une convention de reprise est prévue, les modalités de cette convention et le montant de la valeur de reprise. 

13. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

14. Toutes les autres restrictions et conditions qu'impose le courtier en prêts. 
(2) La déclaration visée à la disposition 10 du paragraphe ( 1 ) énonce ce qui suit : 

Vos droits selon la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur 

Vous avez le droit de résilier la présente convention en tout temps jusqu'à dix (10) jours après en avoir reçu une copie écrite 
sans donner de raison au courtier en prêts. 

Vous pouvez également la résilier pour certains motifs et avoir d'autres droits, obligations ou recours en droit. Veuillez 
communiquer avec le ministère des Services aux consommateurs et aux entreprises pour de plus amples renseignements. 

Si vous souhaitez résilier la convention, vous devez en aviser le courtier en prêts à l'adresse qui y est indiquée par un moyen 
qui vous permette de prouver la date de remise de l'avis. En l'absence d'une adresse, vous pouvez utiliser celle qui figure 
dans les dossiers du gouvemement de l'Ontario ou du gouvernement du Canada ou celle que vous connaissez. 

Commet une infraction le courtier en prêts qui exige ou accepte un paiement ou une garantie de paiement avant que vous ne 
receviez le crédit ou le prêt d'argent qu'il vous aide à obtenir. Si le courtier en prêts exige ou accepte de votre part un tel 
paiement ou une telle garantie, vous pouvez lui demander de vous le rendre dans l'année qui suit la date où vous le lui avez 
remis. 

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Si vous résiliez la convention, le courtier en prêts a quinze (15) jours pour vous rembourser les paiements que vous avez faits 
et vous retourner toutes les marchandises livrées aux termes d'une convention de reprise (ou vous rembourser une somme 
égale à la valeur de reprise). 

Assertions interdites : courtier en prêts 

45. Pour l'application de l'article 53 de la Loi, il est interdit au courtier en prêts de faire les assertions suivantes : 

1. L'assertion expresse ou implicite qu'il est agréé ou inscrit par le gouvernement du Canada, celui de l'Ontario ou celui 
d'une autre province ou d'un territoire du Canada, ou titulaire d'un permis octroyé par un de ces gouvernements. 

2. L'assertion expresse ou implicite que ses activités sont réglementées par le gouvernement du Canada, le gouvernement 
de l'Ontario ou par le gouvernement d'une autre province ou d'un territoire du Canada. 

Exigences : conventions de redressement de crédit 

46. (1) Pour l'application de l'article 49 de la Loi, la convention de consommation portant sur le redressement de crédit 
doit être signée par le consommateur et le redresseur de crédit et fait état des renseignements suivants : 

1 . Le nom du consommateur. ' 

2. Le nom du redresseur de crédit et, s'il est différent, le nom sous lequel il exerce ses activités commerciales. 

3. Le numéro de téléphone du redresseur de crédit, l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons 
de communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

4. Les noms des personnes suivantes : 

i. la personne éventuelle qui a sollicité le consommateur à propos de la convention, 
ii. la personne éventuelle qui a négocié la convention avec le consommateur, 
iii. la personne qui a conclu la convention avec le consommateur. 

5. La liste détaillée des services et des marchandises devant être fournis au consommateur par le redresseur de crédit, qui 
décrit fidèlement et précisément chaque service et marchandise. 

6. S'il y a lieu, la ou les dates de livraison, de commencement de l'exécution, d'exécution successive et d'achèvement de 
l'exécution. 

7. La date à laquelle, au plus tard, le redresseur de crédit doit apporter une amélioration importante du rapport sur le 
consommateur, des renseignements sur sa solvabilité, de son dossier, de ses renseignements personnels, de son dossier 
de crédit, de ses antécédents en matière de crédit ou de sa cote de solvabilité. 

8. La somme totale que le consommateur paiera au redresseur de crédit ainsi que les modalités et les modes de paiement. 

9. La partie, exprimée en dollars et cents, de la somme totale payable qui est attribuable à chaque service ou marchandise 
devant être fourni aux termes de la convention. 

10. La déclaration prévue au paragraphe (2) qui : 

i. d'une part, est en caractères d'au moins 10 points, le titre étant en caractères gras d'au moins 12 points, 
ii. d'autre part, figure à la première page de la convention. 

11. La déclaration prévue au paragraphe (3) qui : 

i. d'une part, est en caractères d'au moins 10 points, le titre étant en caractères gras d'au moins 12 points, 

ii. d'autre part, figure à la première page de la convention à moins qu'un avis, figurant en caractères gras d'au moins 
12 points à cette page, n'indique où elle se trouve dans la convention. 

1 2. La date de conclusion de la convention. 

13. Si une convention de reprise est prévue, les modalités de cette convention et le montant de la valeur de reprise. 

14. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

15. Toutes les autres restrictions et conditions qu'impose le redresseur de crédit. 
(2) La déclaration visée à la disposition 10 du paragraphe (1) énonce ce qui suit : 

Vos droits selon la Loi sur les renseignements concernant le consommateur 

Si une agence de renseignements sur le consommateur tient un dossier de crédit sur vous, vous avez le droit de contester 
auprès d'elle, et sans frais de votre part, l'exactitude et l'intégralité des renseignements vous concernant qui y figurent. Vous 
n'avez pas à engager un redresseur de crédit ni qui que ce soit d'autre pour exercer ce droit. Si les renseignements qui 

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500 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



figurent dans le dossier de crédit sont inexacts ou incomplets, l'agence doit apporter les corrections nécessaires dans un délai 
raisonnable. 

Toutefois, vous n'avez pas le droit de faire retirer de votre dossier de crédit des renseignements défavorables mais exacts. 
L'agence de renseignements sur le consommateur les en retire habituellement au bout de sept (7) ans. 

Vous pouvez également déposer, auprès du ministère des Services aux consommateurs et aux entreprises, une plainte sur les 
renseignements vous concernant qui figurent dans un dossier de crédit d'une agence de renseignements sur le consommateur. 

(3) La déclaration visée à la disposition 1 1 du paragraphe ( I ) énonce ce qui suit : 

Vos droits selon la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur 

Vous avez le droit de résilier la présente convention en tout temps jusqu'à dix (10) jours après en avoir reçu une copie écrite 
sans donner de raison au redresseur de crédit. 

Vous pouvez également la résilier pour certains motifs et avoir d'autres droits, obligations ou recours en droit. Veuillez 
communiquer avec le ministère des Services aux consommateurs et aux entreprises pour de plus amples renseignements. 

Si vous souhaitez résilier la convention, vous devez en aviser le redresseur de crédit à l'adresse qui y est indiquée par un 
moyen qui vous permette de prouver la date de remise de l'avis. En l'absence d'une adresse, vous pouvez utiliser celle qui 
figure dans les dossiers du gouvernement de l'Ontario ou du gouvernement du Canada ou celle que vous connaissez. 

Commet une infraction le redresseur de crédit qui exige ou accepte un paiement ou une garantie de paiement avant d'apporter 
une amélioration importante de votre dossier de crédit. Si le redresseur de crédit exige ou accepte de votre part un tel 
paiement ou une telle garantie, vous pouvez lui demander de vous le rendre dans l'année qui suit la date où vous le lui avez 
remis. 

Si vous résiliez la convention, le redresseur de crédit a quinze (15) jours pour vous rembourser les paiements que vous avez 
faits et vous retourner toutes les marchandises livrées aux termes d'une convention de reprise (ou vous rembourser une 
somme égale à la valeur de reprise). 

Assertions interdites : redresseur de crédit 

47. (I) Pour l'application de l'article 53 de la Loi, il est interdit au redresseur de crédit de faire les assertions suivantes : 

1. L'assertion expresse ou implicite qu'il est agréé par le gouvernement du Canada, celui de l'Ontario ou celui d'une 
autre province ou d'un territoire du Canada, titulaire d'un permis octroyé par un de ces gouvernements ou réglementé 
par lui. 

2. L'assertion expresse ou implicite que ses activités sont réglementées par le gouvernement du Canada, celui de 
l'Ontario ou celui d'une autre province ou d'un territoire du Canada. 

3. Sous réserve du paragraphe (2), l'assertion expresse ou implicite qu'il sera en mesure d'amener une amélioration 
importante du rapport sur le consommateur, des renseignements sur sa solvabilité, de son dossier, de ses 
renseignements personnels, de son dossier de crédit, de ses antécédents en matière de crédit ou de sa cote de 
solvabilité. 

(2) L'assertion visée à la disposition 3 du paragraphe (I) ne constitue pas une assertion interdite si le redresseur de crédit 
la fait : 

a) d'une part, après avoir examiné le rapport sur le consommateur, les renseignements sur sa solvabilité, son dossier, ses 
renseignements personnels, son dossier de crédit, ses antécédents en matière de crédit ou sa cote de solvabilité; 

b) d'autre part, après avoir raisonnablement conclu que le rapport sur le consommateur, les renseignements sur sa 
solvabilité, son dossier, ses renseignements personnels, son dossier de crédit, ses antécédents en matière de crédit ou sa 
cote de solvabilité sont inexacts ou incomplets et que le fait de corriger, de compléter ou de retirer tout élément 
d'information les améliorerait de façon importante. 

PARTIE VI 
RÉPARATIONS DE VÉHICULES ALTOIVIOBILES — PARTIE VI DE LA LOI 

Devis 

48. Pour l'application du paragraphe 56 (1) de la Loi, le devis indiquant le coût total des travaux et des réparations 
effectués sur un véhicule est établi par écrit et comprend les renseignements suivants ; 

1 . Le nom du consommateur. 

2. Le nom du réparateur et, s'il est différent, le nom sous lequel il exerce ses activités commerciales. 

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3. Le numéro de téléphone du réparateur, l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de 
communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

4. La marque, le modèle, le numéro d'identification et le numéro d'immatriculation du véhicule. 

5. Le nombre de kilomètres ou de milles au compteur au moment de l'établissement du devis. 

6. La description exacte des travaux ou des réparations à effectuer sur le véhicule. 

7. La liste détaillée des pièces à installer et une déclaration précisant s'il s'agit de pièces neuves, usagées ou remises en 
état et, en ce qui concerne les pièces neuves, si elles proviennent ou non de l'équipementier d'origine. 

8. La somme qui sera facturée au consommateur pour chaque pièce indiquée sur la liste prévue à la disposition 7. 

9. Le nombre d'heures facturables pour faire les travaux et les réparations, le tarif horaire demandé, éventuellement le 
taux fixe applicable à certains travaux ou à certaines réparations, ainsi que le coût total de la main-d'oeuvre. 

10. La liste détaillée de toutes les autres marchandises et de tous les autres services, tels que le remisage, le ramassage ou 
la livraison du véhicule ou le prêt temporaire d'un autre véhicule, qui seront fournis au consommateur dans le cadre de 
l'opération et qui lui seront facturés, ainsi que la somme qui lui sera facturée dans chaque cas. 

11. Si le consommateur a refusé qu'on lui retourne des pièces qui doivent être retirées au cours des travaux ou des 
réparations effectués sur le véhicule : 

i. d'une part, une déclaration dans ce sens, 

ii. d'autre part, le rabais qui lui sera au besoin accordé. 

12. La somme totale qui sera facturée au consommateur. 

13. Les dates d'établissement et d'expiration du devis. 

14. La date limite d'achèvement des travaux et des réparations. 

15. La mention que le réparateur ne facturera pas une somme qui dépasse de plus de 10 pour cent la somme estimative 
visée à la disposition 12. 

Autorisation donnée autrement que par écrit 

49. Pour l'application de l'article 59 de la Loi, les renseignements suivants doivent être consignés pour que prenne effet 
l'autorisation donnée autrement que par écrit au réparateur qui fait des travaux sur un véhicule ou qui le répare : 

1 . Le nom de la personne qui donne l'autorisation. 

2. La date et l'heure où est donnée l'autorisation. 

3. Le numéro de téléphone de la personne ayant donné l'autorisation par téléphone ou, si l'autorisation a été donnée 
autrement, la façon de communiquer par le même moyen avec elle. 

Afficliage d'écriteaux 

50. Pour l'application de l'article 60 de la Loi, le réparateur qui fait des travaux sur un véhicule ou qui le répare affiche les 
renseignements suivants sur un ou plusieurs écriteaux de sorte que les renseignements ainsi divulgués soient clairs, 
compréhensibles et bien en évidence : 

1. L'obligation du réparateur de fournir un devis écrit sauf si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

i. le réparateur offre au consommateur de lui fournir un devis et ce dernier le refuse, 

ii. le consommateur autorise expressément la somme maximale qu'il lui paiera pour faire la réparation ou le travail, 

iii. le coût facturé du travail ou de la réparation n'est pas supérieur à la sotimie maximale autorisée par le 
consommateur. 

2. L'imposition éventuelle de frais de devis et, dans ce cas : 

i. leur montant, 

ii. le fait que le réparateur n'en exigera pas si les travaux et les réparations sont autorisés et faits, sauf s'il est 
impossible d'obtenir l'autorisation dans un délai raisonnable et qu'il réassemble le véhicule avant d'entamer les 
travaux ou les réparations afin de le déplacer pour dégager l'espace réservé aux réparations. 

3. La description de la méthode de calcul des frais de main-d'oeuvre, y compris : 

i. le tarif horaire, 

ii. l'utilisation éventuelle d'un taux fixe pour certains travaux ou certaines réparations et, dans ce cas, le taux et les 
travaux et réparations visés, 

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502 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

iii. les frais éventuels de diagnostic et, dans ce cas, la façon de les calculer. 

4. Les commissions éventuelles que recevrait le réparateur, ou toute personne qui ferait les travaux ou les réparations 
pour son compte, à l'égard des pièces vendues, ainsi que, dans ce cas, la façon de les calculer et les pièces visées. 

5. La liste détaillée de toutes les marchandises et de tous les services, autres que les pièces, les fournitures et la main- 
d'oeuvre, qui peuvent être facturés au consommateur tels que le remisage, le ramassage ou la livraison du véhicule ou 
le prêt temporaire d'un autre véhicule, ainsi que la somme facturée dans chaque cas. 

6. Le fait que toutes les pièces retirées au cours des travaux ou des réparations seront à la disposition du consommateur 
une fois ceux-ci terminés, sauf dans les cas suivants : 

i. le consommateur avise le réparateur, lorsqu'il autorise les travaux et les réparations, qu'il n'est pas nécessaire de 
lui rendre les pièces, 

ii. les pièces sont remplacées dans le cadre d'une garantie qui exige leur renvoi au fabricant ou au distributeur, 

iii. les pièces de rechange ou les travaux ou les réparations qui s'y rapportent ne sont pas facturés au consommateur. 

Factures 

51. Pour l'application de l'article 62 de la Loi, la facture portant sur les travaux ou les réparations faits sur le véhicule est 
faite par écrit et comprend les renseignements suivants : 

1 . Le nom du consommateur. 

2. Le nom du réparateur et, s'il est différent, le nom sous lequel il exerce ses activités commerciales. 

3. Le numéro de téléphone du réparateur, l'adresse de son établissement, ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de 
communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro de télécopieur et son adresse électronique. 

4. La marque, le modèle, le numéro d'identification et le numéro d'immatriculation du véhicule. 

5. La date d'autorisation des travaux et des réparations. 

6. La date d'achèvement des travaux et des réparations. 

7. La date à laquelle le véhicule est rendu au consommateur. 

8. Le nombre de kilomètres ou de milles au compteur lorsque le consommateur autorise les travaux et les réparations à 
effectuer et lorsque le véhicule lui est rendu. 

9. La description exacte des travaux et des réparations effectués sur le véhicule. 

10. La liste détaillée des pièces installées et une déclaration précisant s'il s'agit de pièces neuves, usagées ou remises en 
état et, en ce qui concerne les pièces neuves, si elles proviennent ou non de l'équipementier d'origine. 

11. La somme facturée au consommateur pour chaque pièce indiquée sur la liste prévue à la disposition 10. '' 

1 2. La liste détaillée des fournitures utilisées qui sont facturées au consommateur et la somme facturée pour chacune. 

1 3. Le coût total de la main-d'oeuvre et la façon de le calculer, y compris : 

i. le nombre d'heures facturées pour faire les travaux et les réparations, ainsi que le tarif horaire demandé, 

ii. si un taux fixe a été appliqué à certains travaux ou à certaines réparations, le taux et les travaux et réparations 
visés, 

iii. le montant des frais éventuels de diagnostic. 

14. La liste détaillée de toutes les autres marchandises et de tous les autres services, tels que le remisage, le ramassage ou 
la livraison du véhicule ou le prêt temporaire d'un autre véhicule, qui ont été fournis au consommateur dans le cadre 
de l'opération et qui lui sont facturés, ainsi que la somme facturée dans chaque cas. 

15. Si le consommateur a refusé qu'on lui retourne des pièces retirées au cours des travaux ou des réparations effectués sur 
le véhicule : 

i. d'une part, une déclaration dans ce sens, 

ii. d'autre part, le rabais qui lui sera au besoin accordé. 

16. La somme totale qui est facturée au consommateur, ainsi que les modalités et les modes de paiement. 

1 7. Si le réparateur a remis un devis au consommateur, la somme qui y figure à titre de montant total de la facture. 

18. Si le réparateur n'a pas remis de devis au consommateur, la somme maximale que ce dernier a expressément autorisée 
en vertu du paragraphe 56 (2) de la Loi. 



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19. Les conditions de la garantie offerte par le réparateur pour toutes les pièces neuves qui proviennent ou non de 
l'équipementier d'origine, pour toutes les pièces remises en état et pour la main-d'oeuvre nécessaire à leur installation, 
si cette garantie est, à l'égard de la durée et de la distance, égale ou supérieure à celle que prévoit l'article 63 de la Loi, 
qui est assujetti aux alinéas 52 a) et b) du présent règlement. 

20. Les mentions suivantes pour les pièces neuves ou remises en état, ou la main-d'oeuvre nécessaire à leur installation, 
qui ne font pas l'objet d'une garantie décrite à la disposition 19 : 

i. le réparateur les garantit pour au moins 90 jours ou, s'ils sont parcourus en moins de temps, 5 000 kilomètres, 

ii. la garantie énoncée à la sous-disposition i est prévue par la Loi et le consommateur ne peut pas y renoncer, 

iii. la garantie énoncée à la sous-disposition i ne vise : 

A. ni les liquides, filtres, feux et lumières, pneus et batteries, 

B. ni les pièces qui n'étaient pas couvertes par la garantie du fabricant lors de la vente du véhicule neuf 

21. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

22. Toutes les autres restrictions et conditions qu'impose le réparateur. 

23. La déclaration suivante : 

La Loi de 2002 si4r la protection du consommateur vous confère des droits dans le domaine de la réparation des 
véhicules automobiles. Vous avez entre autres le droit d'obtenir un devis écrit, et le montant de la facture ne doit pas 
dépasser de plus de dix (10) pour cent la somme figurant sur le devis. Si vous renoncez à ce droit, le réparateur doit 
vous faire autoriser la somme maximale que vous paierez pour les réparations. Il ne doit pas vous facturer une somme 
qui lui serait supérieure. Dans tous les cas, il ne doit pas facturer de travaux que vous n'avez pas autorisés. 

Nous vous suggérons de communiquer avec le ministère des Services aux consommateurs et aux entreprises si vous 
avez des questions au sujet des travaux ou des réparations effectués par le réparateur ou en ce qui concerne vos droits 
et vos obligations selon la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur. 

Dispenses 

52. L'article 63 de la Loi ne s'applique pas à ce qui suit : 

a) les liquides, filtres, feux et lumières, pneus et batteries; 

b) les pièces qui n'étaient pas couvertes par la garantie du fabricant lors de la vente du véhicule neuf; 

c) les pièces installées ou la main-d'oeuvre nécessaire à leur installation qui sont couvertes par une garantie qui, à l'égard 
de la durée et de la distance, est égale ou supérieure à celle que prévoit l'article 63 de la Loi. 

PARTIE VII 
CONVENTIONS DE CRÉDIT — PARTIE VII DE LA LOI 

DéHnition 

53. La définition qui suit s'applique à la présente partie. 

«délai de grâce» Période durant laquelle les frais précisés dans la convention de crédit s'accumulent mais seront remis si 
l'emprunteur se conforme à certaines conditions qui y soit précisées. 

Avance 

54. (1) Pour l'application de la définition d'«avance» à l'article 66 de la Loi, les éléments suivants constituent une valeur 
que l'emprunteur reçoit aux termes d'une convention de crédit : 

1. Les sommes d'argent transférées à l'emprunteur ou à son ordre conformément à la convention. 

2. Dans le cas d'une convention de crédit fournisseur aux termes de laquelle l'emprunteur obtient du fournisseur des 
marchandises ou des services : 

i. leur prix, exprimé comme s'ils avaient été vendus au comptant plutôt qu'à crédit, sous réserve de la sous- 
disposition ii, 

ii. si l'emprunteur est tenu de refuser la totalité ou une partie d'une remise ou de payer un prix supérieur pour les 
marchandises ou les services afin de pouvoir conclure une convention de crédit fournisseur à un taux d'intérêt 
déterminé, le prix le plus bas, déduction faite de la remise applicable, qu'offre le fournisseur pour ces 
marchandises et ces services. 

3. Le montant de l'obligation monétaire préexistante de l'emprunteur que le prêteur paie, exécute ou consolide dans le 
cadre de la convention de crédit, que cette obligation soit ou non reliée à celle-ci. 

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504 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

4. La somme d'argent obtenue par l'emprunteur en utilisant une carte de crédit émise aux termes de la convention de 
crédit ou le prix au comptant de la marchandise ou du service qu'il obtient ainsi. 

5. Les dépenses suivantes que le prêteur a engagées en tout ou en partie dans le cadre de la convention de crédit, si 
l'emprunteur est tenu de les lui rembourser : 

i. Les frais de recherche dans les dossiers concernant les véhicules automobiles qui sont prévus par le Code de la 
route afin de confirmer la propriété ou le numéro d'identification d'un véhicule. 

ii. Les frais d'obtention d'une déclaration ou d'une copie certifiée conforme dans laquelle figurent les 
renseignements provenant de ces dossiers. 

6. Les dépenses suivantes que le prêteur a engagées en tout ou en partie dans le cadre de la convention, si l'emprunteur 
est tenu de les lui rembourser et qu'il lui fournit une sûreté mobilière pour garantir la dette contractée dans le cadre de 
la convention de crédit : 

i. Les honoraires professionnels liés aux services nécessaires pour confirmer la valeur, l'état, l'emplacement ou la 
conformité à la loi des biens grevés de la sûreté, si la personne qui fournit ces services remet un rapport signé à 
l'emprunteur et que ce dernier a le droit de le remettre à autrui. 

ii. Les frais d'assurance des biens grevés de la sûreté, si l'emprunteur est le bénéficiaire de l'assurance et que la 
somme assurée est égale à la pleine valeur assurable des biens. 

iii. Les frais d'enregistrement d'un état de financement ou d'un état de modification du financement dans un registre 
public de sûretés mobilières, les frais de recherche dans ce registre ou les frais de toute demande d'information en 
rapport avec la sûreté fournie par l'emprunteur. 

iv. Les frais d'enregistrement, sous le régime d'enregistrement des droits immobiliers ou le régime d'enregistrement 
immobilier, d'un avis de sûreté prévu à l'alinéa 54 (1) a) de la Loi sur les sûretés mobilières, d'un avis de 
prorogation prévu au paragraphe 54 (3) de cette loi ou d'un certificat de mainlevée ou de mainlevée partielle de 
l'avis de sûreté prévu au paragraphe 54 (4) de cette loi, ainsi que les frais de recherche dans le régime ou les frais 
de toute demande d'information en rapport avec la sûreté fournie par l'emprunteur. 

(2) «frais» S'entend de ce qui suit ; 

a) aux sous-dispositions 5 i et ii du paragraphe ( 1 ), les frais engagés pour la recherche ou l'obtention d'une déclaration et, 
s'il y a lieu, les frais de service versés à un mandataire; 

b) aux sous-dispositions 6 iii et iv du paragraphe (I), les frais engagés pour l'enregistrement, la recherche ou une 
demande d'information et, s'il y a lieu, les frais de service versés à un mandataire. 

Taux de crédit d'une convention de crédit 

55. ( 1 ) Pour l'application de la définition de «taux de crédit» à l'article 66 de la Loi : 

a) le taux de crédit d'une convention de crédit est le taux d'intérêt annuel qui y est énoncé si les conditions suivantes sont 
réunies : 

(i) la convention de crédit ne prévoit pas le calcul des intérêts à une fréquence supérieure à celle des versements à 
date fixe que l'emprunteur est tenu d'effectuer, 

(ii) le coût d'emprunt dont est assortie la convention de crédit se compose uniquement d'intérêts; 

b) le taux de crédit de toute autre convention de crédit est calculé selon la formule suivante : 

[C-(Dx M)] X 100 , , 

où: 

«C» représente le coût d'emprunt, 

«D» représente la durée, en nombre d'années, de la convention de crédit, 

«M» représente le solde moyen du capital impayé à la fin de chaque période de calcul des intérêts pendant la durée de la 
convention de crédit, avant imputation des paiements exigés de l'emprunteur, en supposant des périodes de calcul 
identiques. 

(2) Pour le calcul de «M» au paragraphe ( 1 ) b) : 

a) le capital impayé au début de la durée de la convention de crédit est égal à la différence entre le total de toutes les 
avances que l'emprunteur a reçues au plus tard au début de la convention et le total de tous les paiements qu'il a faits 
jusqu'à ce moment-là; 

b) le capital ne comprend aucune partie du coût d'emprunt et le solde du capital impayé ne comprend jamais une partie 
quelconque du coût d'emprunt accumulé; 

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c) chaque paiement fait par l'emprunteur dans le cadre de la convention de crédit est considéré comme étant d'abord 
affecté au coût d'emprunt accumulé puis, s'il lui est supérieur, au solde du capital impayé; 

d) le résultat obtenu en utilisant la formule suivante à l'égard de chaque période de calcul des intérêts constitue le coût 
d'emprunt pour cette période : 

TC/lOOxRxS 

où : 

«TC» représente le taux de crédit, 

«P» représente la durée de la période de calcul des intérêts, exprimée en fraction d'année; 

«S» représente le solde du capital impayé à la fin de la période de calcul des intérêts avant imputation des paiements exigés 
de l'emprunteur. 

(3) Malgré la définition de «année» à l'article 1 de la Loi, l'année est considérée comme ayant 365 jours pour le calcul du 
taux de crédit d'une convention de crédit. 

(4) Le taux de crédit d'une convention de crédit qui prévoit des intervalles de paiement mesurés en semaines ou en mois 
peut être calculé en présumant que chaque semaine est égale à ^l^j d'année et chaque mois à V|2 d'année. 

(5) Le taux de crédit d'une convention de crédit qui doit être calculé à un moment où le taux d'intérêt pour une période de 
la durée de la convention est inconnu est calculé comme si le taux d'intérêt pour cette période devait être établi en se fondant 
sur les circonstances en existence au moment du calcul. 

(6) Le taux de crédit d'une convention de crédit à taux fixe qui ne prévoit pas de versements à date fixe est calculé en 
présumant que le solde impayé sera remboursé en un paiement unique à l'expiration de la convention. 

(7) En cas de renouvellement d'une convention de crédit, le taux de crédit est calculé en présumant que l'emprunteur 
reçoit, à la date du renouvellement, une avance qui équivaut au solde impayé à l'expiration de la convention de crédit 
renouvelée. 

(8) Aux paragraphes (3) à (7), les mentions du calcul du taux de crédit comprennent le calcul de toute somme entrant dans 
ce calcul. 

(9) Le taux de crédit déclaré d'une convention de crédit est réputé exact si l'écart avec le taux de crédit calculé en 
conformité avec le présent article est égal ou inférieur à un huitième de un pour cent. 

Coût d'emprunt 

56. (1) Pour l'application de l'alinéa a) de la définition de «coût d'emprunt» à l'article 66 de la Loi, le coût d'emprunt ne 
comprend pas le paiement ou le remboursement par l'emprunteur d'une partie du total des avances qu'il a reçues. 

(2) Pour l'application de l'alinéa b) de la définition de «coût d'emprunt» à l'article 66 de la Loi, les frais suivants sont 
prescrits comme étant exclus du coût d'emprunt : 

1. Si l'emprunteur fournit une sûreté mobilière pour garantir la dette qu'il contracte dans le cadre de la convention de 
crédit : 

i. les honoraires professionnels liés aux services nécessaires pour confirmer la valeur, l'état, l'emplacement ou la 
conformité à la loi des biens grevés de la sûreté, si la personne qui fournit ces services remet un rapport signé à 
l'emprunteur et que ce dernier a le droit de le remettre à autrui, 

ii. les frais d'assurance des biens grevés de la sûreté, si l'emprunteur est le bénéficiaire de l'assurance et que la 
somme assurée est égale à la pleine valeur assurable des biens, 

iii. les frais d'enregistrement d'un état de financement ou d'un état de modification du financement dans un registre 
public de sûretés mobilières, les frais de recherche dans ce registre ou les frais de toute demande d'information en 
rapport avec la sûreté fournie par l'emprunteur, 

iv. les frais d'enregistrement, sous le régime d'enregistrement des droits immobiliers ou le régime d'enregistrement 
immobilier, d'un avis de sûreté prévu à l'alinéa 54 (1) a) de la Loi sur les sûretés mobilières, d'un avis de 
prorogation prévu au paragraphe 54 (3) de cette loi ou d'un certificat de mainlevée ou de mainlevée partielle de 
l'avis de sûreté prévu au paragraphe 54 (4) de cette loi, ainsi que les frais de recherche dans le régime ou les frais 
de toute demande d'information en rapport avec la sûreté fournie par l'emprunteur. 

2. Les frais de recherche dans les dossiers concernant les véhicules automobiles qui sont prévus par le Code de la route 
afin de confirmer la propriété ou le numéro d'identification d'un véhicule, ainsi que les frais d'obtention d'une 
déclaration ou d'une copie certifiée conforme dans laquelle figurent les renseignements provenant de ces dossiers. 

3. Les frais de découvert. 

4. Les frais et indemnités de paiement anticipé. 

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506 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

5. Les frais associés aux services facultatifs que l'emprunteur a acceptés. 
(3) «frais» S'entend de ce qui suit ; 

a) aux sous-dispositions 1 iii et iv du paragraphe (2), les frais engagés pour renregislremenl, la recherche ou une 
demande d'information et, s'il y a lieu, les frais de service versés à un mandataire; 

b) à la disposition 2 du paragraphe (2), les frais engagés pour l'enregistrement ou l'obtention d'une déclaration et, s'il y a 
lieu, les frais de service versés à un mandataire. 

Taux variable 

57. Pour l'application de la définition de «taux variable» à l'article 66 de la Loi, un indice est un indice public s'il est 
publié au moins une fois par semaine dans une publication à grande diffusion en Ontario. 

Responsabilité maximale : débits non autorisés 

58. (1) Le présent article s'applique aux débits qui sont imputés sans l'autorisation de l'emprunteur aux termes d'une 
convention relative à une carte de crédit si celle-ci est utilisée après avoir été perdue ou volée. 

(2) Pour l'application de l'article 69 de la Loi : 

a) l'emprunteur n'est pas redevable des débits imputés après qu'il a avisé le prêteur, verbalement ou par écrit, de la perte 
ou du vol de la carte de crédit; 

b) la responsabilité maximale de l'emprunteur à l'égard des débits imputés avant qu'il n'avise, verbalement ou par écrit, 
le prêteur de la perte ou du vol de la carte de crédit s'élève au moins élevé des sommes suivantes : 

(i) 50$, 

(ii) la somme maximale, fixée par le prêteur ou convenue avec lui, dont l'emprunteur sera redevable dans un cas 
pareil. 

Disposition transitoire : responsabilité à l'égard du coût d'emprunt 

59. Pour l'application de l'article 70 de la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur aux conventions de crédit 
conclues avant le jour de sa proclamation en vigueur, les déclarations qui devaient être remises aux emprunteurs à leur égard 
aux termes de l'article 24 ou 25 de la Loi sur la protection du consommateur, avant qu'elle ne soit abrogée par la Loi de 2002 
modifiant des lois en ce qui concerne la protection du consommateur, sont réputées des déclarations qui doivent l'être en 
vertu de la partie Vil de la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur. 

Remboursement ou crédit : paiement anticipé 

60. (1) Pour l'application du paragraphe 76 (2) de la Loi, si l'emprunteur paie par anticipation le solde impayé intégral 
relatif à une convention de crédit fixe, le prêteur lui rembourse ou porte à son crédit la partie de chaque type de frais autres 
que les intérêts, calculée en application du paragraphe (2), qu'il a payée ou qui a été ajoutée au solde aux termes de la 
convention et qui fait partie du coût d'emprunt. 

(2) La partie de chaque type de frais, autres que les intérêts, que l'emprunteur a payée ou qui a été ajoutée au solde aux 
termes de la convention et qui fait partie du coût d'emprunt qui doit être remboursée à l'emprunteur ou portée à son crédit est 
calculée selon la formule suivante : 

F X [(N - M) - N] 

où : 

«F» représente le montant des frais, 

«N» représente la période écoulée entre le moment de l'imposition des frais et l'expiration prévue de la convention de 
crédit, 

«M» représente la période écoulée entre le moment de l'imposition des frais et le paiement par anticipation. 

(3) Si le courtier en prêts aide un consommateur à obtenir un crédit ou un prêt d'argent et que le créancier n'exerce pas 
l'activité de faire crédit, l'obligation que le paragraphe 76 (2) de la Loi impose au prêteur est réputée, pour l'application du 
paragraphe 67 (2) de la Loi, celle du créancier et non du courtier en prêts. 

Publicité 

61. (1) Quiconque fait des assertions à l'égard de conventions de crédit dans une annonce publicitaire ou fait en sorte 
qu'il en soit fait se conforme au présent article, que ces assertions soient faites oralement, par écrit ou sous toute autre forme. 

(2) L'annonce publicitaire qui offre un crédit fixe et qui communique le taux d'intérêt payable par l'emprunteur aux 
termes de la convention de crédit ou une somme qu'il est tenu de payer au prêteur dans le cadre de cette convention fait 
également état des renseignements suivants : 

1 . Le taux de crédit de la convention de crédit. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 507 



2. La durée de la convention. 

3. Si l'annonce porte sur une convention de crédit fournisseur et sur une marchandise ou un service précisé 
expressément : 

i. d'une part, le prix au comptant de la marchandise ou du service, 

ii. d'autre part, le coût d'emprunt, sauf dans l'un ou l'autre des cas suivants : 

A. le coût d'emprunt se compose uniquement d'intérêts, 

B. l'annonce est soit radiodiffusée ou télédiffusée, soit affichée sur un panneau publicitaire ou un panobus, 
soit publiée par tout autre moyen assujetti à des restrictions temporelles et spatiales semblables. 

4. Si l'annonce porte sur une convention de crédit fournisseur et sur une gamme de marchandises ou de services et 
qu'elle se fonde sur une convention de crédit type, le prix au comptant de la marchandise ou du service faisant l'objet 
de la convention type. 

(3) Le paragraphe (2) s'applique même si l'annonce communique que le taux d'intérêt payable par l'emprunteur ou une 
somme qu'il est tenu de payer au prêteur est nul. 

(4) Le taux de crédit visé à la disposition 1 du paragraphe (2) est communiqué de façon à être autant en évidence que le 
plus en évidence des éléments suivants : 

a) le taux d'intérêt payable par l'emprunteur aux termes de la convention de crédit; 

b) une somme que l'emprunteur est tenu de payer au prêteur dans le cadre de la convention de crédit. 

(5) Si l'annonce porte sur une gamme de conventions de crédit fixe et que les renseignements à communiquer en 
application de la disposition 1 ou 2 du paragraphe (2) ne sont pas identiques pour toutes les conventions visées, l'annonce fait 
état des renseignements relatifs à la convention de crédit type et les identifie comme tels. 

(6) L'annonce qui porte sur un crédit en blanc et qui communique le montant d'un élément du coût d'emprunt fait 
également état des renseignements suivants : 

1 . Le taux d'intérêt annuel payable aux termes de la convention de crédit au moment de l'annonce. 

2. Le montant de chaque élément du coût d'emprunt autre que les intérêts que l'emprunteur est tenu de payer lors de la 
conclusion de la convention ou périodiquement, ou la façon de calculer ce montant s'il est impossible de le faire au 
moment de la communication. 

(7) Toutes les communications d'un élément du coût d'emprunt dans une annonce publicitaire visée au paragraphe (6) ont 
la même importance. 

(8) Outre les renseignements exigés par le présent article, l'annonce qui indique ou laisse entendre qu'aucun intérêt n'est 
payable pendant un période déterminée ou indéterminée aux termes de la convention de crédit fait état des renseignements 
suivants : 

1 . Selon le cas : 

i. la convention de crédit prévoit inconditionnellement qu'aucun intérêt ne court pendant cette période, 
ii. les intérêts courent pendant cette période mais seront remis si certaines conditions sont remplies. 

2. Dans le cas visé à la sous-disposition 1 ii : 

i. les conditions à remplir pour que les intérêts soient remis, 

ii. si l'annonce porte sur un crédit fixe, le taux de crédit de la convention de crédit qui s'appliquerait si les 
conditions de remise des intérêts n'étaient pas remplies, 

iii. si l'annonce porte sur un crédit en blanc, le taux d'intérêt annuel applicable à cette période si les conditions de 
remise des intérêts n'étaient pas remplies, en supposant que le taux d'intérêt annuel payable aux tennes de la 
convention de crédit au moment de l'annonce s'applique à cette période. 

(9) La définition qui suit s'applique au présent article. 

«convention de crédit type» S'agissant d'une annonce, exemple de convention de crédit qui est caractéristique des 
conventions de crédit auxquelles l'annonce fait référence et qui est identifié comme convention type. 

Renseignements i divulguer : demandes de carte de crédit 

62. (1) L'émetteur de carte de crédit divulgue dans le formulaire de demande de la carte qu'il demande à l'emprunteur de 
remplir ou dans un document accompagnant ce formulaire : 

a) soit les renseignements suivants : 

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508 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(i) le taux d'intérêt annuel payable par l'emprunteur aux termes de la convention de crédit, s'il ne s'agit pas d'un 
taux variable, 

(ii) s'il s'agit d'un taux variable, l'indice public auquel il est lié par un rapport mathématique et la description de ce 
rapport, 

(iii) la nature de chaque élément du coût d'emprunt autre que les intérêts, ainsi que, selon le cas : 

(A) la somme payable par l'emprunteur, 

(B) la façon de calculer la somme payable par l'emprunteur s'il est impossible de le faire au moment de la 

divulgation, 

(iv) la description détaillée des délais de grâce prévus par la convention de crédit, 

(v) la date à laquelle les renseignements divulgués en application du présent alinéa sont à jour; 

b) soit un numéro de téléphone que l'emprunteur peut composer, sans frais pendant les heures normales de bureau, pour 
obtenir les renseignements décrits aux sous-alinéas a) (i) à (iv). 

(2) Si l'emprunteur fait une demande de carte de crédit par téléphone, l'émetteur de la carte lui divulgue, lors de la 
demande, les renseignements décrits aux sous-alinéas ( I) a) (i) à (iv) . 

(3) L'émetteur de carte de crédit qui sollicite directement un emprunteur afin qu'il demande une carte de crédit lui 
divulgue au même moment les renseignements suivants, que la sollicitation se fasse en personne, par la poste, par téléphone 
ou par tout autre moyen, notamment par voie électronique : 

1 . Le taux d'intérêt annuel alors en vigueur aux termes de la convention de crédit. 

2. Si le taux d'intérêt annuel payable par l'emprunteur aux termes de la convention de crédit est un taux variable, l'indice 
public auquel il est lié par un rapport mathématique et la description de ce rapport. 

3. La nature de chaque élément du coût d'emprunt autre que les intérêts, ainsi que, selon le cas : "^'^■ 

i. la somme payable par l'emprunteur, 

ii. la façon de calculer la somme payable par l'emprunteur s'il est impossible de le faire au moment de la 
sollicitation. 

4. La description détaillée des délais de grâce prévus par la convention de crédit. 

Déclaration initiale : convention de crédit fixe 

63. (1) La déclaration initiale visant une convention de crédit fixe doit être écrite et, pour l'application du paragraphe 79 
(2) de la Loi, fait état des renseignements suivants, outre ceux qu'exige le paragraphe 78 (1) de la Loi : 

1. Le total des avances à verser à l'emprunteur. 

2. Si l'emprunteur doit recevoir plus d'une avance, la nature, la date de versement et le montant de chacune. 

3. La durée de la convention de crédit. 

4. Le coût d'emprunt. 

5. La durée de la période d'amortissement, si elle ne coïncide pas avec celle de la convention. 

6. Le taux d'intérêt payable par l'emprunteur aux termes de la convention de crédit, s'il ne varie pas pendant la durée de 
celle-ci. 

7. Si le taux d'intérêt payable par l'emprunteur aux termes de la convention de crédit est susceptible de varier pendant la 
durée de celle-ci : 

i. le taux d'intérêt initial payable par l'emprunteur aux termes de la convention de crédit, 

ii. le mode de calcul du taux d'intérêt annuel pendant la durée de la convention, 

iii. sauf si le montant des versements à date fixe est ajusté pour tenir compte des variations du taux d'intérêt, le taux 
d'intérêt le plus bas auquel ces versements seraient insuffisants pour couvrir le montant des intérêts échus entre 
deux versements consécutifs compte tenu du solde impayé initial. 

8. La date à laquelle les intérêts commencent à courir aux termes de la convention de crédit. 

9. Les circonstances dans lesquelles les intérêts sont composés aux termes de la convention de crédit. 

10. La nature de chaque élément du coût d'emprunt autre que les intérêts, et la somme payable à ce titre par l'emprunteur. 

1 1 . Une description détaillée des délais de grâce prévus par la convention de crédit. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 509 



12. Le taux de crédit de la convention de crédit. 

13. Sous réserve du paragraphe (2), les services facultatifs acceptés par l'emprunteur, les frais applicables à chacun, le 
droit de l'emprunteur d'annuler des services facultatifs continus ainsi que le mode d'exercice de ce droit. 

14. Le total de tous les paiements que l'emprunteur est tenu de faire dans le cadre de la convention de crédit ainsi que la 
date et le montant de chacun, notamment tout acompte, la valeur de reprise, le paiement forfaitaire et final et le dernier 
paiement. 

15. Si l'emprunteur n'est pas tenu par la convention de crédit d'effectuer des versements à date fixe : 

i. soit les circonstances dans lesquelles il doit payer tout ou partie du solde impayé, 
ii. soit les clauses de la convention de crédit qui énoncent les circonstances en question. 

16. La méthode utilisée pour l'affectation de chaque paiement de l'emprunteur au coût d'emprunt accumulé et au solde du 
capital impayé. 

17. Les droits, frais et indemnités de paiement anticipé qui s'appliquent à la convention de crédit. 

18. La façon de calculer la somme que le prêteur est tenu de rembourser à l'emprunteur ou de porter à son crédit en 
application du paragraphe 76 (2) de la Loi et de l'article 60 du présent règlement, si ce dernier paie par anticipation le 
solde impayé intégral relatif à une convention de crédit. 

19. Les frais de défaut prévus par la convention de crédit. 

20. La description des biens meubles que l'emprunteur fournit à titre de sûreté pour garantir la dette qu'il contracte dans le 
cadre de la convention de crédit. 

21. Si l'emprunteur est tenu par la convention de crédit de souscrire une assurance : 

i. le fait qu'il peut la souscrire de tout assureur qui peut légitimement fournir ce genre d'assurance en s'adressant 
directement à l'assureur ou par l'intermédiaire de l'agent que l'emprunteur a choisi, 

ii. le fait que, malgré la sous-disposition i, la convention de crédit peut donner au prêteur le droit de refuser, pour 
des motifs raisonnables, l'assureur choisi par l'emprunteur. 

(2) Il n'est pas nécessaire de divulguer dans la déclaration initiale les renseignements visés à la disposition 13 du 
paragraphe (1) s'ils le sont dans une déclaration distincte remise à l'emprunteur avant que les services facultatifs lui soient 
fournis. 

(3) Si le taux d'intérêt payable par l'emprunteur aux termes de la convention de crédit est susceptible de varier pendant la 
durée de celle-ci, les renseignements exigés par les dispositions 4 et 14 du paragraphe (I) sont fonction du taux d'intérêt 
initial communiqué en application de la sous-disposition 7 i du paragraphe ( 1 ). 

Déclaration initiale : convention de crédit en blanc 

64. (1) La déclaration initiale d'une convention de crédit en blanc doit être écrite et, pour l'application du paragraphe 79 
(3) de la Loi, fait état des renseignements suivants, outre ceux que prévoit le paragraphe 78 ( 1 ) de la Loi : 

1 . Sous réserve du paragraphe (2), la limite de crédit initiale. 

2. Le taux d'intérêt annuel payable par l'emprunteur aux termes de la convention de crédit, s'il ne varie pas pendant la 
durée de celle-ci. 

3. Si le taux d'intérêt annuel payable par l'emprunteur aux termes de la convention de crédit est susceptible de varier 
pendant la durée de celle-ci : 

i. le taux d'intérêt initial payable par l'emprunteur aux termes de la convention de crédit, 

ii. le mode de calcul du taux d'intérêt annuel pendant la durée de la convention. 

4. Dans le cas d'une convention de crédit relative à une carte de crédit, le mode de calcul des intérêts. 

5. La date à laquelle les intérêts commencent à courir aux termes de la convention de crédit. 

6. La nature de chaque élément du coût d'emprunt autre que les intérêts, ainsi que, selon le cas : 

i. la somme payable par l'emprunteur, , 

ii. la façon de calculer la somme payable par l'emprunteur s'il est impossible de le faire au moment de la 
déclaration. 

7. La description détaillée des délais de grâce prévus par la convention de crédit. 

8. Sous réserve du paragraphe (3), les services facultatifs acceptés par l'emprunteur, les frais applicables à chacun, le 
droit de l'emprunteur d'annuler des services facultatifs continus ainsi que le mode d'exercice de ce droit. 

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9. La période visée par chaque relevé de compte remis à l'emprunteur. 

10. Le paiement minimal auquel l'emprunteur est tenu pour chaque période ou la façon de le calculer s'il est impossible de 
le faire au moment de la déclaration. 

11. Dans le cas d'une convention relative à une carte de crédit qui oblige l'emprunteur à régler intégralement le solde 
impayé sur réception du relevé de compte : 

i. la mention de cette obligation, 

ii. le délai dont dispose l'emprunteur, sur réception du relevé de compte, pour régler intégralement le solde impayé 
et ainsi éviter d'être en défaut comme le prévoit la convention, 

iii. le taux d'intérêt annuel appliqué au solde impayé qui n'est pas réglé au moment où il devient exigible. 

12. Les frais de défaut prévus par la convention. 

13. Dans le cas d'une convention relative à une carte de crédit, la responsabilité maximale de l'emprunteur à l'égard de 
débits non autorisés lorsque la carte de crédit a été utilisée après avoir été perdue ou volée. 

14. Le numéro de téléphone que l'emprunteur peut composer, sans frais pendant les heures normales de bureau, pour 
demander des renseignements sur son compte. 

15. Si l'emprunteur fournit une sûreté mobilière pour garantir la dette qu'il contracte dans le cadre de la convention de 
crédit : 

i. d'une part, la description des biens meubles grevés de la sûreté, 

ii. d'autre part, les sommes suivantes, calculées au moment où la déclaration est remise, qui seront imputées à 
l'emprunteur : 

A. les honoraires professionnels liés aux services nécessaires pour confirmer la valeur, l'état, l'emplacement 
ou la conformité à la loi des biens, 

B. les frais d'assurance des biens, 

C. les frais d'enregistrement d'un état de financement ou d'un état de modification du financement dans un 
registre public de sûretés mobilières, les frais de recherche dans ce registre ou les frais de toute demande 
d'information en rapport avec la sûreté fournie par l'emprunteur, 

D. les frais d'enregistrement, sous le régime d'enregistrement des droits immobiliers ou le régime 
d'enregistrement immobilier, d'un avis de sûreté prévu à l'alinéa 54 (1) a) de la Loi sur les sûretés 
mobilières, d'un avis de prorogation prévu au paragraphe 54 (3) de cette loi ou d'un certificat de mainlevée 
ou de mainlevée partielle de l'avis de sûreté prévu au paragraphe 54 (4) de cette loi, ainsi que les frais de 
recherche dans le régime ou les frais de toute demande d'information en rapport avec la sûreté fournie par 
l'emprunteur. 

16. Les sommes, calculées au moment où la déclaration est remise, qui seront imputées à l'emprunteur dans le cadre de la 
convention de crédit à l'égard des frais suivants : 

i. les frais de recherche dans les dossiers concernant les véhicules automobiles qui sont prévus par le Code de la 
route afin de confirmer la propriété ou le numéro d'identification d'un véhicule, 

ii. les frais d'obtention d'une déclaration ou d'une copie certifiée conforme dans laquelle figurent les 
renseignements provenant de ces dossiers. 

1 7. Si l'emprunteur est tenu par la convention de crédit de souscrire une assurance : 

i. le fait qu'il peut la souscrire de tout assureur qui peut légitimement fournir ce genre d'assurance en s'adressant 
directement à l'assureur ou par l'intermédiaire de l'agent que l'emprunteur a choisi, 

ii. le fait que, malgré la sous-disposition i, la convention de crédit peut donner au prêteur le droit de refuser, pour 
des motifs raisonnables, l'assureur choisi par l'emprunteur. 

(2) Il n'est pas nécessaire de divulguer dans la déclaration initiale la limite de crédit initiale visée à la disposition I du 
paragraphe ( I ) si elle l'est dans le premier relevé de compte remis aux termes de l'article 81 de la Loi ou dans une déclaration 
distincte remise à l'emprunteur au plus tard le jour où ce premier relevé lui est remis. 

(3) Il n'est pas nécessaire de divulguer dans la déclaration initiale les renseignements visés à la disposition 8 du 
paragraphe (1) s'ils le sont dans une déclaration distincte remise à l'emprunteur avant que les services facultatifs lui soient 
fournis. 

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(4) Il n'est pas nécessaire de divulguer dans la déclaration initiale les renseignements visés au paragraphe (1) qui ne 
seraient utiles à l'emprunteur qu'à l'occasion d'une opération de consommation particulière s'ils le sont dans une déclaration 
distincte remise à l'emprunteur avant que cette opération se produise. 

(5) «frais» S'entend de ce qui suit : 

a) aux sous-sous-dispositions 15 ii C et D du paragraphe (1), les frais engagés pour l'enregistrement, la recherche ou une 
demande d'information et, s'il y a lieu, les frais de service versés à un mandataire; 

b) aux sous-dispositions 16 i et ii du paragraphe (1), les frais engagés pour la recherche ou l'obtention d'une déclaration 
et, s'il y a lieu, les frais de service versés à un mandataire. 

Déclaration subséquente : convention de crédit fixe à taux variable 

65. La déclaration devant être remise en vertu du paragraphe 80 (1) de la Loi doit être écrite et faire état des 
renseignements suivants : 

1 . La période visée par la déclaration. 

2. Le taux d'intérêt annuel au début et à la fin de la période visée par la déclaration. 

3. Le solde impayé au début et à la fin de la période visée par la déclaration. 

4. Si la convention de crédit prévoit des versements à date fixe, la date et le montant de chacun, et si elle prévoit 
l'ajustement du montant de ces versements pour tenir compte des variations du taux d'intérêt et que le taux d'intérêt 
annuel est différent au début et à la fin de la période visée par la déclaration, le montant des versements restants tel 
qu'il est ajusté et calculé en fonction du taux d'intérêt annuel en vigueur à la fin de cette période. 

Déclaration subséquente : convention de crédit nxe et taux modifiable 

66. La déclaration devant être remise en vertu du paragraphe 80 (2) de la Loi doit être écrite et faire état des 
renseignements suivants : 

1. Le nouveau taux d'intérêt annuel. 

2. La date d'entrée en vigueur du nouveau taux d'intérêt annuel. 

3. Les répercussions du changement de taux sur la date et le montant des paiements que l'emprunteur est tenu d'effectuer 
aux termes de la convention de crédit. 

Disposition transitoire : déclaration subséquente relative au crédit en blanc 

67. Pour l'application du paragraphe 81 (1) de la Loi aux conventions de crédit en blanc conclues avant le jour de sa 
proclamation en vigueur, la période mensuelle commence à courir le jour de la proclamation en vigueur. 

Relevé de compte : convention de crédit en blanc 

68. (1) Le relevé de compte qui concerne une convention de crédit en blanc doit être écrit et, pour l'application du 
paragraphe 81 (4) de la Loi, fait état des renseignements suivants : 

1 . La période visée par le relevé de compte. 

2. Le solde impayé au début de la période visée par le relevé de compte. 

3. Pour chaque débit s'ajoutant au solde impayé pendant la période visée par le relevé de compte : 

i. la description de l'opération de consommation l'ayant occasionné, 
ii. son montant, 
iii. sa date de report. 

4. Pour chaque paiement ou crédit déduit du solde impayé pendant la période visée par le relevé de compte : 

i. son montant, 
ii. sa date de report. 

5. Les taux d'intérêt annuel en vigueur pendant la période visée par le relevé de compte et toute partie de cette période. 

6. Le montant total des intérêts imputés à l'emprunteur pendant la période visée par le relevé de compte. 

7. La somme totale ajoutée au solde impayé pendant la période visée par le relevé de compte. 

8. La somme totale soustraite du solde impayé pendant la période visée par le relevé de compte. 

9. Le solde impayé à la fin de la période visée par le relevé de compte. 
10. La limite de crédit. 

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11. Le paiement minimal exigible de l'emprunteur. 

1 2. La date d'échéance du paiement exigible de l'emprunteur. 

13. Les conditions que l'emprunteur est tenu de remplir pour se prévaloir d'un délai de grâce prévu par la convention de 
crédit. 

14. Les droits et les obligations de l'emprunteur en ce qui concerne la correction des erreurs de facturation. 

15. Un numéro de téléphone que l'emprunteur peut composer, sans frais pendant les heures normales de bureau, pour 
demander des renseignements sur son compte. 

(2) Pour l'application de la sous-disposition 3 i du paragraphe (1), la description d'une opération de consommation est 
considérée comme suffisante si elle peut, jointe au relevé d'opération qui accompagne le relevé de compte ou qui a été mis à 
la disposition de l'emprunteur au moment de l'opération, raisonnablement permettre à ce dernier de vérifier l'opération. 

Importance des modifications 

69. (1) Pour l'application de l'alinéa 81 (7) a) de la Loi, les modifications suivantes ne constituent pas des modifications 
importantes : 

1 . La modification de la limite de crédit. 

2. La baisse du taux d'intérêt annuel payable par l'emprunteur. 

3. La modification du mode de calcul du taux d'intérêt annuel payable par l'emprunteur qui a pour seul effet la baisse ce 
taux d'intérêt. 

4. La réduction de la somme payable par l'emprunteur au titre d'un élément du coût d'emprunt autre que les intérêts. 

5. La modification du mode de calcul de la somme payable par l'emprunteur au titre d'un élément du coût d'emprunt 
autre que les intérêts qui a pour seul effet la baisse de cette somme. 

6. La réduction des autres frais payables par l'emprunteur qui sont visés au paragraphe 64 ( 1 ). 

7. La prolongation du délai de grâce. 

(2) Pour l'application de l'alinéa 81 (7) b) de la Loi, la modification de n'importe lequel des éléments prescrits en 
application du paragraphe 79 (3) de la Loi, à l'exclusion d'une modification visée au paragraphe (1) du présent article, 
constitue une modification importante. 

Déclarations visées par la Partie VII : dispositions générales 

70. ( 1 ) Les déclarations visées par la Partie VII de la Loi peuvent être des documents distincts ou faire partie d'autres 
documents. 

(2) Sous réserve des paragraphes 55 (3) à (8), les déclarations visées par la partie VII de la Loi peuvent se fonder sur une 
estimation ou une hypothèse lorsque les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) les renseignements ne peuvent être établis lors de la déclaration; 

b) l'estimation ou l'hypothèse est raisonnable; 

c) l'estimation ou l'hypothèse est clairement désignée comme telle. 

(3) Les déclarations visées par la partie VII de la Loi qui indiquent les sommes exprimées dans une devise autre que le 
dollar canadien doivent mentionner la devise employée. 

Dispenses : partie VII 

71. ( 1 ) Le paragraphe 67 (2) de la Loi ne s'applique pas si le courtier en prêts a fini d'apporter son aide avant le jour de sa 
proclamation en vigueur. 

(2) L'article 68 de la Loi ne s'applique pas si la carte de crédit a été utilisée pour la première fois avant le jour de sa 
proclamation en vigueur. 

(3) L'article 69 de la Loi s'applique aux conventions de crédit relatives aux cartes de crédit conclues avant ou après le jour 
de sa proclamation en vigueur, mais non aux débits non autorisés imputés avant ce jour. 

(4) L'article 75 de la Loi ne s'applique pas à ce qui suit : 

a) les conventions de crédit en blanc conclues avant le jour de sa proclamation en vigueur; 

b) les conventions de crédit fixe conclues avant le jour de sa proclamation en vigueur, à moins qu'elles ne soient 
modifiées, prorogées ou renouvelées ce jour-là ou par la suite; 

c) les frais de défaut imposés avant le jour de sa proclamation en vigueur. 

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(5) L'article 76 de la Loi ne s'applique pas aux conventions de crédit conclues avant le jour de sa proclamation en vigueur 
et l'article 28 de la Loi sur la protection du consommateur, tel qu'il existait immédiatement avant son abrogation par la Loi 
de 2002 modifiant des lois en ce qui concerne la protection du consommateur continue de s'appliquer à ces conventions. 

(6) Le paragraphe 78 (2) de la Loi ne s'applique pas si le courtier en prêts a reçu la demande de l'emprunteur et l'a 
envoyée au prêteur avant le jour de sa proclamation en vigueur. 

(7) Le paragraphe 80 (1) de la Loi ne s'applique pas aux conventions de crédit fixe conclues avant le jour de sa 
proclamation en vigueur, à moins qu'elles ne soient modifiées, prorogées ou renouvelées ce jour-là ou par la suite, auquel cas 
la période de 1 2 mois court à compter de la date de la modification, de la prorogation ou du renouvellement. 

(8) Le paragraphe 80 (2) de la Loi ne s'applique pas aux conventions de crédit fixe conclues avant le jour de sa 
proclamation en vigueur, sauf si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) les conventions de crédit sont modifiées, prorogées ou renouvelées le jour de la proclamation ou par la suite; 

b) le prêteur augmente le taux d'intérêt annuel le jour de la proclamation ou par la suite. 

(9) Les paragraphes 80 (3) et (4) de la Loi ne s'appliquent pas aux conventions de crédit fixe conclues avant le jour de la 
proclamation en vigueur du paragraphe 80 (3) de la Loi, sauf si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) les conventions de crédit sont modifiées, prorogées ou renouvelées le jour de la proclamation ou par la suite; 

b) le jour de la proclamation ou par la suite, le montant des versements à date fixe que l'emprunteur est tenu de faire aux 
termes de la convention ne suffit plus à payer les intérêts courus à ces termes. 

(10) Le paragraphe 80 (5) de la Loi ne s'applique pas aux conventions de crédit fixe conclues avant le jour de sa 
proclamation en vigueur, à moins que la modification visée à ce paragraphe ne soit apportée ce jour-là ou par la suite. 

(11) Le paragraphe 81 (5) de la Loi ne s'applique pas aux conventions de crédit en blanc conclues avant le jour de sa 
proclamation en vigueur, à moins que la modification visée à ce paragraphe ne soit apportée ce jour-là ou par la suite. 

(12) Dans le cas d'une convention de crédit relative à une carte de crédit dont le taux d'intérêt n'est pas un taux variable, 
le prêteur qui, conformément à la convention, baisse le taux d'intérêt qu'elle prévoit ; 

a) d'une part, est dispensé de l'obligation prévue au paragraphe 81 (5) de la Loi de remettre à l'emprunteur une 
déclaration faisant état de la baisse au moins 30 jours avant celle-ci; 

b) d'autre part, remet à l'emprunteur une déclaration à cet effet dans le relevé de compte suivant. 

(13) Le paragraphe 81 (6) de la Loi ne s'applique pas aux conventions de crédit en blanc conclues avant le jour de sa 
proclamation en vigueur, à moins que la modification visée à ce paragraphe ne soit apportée ce jour-là ou par la suite. 

(14) Le paragraphe 81 (7) de la Loi ne s'applique pas aux conventions de crédit relatives à une carte de crédit conclues 
avant le jour de sa proclamation en vigueur, à moins que la modification visée à ce paragraphe ne soit apportée ce jour-là ou 
par la suite. 

PARTIE Vlli 
LOCATION À LONG TERME — PARTIE VIII DE LA LOI 

Définitions 

72. (1) Les définitions qui suivent s'appliquent à la présente partie. 

«avance» À l'égard du preneur du bail, s'entend notamment de ce qui suit : 

a) le montant de l'obligation monétaire préexistante du preneur que le bailleur paie, exécute ou consolide dans le cadre 
du bail, que cette obligation soit ou non reliée à celui-ci; 

b) les dépenses suivantes que le bailleur a engagées en tout ou en partie dans le cadre du bail, si le preneur est tenu de les 
lui rembourser : 

(i) les frais d'assurance des marchandises louées, si le preneur est le bénéficiaire de l'assurance et que la somme 
assurée est égale à la pleine valeur assurable de ces marchandises, 

(ii) les frais de recherche dans les dossiers concernant les véhicules automobiles qui sont prévus par le Code de la 
route afin de confirmer la propriété ou le numéro d'identification d'un véhicule, ainsi que les frais d'obtention 
d'une déclaration ou d'une copie certifiée conforme dans laquelle figurent les renseignements provenant de ces 
dossiers, 

(iii) les frais d'enregistrement d'un état de financement ou d'un état de modification du financement dans un registre 
public de sûretés mobilières, les frais de recherche dans ce registre ou les frais de toute demande d'information en 
rapport avec les marchandises louées, 

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(iv) les frais d'enregistrement, sous le régime d'enregistrement des droits immobiliers ou le régime d'enregistrement 
immobilier, d'un avis de sûreté prévu à l'alinéa 54 (1) a) de la Loi sur les sûretés mobilières, d'un avis de 
prorogation prévu au paragraphe 54 (3) de cette loi ou d'un certificat de mainlevée ou de mainlevée partielle de 
l'avis de sûreté prévu au paragraphe 54 (4) de cette loi, ainsi que les frais de recherche dans le régime ou les frais 
de toute demande d'information en rapport avec les marchandises louées, («advance») 

«bail avec option» Bail qui donne au preneur l'option d'acquérir le titre de propriété des marchandises louées en effectuant 
un paiement en sus des versements périodiques qu'il prévoit, («option lease») 

«coût total du bail» Total des paiements que, dans le cours normal des choses, le preneur est tenu de faire dans le cadre du 
bail, exception faite des paiements que le bailleur est expressément tenu par celui-ci de conserver à titre de garantie des 
obligations que le preneur a envers lui. («total lease cost») 

«frais financiers implicites» À l'égard d'un bail, la somme calculée : 

a) en additionnant ce qui suit : 

(i) le total des versements non remboursables que le preneur est tenu de faire aux termes du bail, à l'exception de ce 

qui suit : 

(A) les frais associés aux services facultatifs que le preneur a acceptés, 

(B) les frais, amendes et pénalités en cas d'annulation, 

(C) les taxes applicables dans le cadre du bail, 
(ii) le versement résiduel présumé; 

b) en soustrayant la somme capitalisée de celle calculée en application de l'alinéa a), («implicit finance charge») 
«somme capitalisée» Somme calculée : 

a) en additionnant ce qui suit : 

(i) la valeur de location des marchandises louées, 

(ii) le total des avances devant être consenties au preneur dans le cadre du bail au plus tard au début de la durée de 
celui-ci; 

b) en soustrayant de la somme calculée en application de l'alinéa a) le total de tous les paiements que le preneur est tenu 
de faire dans le cadre du bail au plus tard au début de la durée de celui-ci, exception faite des paiements suivants : 

(i) les paiements que le bailleur est expressément tenu par le bail de conserver à titre de garantie des obligations qu'a 
le preneur envers lui, 

(ii) les versements périodiques prévus par le bail, («capitalized amount») 

«taux de crédit» À l'égard d'un bail, grandeur calculée selon la formule suivante : 

(M X I) X 100 

où : 

«M» représente le nombre annuel de périodes de versement prévu par le bail, 

«I» représente le taux d'intérêt périodique calculé en application du présent article, («annual percentage rate») 

«taux d'intérêt périodique» Valeur de «I» dans l'équation suivante : 

V = (PV - FV( I + 1)'^) -[((!-(!+ I)"'^'^') - I) + A] 

où : 

«V» représente le montant de chaque versement périodique prévu par le bail; 

«A» représente le nombre de versements périodiques à effectuer aux termes du bail au plus tard au début de la durée 

de celui-ci; 

«PV» représente la somme capitalisée; 
«FV» représente le versement résiduel présumé; 
«N» représente le nombre de versements périodiques prévus par le bail, («periodic interest rate») 
«valeur de location des marchandises louées» S'entend de ce qui suit : 
a) à l'égard d'une déclaration relative à un bail : 

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(i) si le bailleur vend de telles marchandises à des consommateurs payant comptant dans le cours ordinaire de ses 
activités commerciales, la moins élevée des sommes suivantes : 

(A) une somme qui reflète fidèlement le prix auquel il les leur vend dans le cours ordinaire de ses activités 
commerciales, 

(B) le prix dont le bailleur et le preneur ont convenu dans le bail, 

(ii) si le bailleur ne vend pas de telles marchandises à des consommateurs payant comptant dans le cours ordinaire de 
ses activités commerciales, une estimation raisonnable du prix au détail des marchandises; 

b) à l'égard d'une annonce relative à un bail : 

(i) soit une somme qui reflète fidèlement le prix auquel le bailleur vend de telles marchandises à des consommateurs 
payant comptant dans le cours ordinaire de ses activités commerciales, s'il les leur vend ainsi, 

(ii) soit une estimation raisonnable du prix au détail des marchandises, si le bailleur ne les vend pas à des 
consommateurs payant comptant dans le cours ordinaire de ses activités commerciales, («lease value of the 
leased goods») 

«valeur résiduelle estimative» La valeur de gros des marchandises louées au terme de la durée de la convention selon 
l'estimation raisonnable qu'en fait le bailleur, («estimated residual value») 

«versement résiduel présumé» S'entend de ce qui suit : 

a) dans le cas d'un bail qui n'est ni un bail avec option, ni un bail à obligation résiduelle, le total de la valeur résiduelle 
estimative des marchandises louées et du paiement que le preneur est éventuellement tenu de faire dans le cours 
normal des choses au terme de la durée du bail; 

b) dans le cas d'un bail avec option, la moins élevée des sommes suivantes : 

(i) le total de la valeur résiduelle estimative des marchandises louées et du paiement que le preneur est 
éventuellement tenu de faire dans le cours normal des choses au terme de la durée du bail, 

(ii) le paiement supplémentaire que le preneur est tenu de faire afin d'exercer l'option au terme de la durée du bail; 

c) dans le cas d'un bail à obligation résiduelle, le total des sommes suivantes : 

(i) la somme que le preneur est tenu de payer au bailleur au terme de la durée du bail si la valeur de réalisation des 
marchandises louées à ce moment-là est égale à leur valeur résiduelle estimative, 

(ii) la valeur résiduelle estimative des marchandises louées, («assumed residual payment») 

(2) Malgré la définition de «année» à l'article 1 de la Loi, l'année est considérée comme ayant 365 jours pour le calcul du 
taux de crédit d'un bail. 

(3) Le taux de crédit d'un bail qui prévoit des versements à intervalles mesurés en semaines ou en mois peut être calculé 
en présumant que chaque semaine est égale à ^l^j d'année et chaque mois à '/|2 d'année. 

(4) Aux paragraphes (2) et (3), les mentions du calcul du taux de crédit comprennent le calcul de toute somme entrant dans 
ce calcul. 

(5) Dans la définition de «avance» au paragraphe ( 1 ), «frais» s'entend de ce qui suit : 

a) au sous-alinéa b) (ii), les frais engagés pour la recherche ou l'obtention d'une déclaration ainsi que, s'il y a lieu, les 
frais de services versés à un mandataire; 

b) aux sous-alinéas b) (iii) et (iv), les frais engagés pour l'enregistrement, la recherche ou une demande d'information et, 
s'il y a lieu, les frais de service versés à un mandataire. 

(6) Au paragraphe (1), pour l'application des définitions de «versement résiduel présumé», de «valeur résiduelle 
estimative» et de «coût total du bail», pour celle du sous-alinéa a) (i) de la définition de «frais financiers implicites», pour 
celle de «N» dans la définition de «taux d'intérêt périodique» : 

a) si elle est indéterminée, la durée du bail est considérée comme étant d'un an; 

b) si elle correspond à la durée de vie utile des marchandises louées, la durée du bail est considérée comme étant une 
estimation raisonnable de cette durée et est utilisée pour l'application de toutes ces définitions à l'égard du même bail. 

(7) Le montant des taxes que le preneur est tenu de payer dans le cadre du bail au plus tard au début de la durée de celui-ci 
est exclu du total, calculé en application de l'alinéa b) de la définition de «somme capitalisée» au paragraphe (1), des 
paiements qu'il est tenu de faire si ce montant a été exclu du total, calculé en application du sous-alinéa a) (ii) de cette 
définition, des avances qui doivent lui être consenties. 

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516 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(8) Si le bail prévoit l'entretien des marchandises louées et que le preneur n'a pas l'option de se soustraire aux dispositions 
pertinentes, les mentions des marchandises aux endroits suivants s'interprètent comme des mentions des marchandises et de 
leur entretien : 

a) dans les expressions «valeur résiduelle estimative des marchandises louées», «valeur de location des marchandises 
louées» et «valeur de réalisation des marchandises louées»; 

b) dans les définitions de «valeur résiduelle estimative» et de «valeur de location des marchandises louées» au paragraphe 
(1). 

(9) En cas d'irrégularité en ce qui concerne le montant ou la date des versements exigés au cours de la durée du bail, 
l'équation figurant dans la définition de «taux d'intérêt périodique» au paragraphe (1) comprend les modifications nécessaires 
au calcul de la valeur «1» selon les principes actuariels. 

(10) Le taux de crédit déclaré d'un bail est réputé exact si l'écart avec le taux de crédit calculé en conformité avec le 
présent article est égal ou inférieur à un huitième de un pour cent. 

Publicité 

73. (1) Le présent article prescrit, pour l'application de l'article 88 de la Loi, les exigences auxquelles doit satisfaire la 
personne qui fait des assertions à l'égard du coût d'un bail ou fait en sorte qu'il en soit fait dans une annonce publicitaire. 

(2) Toute annonce visée au paragraphe (1) autre que celle à laquelle s'applique le paragraphe (3) fait état des 
renseignements suivants ; 

1 . Le fait que la convention de consommation est un bail. 

2. La durée du bail ou la mention portant qu'il est de durée indéterminée. 

3. Le montant de chaque paiement autre qu'un versement périodique que le preneur est tenu de faire dans le cadre du bail 
au plus tard au début de la durée de celui-ci. 

4. La date à laquelle le preneur est tenu de faire des versements périodiques aux tenues du bail et le montant de chacun. 

5. Le montant de tout autre paiement que le preneur est tenu de faire dans le cadre du bail dans le cours normal des 
choses, ou la façon de calculer ce montant s'il est impossible de le faire au moment de la communication. 

6. Si le bail d'un véhicule automobile limite le kilométrage autorisé à moins de 20 000 kilomètres par année, le montant 
des frais qui seront imposés au preneur au-delà de cette limite, ou la façon de calculer ce montant s'il est impossible de 
le faire au moment de la communication. 

7. Le taux de crédit du bail. 

8. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

(3) L'annonce visée au paragraphe (1) qui est soit radiodiffusée ou télédiffusée, soit affichée sur un panneau publicitaire 
ou un panobus, soit publiée par tout autre moyen assujetti à des restrictions temporelles ou spatiales semblables fait état des 
renseignements visés aux dispositions 1, 3, 4 et 8 du paragraphe (2) et : 

a) soit fait état des renseignements visés aux dispositions 2 et 7 du paragraphe (2); 

b) soit fait état du numéro de téléphone à composer sans frais pour obtenir les renseignements visés aux dispositions 2 et 
7 du paragraphe (2); 

c) soit renvoie à une annonce où figurent les renseignements visés aux dispositions 2 et 7 du paragraphe (2) et publiés 
dans une publication à grande diffusion dans la région concernée. 

(4) Le taux de crédit du bail qui est communiqué aux termes du paragraphe (2) ou (3) est au moins autant en évidence que 
le montant d'un paiement faisant partie du coût total du bail qui est le plus en évidence. 

(5) Si l'annonce porte sur une série de conventions de location et que les renseignements à communiquer en application du 
présent article ne sont pas identiques pour toutes les conventions visées, l'annonce publicitaire fait état des renseignements 
relatifs à la convention type et les identifie comme tels. 

(6) La définition qui suit s'applique au présent article. 

«bail type» S'agissant d'une annonce, exemple de bail qui est caractéristique des baux auxquels l'annonce fait référence et 
qui est identifié comme bail type. 

Déclaration : bail 

74. (1) La déclaration concernant un bail doit être écrite et peut être un document distinct ou faire partie d'autres 
documents. 

(2) Pour l'application du paragraphe 89 (2) de la Loi, la déclaration concernant un bail fait état des renseignements 
suivants : 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 5 1 7 



1 . Le fait que la convention de consommation est un bail. 

2. La durée du bail ou la mention portant qu'il est de durée indéterminée. 

3. Une description juste et fidèle des marchandises louées. 

4. La valeur de location des marchandises louées. 

5. La nature et le montant de chaque avance devant être consentie au preneur dans le cadre du bail au plus tard au début 
de la durée de celui-ci, notamment toute avance relative à des frais que le preneur engagera dans le cadre du bail au 
plus tard au début de sa durée, même si les frais ne sont payables qu'après le début de la durée du bail. 

6. La nature et le montant de chaque paiement autre qu'un versement périodique que le preneur est tenu de faire dans le 
cadre du bail au plus tard au début de la durée de celui-ci. 

7. La date à laquelle le preneur est tenu de faire des versements périodiques aux termes du bail, leur nombre et le montant 
de chacun. 

8. La somme capitalisée. 

9. La valeur résiduelle estimative des marchandises louées. 

10. Dans le cas d'un bail avec option ; 

i. la date et le mode d'exercice de l'option, 

ii. le montant du paiement supplémentaire que le preneur est tenu de faire afin d'exercer l'option au terme de la 
durée du bail, 

iii. le mode de calcul du paiement supplémentaire que le preneur est tenu de faire afin d'exercer l'option avant le 
terme de la durée du bail. 

11. Dans le cas d'un bail à obligation résiduelle : 

i. d'une part, la somme que le preneur est tenu de payer au bailleur aux termes du bail au terme de la durée de celui- 
ci si la valeur de réalisation des marchandises louées est alors égale à leur valeur résiduelle estimative, 

ii. d'autre part, une déclaration précisant que la responsabilité maximale du preneur au terme de la durée du bail est 
égale à la somme des deux éléments suivants : 

A. la somme qu'il est tenu par le bail de payer au bailleur au terme de la durée de celui-ci si la valeur de 
réalisation des marchandises louées est alors égale à leur valeur résiduelle estimative, 

B. la différence éventuelle entre la valeur résiduelle estimative des marchandises louées et leur valeur de 
réalisation au terme de la durée du bail. 

12. Les circonstances éventuelles dans lesquelles le bailleur peut résilier le bail avant le terme de sa durée. 

13. Les circonstances éventuelles dans lesquelles le preneur peut résilier le bail avant le terme de sa durée. 

14. Le montant des paiements éventuels que le preneur est tenu de faire en cas de résiliation du bail, ou la façon de le 
calculer s'il est impossible de le faire au moment de la déclaration. 

15. Les circonstances éventuelles dans lesquelles le preneur est tenu de faire, dans le cadre du bail, un paiement qui n'est 
pas communiqué en application des dispositions précédentes, ainsi que le montant de ce paiement ou la façon de le 
calculer s'il est impossible de le faire au moment de la déclaration. 

16. Les frais financiers implicites du bail. 

17. Le taux de crédit du bail. 

18. Le coût total du baiL 

19. La devise employée, si les sommes ne sont pas exprimées en dollars canadiens. 

(3) Les circonstances visées à la disposition 15 du paragraphe (2) s'entendent notamment de l'usure ou de l'usage excessif 
ou déraisonnable. 

Conséquences de la non-divulgation 

75. Le preneur n'est pas redevable au bailleur : 

a) soit des frais financiers implicites du bail, s'il ne reçoit pas la déclaration relative à celui-ci qu'exige le paragraphe 89 
(1) de la Loi; 

b) soit de toute somme supérieure à celle qui figure au titre de frais financiers implicites du bail dans la déclaration qu'il a 
reçue du bailleur. 

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518 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Responsabilité maximale : baux à obligation résiduelle 

76. ( 1 ) Pour l'application du paragraphe 90 (2) de la Loi, la somme maximale dont le preneur est redevable au terme de la 
durée du bail à obligation résiduelle après avoir retourné les marchandises louées au bailleur est calculée selon la formule 
suivante : 

r 

P + (V-R) 

où : ■ 

«P» représente la somme que le preneur est tenu par le bail de payer au bailleur au terme de la durée de celui-ci si la valeur 
de réalisation des marchandises louées est alors égale à leur valeur résiduelle estimative; 

«V» représente la valeur résiduelle estimative des marchandises louées; 

«R» représente la valeur de réalisation des marchandises louées au terme de la durée du bail, qui est calculée en application 
des paragraphes (2), (3) et (4). 

(2) Sous réserve des paragraphes (3) et (4), la valeur de réalisation des marchandises louées au terme de la durée du bail 
correspond à la plus élevée des sommes suivantes ; 

a) le prix, taxes non comprises, auquel le bailleur dispose des marchandises louées; ' ' ■ 

b) 80 pour cent de la valeur résiduelle estimative des marchandises louées; 

c) la différence entre la valeur résiduelle estimative des marchandises louées et le triple du paiement mensuel moyen 
prévu par le bail. 

(3) Si la somme calculée en application de l'alinéa (2) b) est la plus élevée des trois, la valeur de réalisation des 
marchandises louées au terme de la durée du bail est égale à la différence entre la somme calculée en application de l'alinéa 
(2) b) et la part de l'écart entre cette somme et celle calculée en application de l'alinéa (2) a) qui est imputable à l'usure ou à 
l'usage excessif ou déraisonnable des marchandises louées, ou aux dommages causés à celles-ci, dont le preneur est 
responsable aux termes du bail. 

(4) Si la somme calculée en application de l'alinéa (2) c) est la plus élevée des trois, la valeur de réalisation des 
marchandises louées au terme de la durée du bail est égale à la différence entre la somme calculée en application de l'alinéa 
(2) c) et la part de l'écart entre cette somme et celle calculée en application de l'alinéa (2) a) qui est imputable à l'usure ou à 
l'usage excessif ou déraisonnable des marchandises louées, ou aux dommages causés à celles-ci, dont le preneur est 
responsable aux termes du bail. 

(5) Le paragraphe 90 (2) de la Loi ne s'applique pas aux baux conclus avant le jour de sa proclamation en vigueur. 
Dispenses : partie VIII 

77. Est soustrait à l'application de la partie VIII de la Loi : 

a) soit le bail qui porte sur des marchandises louées nécessaires pour que le bailleur fournisse un service au preneur; 

b) soit le bail dont il est impossible de calculer, au moment de sa conclusion, le montant de chacun des versements 
périodiques qu'il prévoit, notamment parce qu'ils risquent de varier pendant sa durée. 

PARTIE IX 
PROCÉDURES RELATIVES AUX RÉPARATIONS DEMANDÉES PAR LE CONSOMMATELR — 

PARTIE IX DE LA LOI 

Définitions 

78. Les définitions qui suivent s'appliquent à la présente partie, 
«adresse du consommateur» S'entend selon le cas : 

a) sous réserve de l'alinéa b), de l'adresse du consommateur qui figure dans la convention de consommation ou, si elle 
n'y figure pas, du lieu où il résidait lors de la conclusion de la convention; 

b) de l'adresse actuelle du consommateur, si le fournisseur sait que l'adresse exigée en application de l'alinéa a) a changé 
et qu'il connaît l'adresse actuelle, («consumer's address») 

«adresse du fournisseur» S'entend de l'adresse du fournisseur qui figure dans la convention de consommation ou, si elle n'y 
figure pas ou que le consommateur n'a pas reçu de copie écrite de la convention : 

a) soit de l'adresse du fournisseur qui figure dans les dossiers du gouvernement de l'Ontario ou du gouvernement du 
Canada; 

b) soit de l'adresse du fournisseur que connaît le consommateur, («supplier's address») 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 519 



Obligations du fournisseur : résiliation 

79. ( 1 ) Le fournisseur qui est tenu de se conformer au paragraphe 96 ( 1 ) de la Loi le fait dans les 1 5 jours qui suivent la 
date à laquelle le consommateur l'avise, conformément à l'article 92, qu'il résilie la convention de consommation. 

(2) Le fournisseur qui est tenu de retourner des marchandises au consommateur en application de l'alinéa 96 (1) b) de la 
Loi les lui retourne à son adresse. 

Obligations du consommateur : résiliation de certaines conventions 

80. (1) Le présent article s'applique à l'égard du paragraphe 96 (2) de la Loi si la résiliation porte sur l'une des 
conventions de consommation suivantes : 

1 . Les conventions directes visées par les articles 42 et 43 de la Loi. 

2. Les conventions de multipropriété. 

3. Les conventions de services de perfectionnement personnel visées par les articles 30 à 36 de la Loi. 

4. Les conventions de consommation visées par l'article 49 de la Loi. 

(2) Le consommateur qui reçoit du fournisseur une demande écrite de reprise de possession des marchandises accomplit 
l'une ou l'autre des démarches suivantes : 

a) il donne au fournisseur, ou à la personne que celui-ci désigne par écrit, une occasion raisonnable de reprendre 
possession des marchandises à son adresse; 

b) il les retourne à l'adresse du fournisseur. 

(3) S'il s'agit de marchandises créées, enregistrées, transmises ou mises en mémoire sous une forme intangible, 
notamment numérique, par des moyens électroniques, magnétiques ou optiques ou par d'autres moyens capables de créer, 
d'enregistrer, de transmettre ou de mettre en mémoire de manière similaire à ceux-ci, le consommateur auquel le fournisseur 
demande par écrit de détruire les marchandises le fait conformément aux instructions mentionnées dans la demande. 

(4) Le consommateur se conforme au paragraphe (2) ou (3), selon le cas : 

a) soit immédiatement après que le fournisseur s'est conformé au paragraphe 96 (1) de la Loi; 

b) soit immédiatement après avoir reçu la demande écrite de reprise de possession des marchandises visée au paragraphe 
(2) ou l'ordre écrit de les détruire visé au paragraphe (3), selon le cas, si le paragraphe 96 (1) de la Loi ne s'applique 
pas parce que le consommateur n'a fait aucun paiement aux termes de la convention ou d'une convention connexe et 
n'a pas remis de marchandises au fournisseur dans le cadre d'une convention de reprise. 

(5) Le consommateur qui n'a pas reçu la demande écrite de reprise de possession des marchandises visée au paragraphe 
(2) ou l'ordre écrit de les détruire visé au paragraphe (3) peut les retourner à l'adresse du foumisseur. 

(6) Le foumisseur est réputé consentir au retour des marchandises visé à l'alinéa (2) b) ou au paragraphe (5) et en assume 
les frais raisonnables. 

Obligations du consommateur : résiliation d'autres conventions 

81. (1) Le présent article s'applique à l'égard du paragraphe 96 (2) de la Loi si la résiliation porte sur l'une des 
conventions de consommation suivantes : 

1. Les conventions électroniques visées par les articles 38 à 40 de la Loi. 

2. Les conventions à distance visées par les articles 45 à 47 de la Loi. 

3. Les conventions à exécution différée visées par les articles 22 à 26 de la Loi. 

(2) Le consommateur qui n'a pas reçu l'ordre écrit de détruire les marchandises visé au paragraphe (5) les retourne à 
l'adresse du foumisseur par tout moyen qui lui permette d'en confirmer la livraison et le fait dans les 15 jours qui suivent le 
dernier en date des jours suivants : 

a) le jour où le consommateur avise le foumisseur, conformément à l'article 92 de la Loi, qu'il résilie la convention de 
consommation; 

b) le jour où le consommateur prend possession des marchandises. 

(3) Les marchandises visées au paragraphe (2) qui ne sont pas retournées par remise à personne sont réputées l'être lors de 
leur envoi au foumisseur. 

(4) Le foumisseur est réputé consentir au retour des marchandises visé au paragraphe (2) et en assume les frais 
raisonnables. 

(5) S'il s'agit de marchandises créées, enregistrées, transmises ou mises en mémoire sous une forme intangible, 
notamment numérique, par des moyens électroniques, magnétiques ou optiques ou par d'autres moyens capables de créer, 

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520 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

d'enregistrer, de transmettre ou de mettre en mémoire de manière similaire à ceux-ci, le consommateur qui reçoit du 
fournisseur l'ordre écrit de détruire les marchandises le fait immédiatement conformément aux instructions mentionnées dans 
l'ordre. 

Délai de soin raisonnable 

82. Pour l'application du paragraphe 96 (3) de la Loi, la période pendant laquelle le consommateur qui résilie une 
convention de consommation prend soin des marchandises dont il a pris possession aux termes de la convention ou d'une 
convention connexe commence le jour où il avise le fournisseur, conformément à l'article 92 de la Loi, qu'il résilie la 
convention de consommation et expire à celle des dates suivantes qui survient en premier : 

1 . Le moment où les marchandises sont détruites en application du paragraphe 80 (3) ou 8 1 (5). 

2. Le moment où les marchandises sont retournées en application de l'alinéa 80 (2) b) ou du paragraphe 80 (5) ou 81 (2). 

3. Lors de la reprise de possession des marchandises, dans le cas d'une convention de consommation visée à l'article 80. 

4. La fin du 21' jour qui suit le jour où le consommateur avise le fournisseur, conformément à l'article 92 de la Loi, qu'il 
résilie la convention de consommation si, dans le cas d'une convention de consommation visée à l'article 80 : 

i. soit le consommateur a reçu du fournisseur une demande écrite de reprise de possession des marchandises et lui a 
donné un délai raisonnable pour le faire, conformément à l'alinéa 80 (2) a), mais le fournisseur ne les a pas 
reprises, 

ii. soit le consommateur n'a pas reçu du fournisseur une demande écrite de reprise de possession des marchandises. 

Restrictions : résiliation d'une convention directe 

83. (1) Le présent article s'applique à la résiliation d'une convention directe faite par le consommateur aux termes de 
l'article 43 de la présente Loi si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) il a sollicité du fournisseur les marchandises ou les services; 

b) il a demandé au fournisseur, dans les 10 jours qui suivent la date de la conclusion de la convention, d'effectuer la 
livraison ou de commencer l'exécution aux termes de celle-ci. 

(2) Dans les circonstances décrites au paragraphe (1), le fournisseur a le droit d'être raisonnablement indemnisé pour ce 
qui suit : 

a) les marchandises : 

(i) d'une part, que le consommateur a reçues aux termes de la convention directe avant celui des jours suivants qui 
survient en premier : 

(A) le 1 r' jour qui suit la date de la conclusion de la convention, 

(B) le moment où le consommateur avise le fournisseur, conformément à l'article 92 de la Loi, qu'il résilie la 
convention, 

(ii) d'autre part, dont le fournisseur ne peut reprendre possession ou qui ne peuvent lui être retournées pour l'une ou 
l'autre des raisons suivantes ; 

(A) elles ont été consommées, 

(B) elles se sont altérées, 

(C) elles font tellement partie intégrante d'autres biens qu'il ne serait pas pratique de les en séparer; 

b) les services que le consommateur a reçus aux termes de la convention directe avant celle des dates suivantes qui se 
produit en premier : 

(i) le 1 r jour qui suit la date de la conclusion de la convention, 

(ii) le moment où le consommateur avise le fournisseur, conformément à l'article 92 de la Loi, qu'il résilie la 
convention. 

(3) Si le fournisseur a le droit d'être raisonnablement indemnisé, conformément au présent article, à l'égard de 
marchandises visées à la disposition 2 a) (ii) (C) ou de services, les obligations y afférentes que toute personne peut avoir 
envers le consommateur aux termes de la convention directe, d'une convention connexe ou en droit demeurent, malgré toute 
résiliation de la convention directe ou connexe. 

(4) Le fournisseur qui a le droit d'être raisonnablement indemnisé, conformément au présent article, peut ; 

a) soit déduire le montant de l'indemnité raisonnable à laquelle il a droit du remboursement éventuel qu'il est tenu de 
verser au consommateur en application de l'alinéa 96 (I) a) de la Loi; 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 521 



b) soit recouvrer du consommateur le montant de l'indemnité raisonnable à laquelle il a droit; 

c) soit déduire une partie du montant de l'indemnité raisonnable à laquelle il a droit du remboursement éventuel qu'il est 
tenu de verser au consommateur en application de l'alinéa 96 (1) a) de la Loi et recouvrer la différence auprès du 
consommateur. 

(5) Le présent article s'applique conformément au paragraphe 20 (2) de la Loi. 

Délai de remboursement des paiements illicites 

84. Pour l'application des paragraphes 98 (2) et (4) de la Loi, le consommateur est remboursé dans les 15 jours qui suivent 
la date à laquelle il en fait la demande en application du paragraphe 98 (1) de la Loi. 

Annulation ou contrepassation des débits par carte de crédit 

85. (1) Pour l'application du paragraphe 99 (4) de la Loi, la demande du consommateur visée au paragraphe 99 (1) de la 
Loi est présentée à l'émetteur de carte de crédit dans les 60 jours qui suivent l'expiration du délai de remboursement que la 
Loi impose au fournisseur. 

(2) Pour l'application du paragraphe 92 (2) de la Loi, le consommateur signe la demande qu'il présente à l'émetteur de 
carte de crédit en application du paragraphe 99 ( I ) de la Loi et y indique les renseignements suivants : 

1 . Son nom. 

2. Le numéro de son compte de carte de crédit. 

3. La date d'expiration qui figure sur sa carte de crédit. 

4. Le nom du fournisseur qui était tenu d'effectuer le remboursement. 

5. Si elle est connue, la date de la convention de consommation éventuellement conclue entre le consommateur et le 
fournisseur. 

6. Chaque débit porté au compte de sa carte de crédit dont le consommateur demande l'annulation ou de la 
contrepassation, notamment ce qui suit : 

i. le montant du débit, 

ii. la date du débit, 

iii. la description de l'opération de consommation qui a donné lieu au débit. 

7. Si le débit devant être aruulé ou contrepassé concerne un paiement à l'égard d'une convention de consommation 
résiliée en vertu de la Loi : 

i. une déclaration dans ce sens, 

ii. la date de résiliation de la convention, 

iii. la façon dont le consommateur a donné avis de la résiliation au fournisseur. 

8. Si le débit devant être annulé ou contrepassé concerne un paiement reçu en contravention de la Loi, 

i. une déclaration dans ce sens, 
ii. la date de la demande de remboursement, 
iii. la façon dont le consommateur a donné avis de la demande de remboursement au fournisseur. 

9. Si le débit devant être annulé ou contrepassé concerne un paiement perçu à l'égard de marchandises ou de services non 
sollicités pour lesquels aucun paiement n'est exigé en application de l'article 13 de la Loi, 

i. une déclaration dans ce sens, 

ii. la date de la demande de remboursement, 

iii. la façon dont le consommateur a donné avis de la demande de remboursement au fournisseur. 

(3) Pour l'application de l'alinéa 99 (5) a) de la Loi, l'émetteur de la carte de crédit accuse réception de la demande du 
consommateur dans les 30 jours qui suivent la date à laquelle elle lui a été présentée conformément à l'article 92 de la Loi. 

(4) Pour l'application de l'alinéa 99 (5) b) de la Loi, le délai prescrit commence le jour où le consommateur présente sa 
demande à l'émetteur de la carte de crédit conformément à l'article 92 de la Loi et se termine à la date du deuxième relevé de 
compte que ce dernier remet au consommateur après avoir reçu la demande. 

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522 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



PARTIE X 
REGISTRE PUBLIC — PARAGRAPHE 103 (2) DE LA LOI 

Exigences 

86. Les exigences suivantes à l'égard de la tenue du registre public sont prescrites pour l'application du paragraphe 103 
(2) de la Loi : 

1. Le directeur met les documents visés aux dispositions 1 à 4 du paragraphe 103 (2) de la Loi à la disposition du public : 

i. en les affichant sur un site Web du gouvernement de l'Ontario, 
ii. en les communiquant de vive voix aux personnes qui les demandent au téléphone, 
iii. sous forme imprimée. 

2. Le directeur veille à ce que les documents restent à la disposition du public de la manière précisée aux sous- 
dispositions 1 i, ii et iii pour une durée minimale de 21 mois et maximale de 27 mois. 

Ordonnances 

87. Les ordonnances prises ou rendues en application des articles 110, 111, 112, 115 et 1 19 de la Loi sont prescrites pour 
l'application de la disposition 4 du paragraphe 103 (2) de la Loi. 

Accusations 

88. Pour l'application de la disposition 4 du paragraphe 103 (2) de la Loi, les renseignements suivants sont prescrits à 
l'égard de chaque personne contre laquelle des accusations sont portées, à compter du jour de l'entrée en vigueur du présent 
article, en application de l'article 116 de la Loi ou sous le régime de la Loi sur le contrôle des sports, de la Loi sur les 
huissiers, de la Loi sur les cimetières (révisée), de la Loi sur les agences de recouvrement, de la Loi sur les renseignements 
concernant le consommateur ou de la Loi sur les cinémas : 

1 . Son nom, tel que le connaît le ministère. 

2. Les noms commerciaux qu'elle emploie, tel que les connaît le ministère. 

3. Son adresse d'affaires, ses numéros de téléphone et de télécopieur d'affaires et son adresse électronique d'affaires, si 
le ministère les connaît. 

4. À l'égard de chaque accusation portée contre elle : 

i. la loi invoquée et la description de l'accusation, 
ii. la date à laquelle l'accusation a été portée, 

iii. la décision définitive sur l'accusation portée et la description de la peine imposée, le cas échéant. 
Prise de mesures 

89. Pour l'application de la disposition 4 du paragraphe 103 (2) de la Loi, les renseignements suivants sont prescrits à 
l'égard de chaque personne qui doit être nommée, être titulaire d'un permis ou d'une licence ou être inscrite ou enregistrée 
sous le régime de la Loi sur le contrôle des sports, de la Loi sur les huissiers, de la Loi sur les cimetières (révisée), de la Loi 
sur les agences de recouvrement, de la Loi sur les renseignements concernant le consommateur ou de la Loi sur les cinémas 
et contre laquelle des mesures ont été prises en application de cette loi, sauf une mise en accusation, à compter du jour de 
l'entrée en vigueur du présent article : 

1 . Son nom, tel que le connaît le ministère. 

2. Les noms commerciaux qu'elle emploie, tel que les connaît le ministère. 

3. Son adresse d'affaires, ses numéros de téléphone et de télécopieur d'affaires et son adresse électronique d'affaires, si 
le ministère les connaît. 

4. À l'égard de chaque mesure prise contre elle : 

i. la loi invoquée et la description de la mesure, 

ii. les motifs, 

iii. la date à laquelle la mesure a été prise, 

iv. le résultat ultime de cette mesure, y compris, le cas échéant, la révocation ou la suspension de la nomination, du 
permis ou de l'inscription. 

Plaintes 

90. (1) Si toutes les conditions énoncées au paragraphe (2) sont remplies, les renseignements suivants sont prescrits, pour 
l'application de la disposition 4 du paragraphe 103 (2) de la Loi, à l'égard de chaque personne au sujet de laquelle le directeur 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 523 



reçoit, à compter du jour de l'entrée en vigueur du présent article, une plainte portant sur une conduite qui risque de 
contrevenir à la Loi ou à la Loi sur le contrôle des sports, à la Loi sur les huissiers, à la Loi sur les cimetières (révisée), à la 
Loi sur les agences de recouvrement, à la Loi sur les renseignements concernant le consommateur ou à la Loi sur les 
cinémas, que la conduite visée constitue ou non une infraction : 

1. Le nom de la personne qui fait l'objet de la plainte, tel que le connaît le ministère. 

2. Les noms commerciaux qu'elle emploie, tel que les connaît le ministère. 

3. Son adresse d'affaires, ses numéros de téléphone et de télécopieur d'affaires et son adresse électronique d'affaires, si 
le ministère les connaît. 

4. Le nombre de plaintes que le directeur a reçues à son sujet. 

5. Le fond de chaque plainte et la décision prise à son égard. 

6. À l'égard de chaque plainte, le fait que des accusations ont été ou non portées contre elle de la manière énoncée à 
l'article 88 et que des mesures ont été ou non prises contre elle de la manière énoncée à l'article 89, ainsi que : 

i. les renseignements exigés par la disposition 4 de l'article 88, si des accusations ont été portées, 

ii. les renseignements exigés par la disposition 4 de l'article 89, si des mesures ont été prises. 

(2) Les renseignements visés au paragraphe (1) sont prescrits pour l'application de la disposition 4 du paragraphe 103 (2) 
de la Loi seulement si toutes les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

1. La plainte est donnée par écrit au directeur, précise que son auteur est un consommateur et affirme que celui-ci a 
donné avis du fond de la plainte à la personne qui en fait l'objet ou qu'il a tenté de le faire. 

2. La somme totale dont l'auteur de la plainte serait éventuellement redevable aux termes de la convention de 
consommation visée, à l'exclusion du coût d'emprunt, est supérieure à 100 $. 

3. L'une ou l'autre des conditions suivantes est remplie : 

i. à deux reprises à au plus 20 jours d'intervalle, le ministère a donné avis du fond de la plainte à la personne qui en 
fait l'objet par la poste, par entretien ou message téléphonique, par télécopieur ou par courrier électronique, et : 

A. soit, dans les 20 jours qui suivent le second avis, cette personne n'a pas rectifié la situation à la satisfaction 
de l'auteur de la plainte ou n'a pas donné suite à la plainte quant au fond et n'a pas demandé un délai 
supplémentaire de 10 jours pour ce faire, 

B. soit, dans les 20 jours qui suivent le second avis, cette personne a demandé un délai supplémentaire de 10 
jours pour rectifier la situation ou pour donner suite à la plainte quant au fond sans pour autant réussir, au 
cours de ce délai supplémentaire, à rectifier la situation à la satisfaction de l'auteur de la plainte ou à donner 
suite à la plainte quant au fond, 

ii. malgré les deux tentatives de donner avis du fond de la plainte à la personne qui en fait l'objet par la poste, par 
téléphone, par télécopieur ou par courrier électronique, ou par une combinaison quelconque de ces moyens, le 
courrier du ministère lui a été retourné ou il a été impossible d'avoir un entretien avec la personne ou de lui 
laisser un message téléphonique ou de lui envoyer une télécopie ou un courriel. 

(3) Les renseignements prescrits en application du présent article cessent d'être prescrits si la personne qui fait l'objet de 
la plainte prouve à la satisfaction du directeur ce qui suit: 

a) elle n'a pas reçu l'avis de la plainte du ministère; 

b) elle a rectifié la situation à la satisfaction de l'auteur de la plainte ou y a donné suite quant au fond. 

PARTIE XI 
LOIS ET AUTORITÉS LÉGISLATIVES PRESCRITES— PARTIE XI DE LA LOI 

Loi prescrite 

91. La Loi sur le contrôle des sports est prescrite pour l'application de l'article 105 de la Loi. 
Autorités législatives prescrites 

92. Les autorités législatives suivantes sont prescrites pour l'application du paragraphe 122 (2) de la Loi : 

1 . Le Canada. 

2. Les provinces et territoires du Canada autres que l'Ontario. 

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524 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



PARTIE XII 
ENTRÉE EN VIGUELR 

Entrée un vigueur 

93. Le présent règlement entre en vigueur le 30 juillet 2005. 

8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 18/05 

made under the 
CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT 



Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 



Revoking O. Reg. 175/01 
(Direct Sales Contracts) 



1. Ontario Regulation 175/01 is revoked. 

2. This Regulation conies into force on July 30, 2005. 



8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 19/05 

made under the 
CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

Revoking Reg. 176ofR.R.O. 1990 
(General) 

1. Regulation 176 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 and Ontario Regulations 691/91, 637/93, 516/97, 
56/98 and 279/01 are revoked. 

2. This Regulation comes into force on July 30, 2005. 

RÈGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 19/05 

pris en application de la 
LOI SUR LA PROTECTION DU CONSOMMATEUR 



pris le 2 février 2005 
déposé le 3 février 2005 



abrogeant le Régi. 176 des R.R.O. de 1990 
(Dispositions générales) 



1. Le Règlement 176 des Règlements refondus de l'Ontario de 1990 et les Règlements de l'Ontario 691/91, 637/93, 
516/97, 56/98 et 279/01 sont abrogés. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 525 



2. Le présent règlement entre en vigueur le 30 juillet 2005. 

8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 20/05 

made under the 
PREPAID SERVICES ACT 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

Revoking Reg. 934 of R.R.O. 1990 
^ (General) 

1. Regulation 934 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 is revoked. 

2. This Regulation comes into force on July 30, 2005. 

8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 21/05 

made under the 
MOTOR VEHICLE REPAIR ACT 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

Revoking Reg. 802 of R.R.O. 1990 
(General) 

1. Regulation 802 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 is revoked. 

2. This Regulation comes into force on July 30, 2005. 

8/05 



I 



ONTARIO REGULATION 22/05 

made under the 

MINISTRY OF CONSUMER AND BUSINESS SERVICES ACT 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

INVESTIGATIONS RELATING TO ACTS 

!. The following Acts are prescribed for the purposes of subsection 5.1 (1) of the Act: 

1. Bailiffs Act. 

2. Cemeteries Act (Revised). 

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526 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

3. Collection Agencies Act. 

4. Consumer Protection Act, 2002. 

5 . Consumer Reporting A ct. 

6. Discriminatory Business Practices Act. 

7. Paperback and Periodical Distributors Act. 

8. Theatres Act. 

2. This Regulation comes into force on July 30, 2005. 

RÈGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 22/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI SUR LE MINISTÈRE DES SERVICES AUX CONSOMMATEURS ET AUX ENTREPRISES 

pris le 2 février 2005 
déposé le 3 février 2005 

ENQUÊTES RELATIVES AUX LOIS 

1 . Les lois sui vantes sont prescrites pour l'application du paragraphe 5.1 ( 1 ) de la Loi : 

1 . La Loi sur les huissiers. 

2. La Loi si4r les cimetières (révisée). 

3. La Loi sur les agences de recouvrement. 

4. La Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur. 

5. La Loi sur les renseignements concernant le consommateur. 

6. La Loi sur les pratiques de commerce discriminatoires. 

7. La Loi sur les distributeurs de livres brochés et de périodiques. 

8. La Loi sur les cinémas. 

2. Le présent règlement entre en vigueur le 30 juillet 2005. 

8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 23/05 

made under the 

MOTOR VEHICLE DEALERS ACT 

Made; February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

Amending Reg. 801 of R.R.O. 1990 
(General) 

Note: Regulation 801 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations Legislative 
History Overview which can be found at w w w .e- law s, in > von ca. 

I. (I) Clause 16 (1) (o) of Regulation 801 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 is revoked and the following 
substituted: 

(o) if the balance is to be financed, the information that a lender is required to give to a borrower under section 79 of the 
Consumer Protection Act, 2002, together with a notation that the section has been complied with. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 527 

(2) Clause 16 (2) (n) of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

(n) if the balance is to be financed, the information that a lender is required to give to a borrower under section 79 of the 
Consumer Protection Act, 2002, together with a notation that the section has been complied with; 

2. This Regulation comes into force on July 30, 2005. 

RÈGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 23/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI SUR LES COMMERÇANTS DE VÉHICULES AUTOMOBILES 

pris le 2 février 2005 
déposé le 3 février 2005 

modifiant le Règl. 801 des R.R.O. de 1990 
(Dispositions générales) 

Remarque : Le Règlement 801 a été modifié antérieurement. Ces modifications sont indiquées dans le Sommaire de 
l'historique législatif des règlements qui se trouve sur le site www.lois-en-iigne.gouv.on.ca . 

1. (1) L'alinéa 16 (1) o) du Règlement 801 des Règlements refondus de l'Ontario de 1990 est abrogé et remplacé 
par ce qui suit : 

o) si le solde doit être financé, les renseignements que le prêteur est tenu de donner à un emprunteur en vertu de l'article 
79 de la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur, ainsi qu'une note précisant que cet article a été observé. 

(2) L'alinéa 16 (2) n) du Règlement est abrogé et remplacé par ce qui suit : 

n) si le solde doit être financé, les renseignements que le prêteur est tenu de donner à un emprunteur en vertu de l'article 
79 de la Loi de 2002 sur la protection du consommateur, ainsi qu'une note précisant que cet article a été observé; 

2. Le présent règlement entre en vigueur le 30 juillet 2005. 

8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 24/05 

made under the 
CONSUMER REPORTING ACT 

Made; February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

Amending Reg. 177 of R.R.O. 1990 
(General) 

Note: Regulation 177 has previouslv been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview wnich can be found at www.e-la ws.gov. on. ca . 

1. Sections 11 and 12 of Regulation 177 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 are revoked. 

2. The Schedule to the Regulation is revoked. 

3. This Regulation comes into force on July 30, 2005. 



8/05 

\ 



169 



528 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

ONTARIO REGULATION 25/05 

made under the 

ONTARIO ENERGY BOARD ACT, 1998 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed; February 3, 2005 

Amending O. Reg. 200/02 
(Consumer Protection) 

Note: Ontario Regulation 200/02 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - 
Legislative History Overview which can be found at www.e-laws.gov.on.ca. 

1. Paragraph 7 of subsection 2 (1) of Ontario Regulation 200/02 is amended by striking out "the Business Practices 
Act" at the end and substituting "Part 111 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2002". 

2. This Regulation comes into force on July 30, 2005. 

8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 26/05 

made under the 
TRAVEL INDUSTRY ACT, 2002 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

GENERAL 



CONTENTS 

PARTI 
GENERAL 

1. Definitions 

2. Exemptions 

PART II 
REGISTRATION 

Applications and Renewals 

3. Application, Form and fee 

4. Expiry of registration 

5. Prescribed requirements for registration or renewal 

6. Prescribed conditions, continuation pending renewal 

7. Prescribed time to reapply after rcfiisal, etc. 

Obligations of Registrants 

8. Individual registrant, prescribed condition 

9. Name 

10. Place of business 

11. Branch office 

12. Sale of travel services by travel agent 

13. Certificate of registration 

14. Supervision of office 

1 5. Employees and contractors 

16. Records re employees and contractors 

17. Advance notice to registrar re certain changes 

18. Notice to registrar re other changes 

19. Information in approved form 

20. Unregistered travel agent or travel wholesaler 

21. Notice of ceasing to trade with registrant 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 529 



22. . Financial statements 

23. Woricing capital, transitional provision 

24. Miniinum working capital 

25. Security, new applicant 

26. Bank accounts 

27. Trust accounts 

28. Security instead of trust account 

29. Business records 

30. Application of ss. 31 to 37 

3 1 . Requirements relating to representations 

32. False, misleading and deceptive representations 

33. Statements re price 

34. Information to be included in certain representations 

35. Photographs and other pictures 

36. Duty of travel agent, disclosure and advice 

37. Advising customer of changes 

38. Statements, invoices and receipts 

39. Verifying condition of accommodation 

40. Events requiring notice and offer of refund or replacement 

4 1 . Travel wholesaler to forward documents to travel agent 

42. Travel agent to verify documents 

43. Travel wholesaler required to provide travel services in certain circumstances 

44. Disclosure of counselling fee or service charge 

45. Restrictions, resale of travel services 

46. Duty of registrant who resells travel services 

47. Restriction re air transportation 

Other Matters 

48. Disclosure of information on registrants 

49. False advertising order, prescribed period for pre-approval 

PART III 
FUND 

General 

50. Participation mandatory 

51. Role of board 

52. Fund 

53. Payments by travel agents and travel wholesalers 

54. Payments deposited into Fund 

55. Board to notify registrar of default, etc. 

CLAtMS 

56. Board to deal with claims 

57. Reimbursement of customer 

58. Reimbursement of travel agent 

59. Reimbursement of travel wholesaler 

60. Time for claim 

6 1 . Documents and other information 

62. Subrogation 

63. Credit arrangements, no reimbursement 

64. Commissions and other remuneration repayable by registrant 

65. Major event 

66. Maximum amounts for payments from Fund 

67. Reimbursement for claims under ss. 57, 58 and 59 

68. Payments for immediate departure 

69. Payments for trip completion, etc. 

70. Registrant liable to reimburse Fund for certain payments 

7 1 . Hearing by Tribunal 

Administration of Fund 

72. Borrowing and investment powers 

73. Advisors 

74. Records, etc. available to director 

75. Audit 

PART IV 
REVOCATION AND COMMENCEMENT 

76. Revocation 

77. Commencement 

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530 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



PARTI 
GENERAL 

DeHnilions 

1. In this Regulation, 

"accommodation" means any room that is to be used for lodging by the customer or other person for whom the travel 
services were purchased, and includes any other facilities and services related to the room that are for the use of the 
customer or other person, but does not include meals; ("hébergement") 

"board of directors" means the board of directors of the administrative authority; ("conseil d'administration") 

"major event" means one or more events designated as a major event by the director under section 65; ("événement majeur") 

"sales in Ontario", when used in reference to a period of time, means, 

(a) in the case of a registered travel agent, the amount paid or to be paid to or through the travel agent for all travel 
services sold in Ontario during the relevant period, or 

(b) in the case of a registered travel wholesaler, the amount paid or to be paid to or through the travel wholesaler for all 
travel services sold in Ontario during the relevant period, ("chiffre d'affaires en Ontario") 

Exemptions 

2. ( 1 ) Persons in the classes listed in subsection (2) who do not otherwise act as travel agents or travel wholesalers are 
exempt from the Act and this Regulation. 

(2) Subsection (1) applies to: 

1. A person who, in connection with the business of being an end supplier of accommodation, also provides other local 
travel services that are purchased from another person. 

2. A person (other than a person who operates an airline, cruise line or bus line) who, in connection with the business of 
being an end supplier of travel services, also provides local travel services that are purchased from another person, but 
does not accept payment of more than 25 per cent of the cost of the travel services sold to any customer more than 30 
days before the travel services are to be provided. 

3. A public carrier who sells scheduled transportation. 

4. An agent, appointed by a public carrier holding an operating licence under the Public Vehicles Act, who sells bus 
travel services. 

5. A public carrier who sells one day tours. 

6. A person who sells guide services or sightseeing services in Ontario. 

7. A person who is employed to teach in an elementary or secondary school, university or college of applied arts and 
technology and who, 

i. arranges one-day tours for the students of that school, university or college as part of the curriculum or arranges 
other travel services through a registered travel agent as part of the curriculum, 

ii. has the approval of the appropriate board, principal or other governing body or official to make the arrangements 
for the travel services, and 

iii. receives no direct or indirect gain or profit from arranging for the travel services other than participating in the 
travel services. 

8. The members of a religious organization, amateur sports team or unincorporated association who provide overland 
travel services, if the following conditions are satisfied: 

i. The travel services are provided only to members of the organization, team or association. 

ii. The organization, team or association exists primarily for educational, cultural, religious or athletic purposes and 
the travel services are provided for those purposes. 

iii. Any funds received for the travel services are deposited into a trust account and disbursed to pay the suppliers of 
the travel services or a travel agent. 

iv. The organization, team or association, its members and employees receive no direct or indirect gain or profit from 
the provision of the travel services other than participating in the travel services. 

v. The travel services do not include a destination located more than 2,0(X) kilometres from the departure point. 

vi. The vehicle that is used for transportation remains at the destination to ensure that return transportation is 
available. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 53 1 



9. A not-for-profit corporation without share capital, operating as a club, that provides overland travel services to 
members of the club, if the following conditions are satisfied: 

i. The travel services are provided only to members of the club. 

ii. The corporation exists primarily for educational, cultural, religious or athletic purposes and the travel services are 
provided for those purposes. 

iii. Any funds received for the travel services are deposited into a trust account and disbursed to pay the suppliers of 
the travel services or a travel agent. 

iv. The corporation, its members, officers, directors and employees receive no direct or indirect gain or profit from 
the provision of the travel services other than participating in the travel services. 

v. The travel services do not include a destination located more than 2,000 kilometres from the departure point. 

vi. The vehicle that is used for transportation remains at the destination to ensure that return transportation is 
available. 

PART II 

registration 

Applications and Renewals 

Application, form and fee 

3. ( 1 ) An application for registration or for renewal of registration as a travel agent or a travel wholesaler shall contain all 
the required information, in a form approved by the registrar, and shall be accompanied by the relevant fee set by the 
administrative authority under clause 12 (1) (b) of the Safety and Consumer Statutes Administration Act, 1996, payable to the 
administrative authority. 

(2) An application that does not comply with subsection (1) is incomplete. 

Expiry of registration 

4. Every registration expires on the date shown on the certificate of registration. 
Prescribed requirements for registration or renewal 

5. For the purposes of subsection 8 ( 1 ) of the Act, an applicant for registration or renewal of registration shall meet the 
following requirements: 

1. If the applicant is an individual, he or she is at least 18 years of age and is a resident of Canada. 

2. The applicant does not owe the administrative authority a payment under section 53, or if the applicant does owe the 
administrative authority such a payment, the applicant has made arrangements acceptable to the registrar to pay the 
amount. 

3. The administrative authority does not have an outstanding judgment against the applicant, or if the administrative 
authority does have such a judgment, the applicant has made arrangements acceptable to the registrar to satisfy the 
judgment. 

4. The administrative authority has not paid any claims from the Fund in relation to the applicant's bankruptcy, 
insolvency or ceasing to carry on business, or if the administrative authority has paid such claims, the applicant has 
reimbursed the administrative authority for them and for the administrative authority's costs, or made arrangements 
acceptable to the registrar to do so. 

5. If required to provide security in accordance with section 25, the applicant has done so. 

6. Every other person who is an interested person in respect of the applicant for the purposes of section 8 of the Act also 
satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 2 to 5. 

Prescribed conditions, continuation pending renewal 

6. The prescribed conditions for the purpose of subsection 1 1 (8) of the Act are: 

1. If the registrant is an individual, he or she is a resident of Canada. 

2. The registrant does not owe the administrative authority a payment under section 53, or if the registrant does owe the 
administrative authority such a payment, the registrant has made arrangements acceptable to the registrar to pay the 
amount. 

3. The administrative authority does not have an outstanding judgment against the registrant, or if the administrative 
authority does have such a judgment, the registrant has made arrangements acceptable to the registrar to satisfy the 
judgment. 

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532 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

4. The adminislrative authority has not paid any claims from the Fund in relation to the registrant's bankruptcy, 
insolvency or ceasing to carry on business, or if the administrative authority has paid such claims, the registrant has 
reimbursed the administrative authority for them and for the administrative authority's costs, or made arrangements 
acceptable to the registrar to do so. 

5. If required to provide security in accordance with section 25, the registrant has done so. 
Prescribed time to reapply after refusal, etc. 

7. The prescribed time for the purpose of clause 14 (a) of the Act is 30 days. 

Obligations of Registrants 

Individual registrant, prescribed condition 

8. For the purposes of subsection 8 (2) of the Act, it is a prescribed condition that a registrant who is an individual be a 
resident of Canada. 

Name 

9. ( 1 ) A registrant shall not carry on business under a name other than, 

(a) the name appearing on the registration; or 

(b) a name registered under the Business Names Act. 

(2) The registrant shall notify the registrar of the names under which business will be carried on, and shall not carry on 
business under those names until the registrant has received the registrar's acknowledgment of the notice. 

(3) The registrant shall not carry on business under a name that indicates a sponsorship, approval, status or affiliation that 
the registrant does not have. 

Place of business 

10. (1) A registrant shall carry on business in Ontario only from a permanent place of business in Ontario. 
(2) A registrant shall not carry on business from a dwelling unless the following conditions are met: 

1. The registrant provides proof to the registrar that carrying on the business from the dwelling is permitted by the 
municipality responsible for enforcing local zoning requirements. "• ' 

2. The registrant has a business telephone number that is listed under the name under which the registrant carries on 
business and is different from any residential telephone number. 

3. The registrant has made arrangements that are satisfactory to the registrar to provide access to the registrant's business 
records. 

Branch office 

11. A registrant shall not operate a branch office in Ontario unless the branch office is authorized by the registration. 
Sale of travel services by travel agent 

12. ( I ) A registrant who is a travel agent shall not sell or offer to sell travel services unless, 

(a) the travel services are sold or offered in accordance with subsection (2) or (3), as the case may be; 

(b) the name under which the registrant carries on business and the registrant's address and business telephone number are 
disclosed to the customer; and 

(c) any connection between the registrant and any other registrant that is relevant to the travel services being sold or 
offered to the customer by the first-named registrant is disclosed to the customer. 

(2) During the period that ends on June 30, 2008, the travel services referred to in clause (1) (a) shall be sold or offered, 

(a) directly by the registrant; or 

(b) by an individual who is employed by or has a written contract with the registrant. - ^ 

(3) On and after July 1 , 2008, the travel services referred to in clause ( 1 ) (a) shall be sold or offered, ; 

(a) directly by the registrant; or 

(b) by an individual who is employed by or has a written contract with the registrant and, 

(i) has obtained from the Canadian Institute of Travel Counsellors the required certification for being a travel 
manager or travel counsellor, or 

(ii) meets the conditions set out in subsection 1 5 (3). 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 533 

Certificate of registration 

13. (1) A registrant shall keep the certificate of registration at the office or branch office for which it is issued and shall 
produce it for inspection on any person's request. 

(2) If a registration is revoked, suspended or cancelled or if the registrant voluntarily ceases business, the registrant shall 
promptly return the certificate of registration to the registrar by registered mail or by personal delivery. 

Supervision of office 

14. (1) This section ceases to apply on June 30, 2008. 

(2) A travel agent shall ensure that each office operated by the travel agent is managed and supervised during the hours of 
operation of the office by an individual who has, in the registrar's opinion, sufficient experience with and knowledge of the 
business of selling travel services to ensure that the office is managed in compliance with the Act and this Regulation. 

(3) An application for registration or renewal shall be accompanied by the name, address and a description of the 
experience and knowledge of the individual referred to in subsection (2). 

Employees and contractors 

15. (1) This section applies on and after July 1, 2008. 

(2) A travel agent shall ensure that, 

(a) each office operated by the travel agent is managed and supervised, throughout its hours of operation, by a person ' 
who, 

(i) has obtained the required certification for being a travel manager from the Canadian institute of Travel 
Counsellors, or 

(ii) meets the conditions set out in subsection (3); and 

(b) at least one person who has obtained the required certification for being a travel counsellor from the Canadian Institute 
of Travel Counsellors is available at each office operated by the travel agent, throughout its hours of operation. 

(3) The conditions referred to in subclause (2) (a) (ii) are that the person, 

(a) on June 30, 2008, managed and supervised an office operated by a travel agent; and 

(b) has sufficient experience with and knowledge of the business of selling travel services to ensure that the office is 
managed in compliance with the Act and this Regulation. 

(4) An application for renewal of registration as a travel agent shall be accompanied by a list of the names and addresses 
of the persons who meet the requirements of subsection (2) and, 

(a) are employees of the applicant; or 

(b) have contracts for services with the applicant. 

(5) An application for registration as a travel agent by an applicant who was not registered at the time of the application 
shall be accompanied by a list of the names and addresses of the persons who meet the requirements of subsection (2) or are 
expected to have done so by the time the applicant is registered and, 

(a) are employees or proposed employees of the applicant; or 

(b) have contracts or proposed contracts for services with the applicant. 
Records re employees and contractors 

16. (1) A registrant shall maintain accurate and up-to-date records about persons who counsel customers in relation to 
travel services and are employed by or have contracts for services with the registrant. 

(2) On and after July 1, 2008, the records required by subsection (1) include copies of the relevant certificates issued by 
the Canadian Institute of Travel Counsellors. 

Advance notice to registrar re certain changes 

17. (1) During the period that ends on June 30, 2008, a registrant shall notify the registrar at least five days before any of 
the following takes place: 

1 . A change of address for the office or a branch office of the registrant. 

2. A change of the person identified under section 14 to manage and supervise an office. 

3. A change in the name or number of an account or in the financial institution in which the account is maintained. 

(2) On and after July 1, 2008, a registrant shall notify the registrar at least five days before any of the following takes 
place: 

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534 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

1 . A change of address for the office or a branch office of the registrant. 

2. Any change of the person or persons who satisfy the requirements of subsection 15 (2). 

3. A change in the name or number of an account or in the financial institution in which the account is maintained. 
Notice to registrar re other changes 

18. If there is a change to any of the required information that was included in a registrant's application under subsection 3 
(1), other than a change described in section 17, the registrant shall notify the registrar within five days after the change takes 
place. 

Information in approved form 

19. A registrant who is required to provide information to the administrative authority or to the registrar shall provide it in 
a form approved by the registrar. 

Unregistered travel agent or travel wholesaler 

20. A registrant shall not carry on business with another person who is required to be registered under the Act but is not in 
fact so registered. 

Notice of ceasing to trade with registrant 

21. A registrant who ceases to trade with another registrant by reason of the other registrant's apparent lack of financial 
responsibility shall promptly notify the registrar in writing of the fact and of the reasons for ceasing to trade. 

Financial statements 

22. (1) Every registrant shall file with the registrar the financial statements required by this section for each fiscal year. 

(2) A registrant who had sales in Ontario of less than $10 million during the previous fiscal year shall file, within three 
months after the end of the fiscal year, 

(a) annual financial statements with a review engagement report by a public accountant licensed under the Public 

Accountancy Act; or 

(b) annual financial statements with an auditor's report from a licensed public accountant, if the registrant is required to 
obtain annual financial statements with an auditor's report under the Business Corporations Act. 

(3) A registrant who is a travel agent and had sales in Ontario of $10 million or more but less than $20 million during the 
previous fiscal year shall file, 

(a) annual financial statements with an audit opinion from a licensed public accountant within three months after the end 
of the fiscal year; and 

(b) semi-annual financial statements within 45 days after the end of each fiscal half-year. 

(4) A registrant who is a travel agent and had sales in Ontario of $20 million or more during the previous fiscal year shall 
file, 

(a) annual financial statements with an audit opinion from a licensed public accountant within three months after the end 
of the fiscal year; and 

(b) quarterly financial statements within 45 days after the end of each quarter during the fiscal year. 

(5) A registrant who is a travel wholesaler and had sales in Ontario of $10 million or more during the previous fiscal year 
shall file, 

(a) annual financial statements with an audit opinion from a licensed public accountant within three months after the end 
of the fiscal year; and 

(b) quarterly financial statements within 45 days after the end of each quarter during the fiscal year. 

(6) Financial statements required under this section shall include a statement of sales in Ontario made during the period to 
which the financial statements refer, a balance sheet, an income statement and a reconciliation of the trust accounts 
maintained under section 27. 

(7) If additional information is necessary to provide an accurate and complete review of the registrant's financial position, 
the registrar may require that the registrant file audited financial statements that consolidate or combine the registrant's 
financial statements with, 

(a) the financial statements of another registrant; or 

(b) if the registrant is a corporation, with the financial statements of another person who is a shareholder associated with 
the registrant. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 535 



(8) If the registrar has reason to believe that a registrant is in financial difficulty, the registrar may require that the 
registrant provide to the registrar a written statement of the registrant's current net working capital, and the registrant shall do 
so within the time the registrar specifies. 

(9) The registrar may require that a statement provided under subsection (7) or (8) be verified by affidavit. 
Working capital, transitional provision 

23. (1) This section ceases to apply on December 31, 2005. 

(2) A registrant shall maintain a minimum working capital of $5,000 if the registrant had sales in Ontario of less than $1.5 
million during the previous fiscal year. 

(3) A registrant who had sales in Ontario of $1.5 million or more but less than $10 million during the previous fiscal year 
shall maintain a minimum working capital of $25,000. 

(4) A registrant who had sales in Ontario of $10 million or more but less than $20 million during the previous fiscal year 
shall maintain a minimum working capital of $50,000. 

(5) A registrant who had sales in Ontario of $20 million or more during the previous year shall maintain a minimum 
working capital of $100,000. 

(6) The working capital of a registrant shall be calculated in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and 
shall not include the value of any security provided under subsection 25 (1) or capital belonging to any person with whom the 
registrant has a non-arm's length relationship. 

Minimum working capital 

24. ( 1 ) This section applies on and after January 1 , 2006. 

(2) A registrant who had sales in Ontario during the previous fiscal year of an amount shown in Column 1 of the Table to 
this section shall maintain a working capital of at least the amount shown in Column 2 opposite the first-named amount. 

(3) A registrant's working capital shall be calculated in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and shall 
not include, 

(a) the value of any security provided under subsection 25 ( 1 ); or 

(b) capital belonging to any person who is an interested person in respect of the registrant for the purposes of section 8 of 
the Act. 

TABLE 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Sales in Ontario during previous fiscal year 


Minimum working capital 


$500,000 or less 


$ 5,000 


More than $500,000 but not more than $750,000 


10,000 


More than $750,000 but not more than $1 ,000,000 


15,000 


More than $1,000,000 but not more than $2,000,000 


20,000 


More than $2,000,000 but not more than $5, 000,000 


25,000 


More than $5,000,000 but not more than $10,000,000 


35,000 


More than $10,000,000 but not more than $20,000,000 


50,000 


More than $20,000,000 


100,000 



r 



Security, new applicant 

25. (1) A person who has not been registered at any time during the previous 12 months shall provide $10,000 in security 
to the administrative authority when applying for registration. 

(2) When a registrant who has provided security under subsection (1) has filed two consecutive annual financial 
statements under section 22, 

(a) if the registrar has no concerns about the registrant's compliance with this Regulation and with the Act, the registrar 
shall return the security to the registrant within a reasonable time; 

(b) if the registrar has concerns about the registrant's compliance with this Regulation or with the Act, the registrar shall 
return the security to the registrant only when the registrar's concerns have been resolved. 

(3) When the registrar returns the security under subsection (2), an amount shall be deducted for any claims paid or 
anticipated to be paid to customers of the registrant from the Fund because of the registrant's bankruptcy, insolvency or 
ceasing to carry on business. 

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536 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Bank accounts 

26. (1) A registrant shall maintain all accounts in Ontario in a bank listed in Schedule 1 or II to the Bank Act (Canada), a 
loan or trust corporation or a credit union as defined in the Credit Unions and Caisses Populaires Act, 1994. 

(2) Each account shall be in a name under which the registrant is permitted to carry on business in accordance with 
subsection 9(1). 

(3) The registrant shall promptly deposit all funds received as payment for travel services into such an account. 
Trust accounts 

27. ( 1 ) A registrant shall maintain a trust account for all money received from customers for travel services. 

(2) The trust account shall be designated as a Travel Industry Act trust account. 

(3) A registrant shall hold all money received from customers for travel services in trust and shall deposit all such money 
into the trust account within two banking days after receiving it. 

(4) No registrant shall maintain more than one trust account under subsection (1) without the registrar's written consent, 
obtained in advance. 

(5) A registrant shall file with the registrar, 

(a) a copy of the trust agreement with the financial institution, within five days after establishing a trust account; and 

(b) a copy of any changes to the trust agreement, within five days after making the changes. 

(6) No registrant shall disburse or withdraw any money held in a trust account under subsection (1), except, 

(a) to make payment to the supplier of the travel services for which the money was received; 

(b) to make a refund to a customer; or , , ■ 

(c) after the supplier of the travel services has been paid in full, to pay the registrant's commission. 
Security instead of trust account 

28. (1) Despite section 27, a registrant who has been registered and carrying on business continuously for at least one 
fiscal year may, instead of maintaining a trust account, provide security to the administrative authority in an amount that is 
equal to or greater than one-sixth of the registrant's sales in Ontario for the 12-month period ending on the last day accounted 
for in the most recent annual, semi-annual or quarterly financial statements, as the case may be, required to be filed under 
section 22. 

(2) The obligation to maintain a trust account does not cease until the registrant receives the registrar's acknowledgment 
that the security has been received. 

(3) A registrant who provides security under subsection (I) shall, within 30 days after the day the registrant is required to 
file any financial statements under section 22, review the amount of the security and ensure that it continues to meet the 
requirements of subsection (1). 

Business records 

29. (1) A registrant shall maintain the following business records at the registrant's principal place of business, or at 
another place that the registrar approves in writing: 

1. Accounting records setting out in detail the registrant's income and expenses and supporting documentary evidence, 
including copies of statements, invoices or receipts that have unique identifiers or serial numbers provided to 
customers. 

2. Banking records that readily identify and may be used to verify all transactions that were made in connection with the 

registrant's business. 

3. A written record of all payments made by or to the registrant respecting the purchase or sale of travel services. The 
record shall be in a form that enables the registrar to identify readily the transaction to which each payment relates, 
based on the unique identifiers or serial numbers. 

4. The files maintained under subsections 39 (3) and 40 (3). 

(2) Any record required to be maintained under subsection (I) shall be retained for a period of at least six years after the 
date of the relevant transaction. 

Application of ss. 31-37 

30. Sections 31 to 37 apply with respect to representations relating to the provision of travel services. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 537 



Requirements relating to representations 

31. (1) A registrant who makes a representation or who has one made on the registrant's behalf shall ensure that it 
complies with the Act and with this Regulation. 

(2) Unless a representation is made orally, 

(a) it shall include the name under which the registrant carries on business and the registrant's address and registration 
number; and 

(b) it shall not include a residential telephone number. 

(3) Clause (2) (a) does not apply to a representation that is displayed on a billboard or bus board or made through any 
other medium with similar time or space limitations. 

False, misleading and deceptive representations 

32. No registrant shall make a representation that is false, misleading or deceptive. 
Statements re price 

33. ( 1 ) A representation that refers to the price of travel services shall show the information required by subsections (2) 
and (4) in a clear, comprehensible and prominent manner. 

(2) The representation shall set out, 

(a) the total amount the customer will be required to pay for the travel services, including all fees, levies, service charges 
and surcharges; or 

(b) the amount the customer will be required to pay for the travel services, excluding fees, levies, service charges and 
surcharges, and, 

(i) an itemized list of the cost for each fee, levy, service charge and surcharge, or 

(ii) the total cost the customer will be required to pay for fees, levies, service charges and surcharges. 

(3) It is not necessary for the representation to deal with retail sales tax or federal goods and services tax. 

(4) The representation shall contain, 

(a) a statement of any conditions that affect or limit the availability of the travel services at the price set out under 
subsection (2); 

(b) a brief description of the travel services, including the names of air carriers, hotels and travel wholesalers where 
applicable; and 

(c) a statement that further information is available from a travel agent. 

(5) A representation shall not refer to the price of travel services unless the travel services are available at that price during 
the time to which the representation applies. 

(6) A representation shall not refer to a previous price for travel services. 

(7) The price of travel services referred to in a representation shall be in Canadian currency unless the representation 
indicates, in a clear, prominent and comprehensible manner, that a different currency is used. 

Information to be included in certain representations 

34. ( 1 ) A representation that is in writing and relates to a specific travel service shall include the following information: 

1 . Deposit requirements. 

2. Final payment requirements. 

3. The total price of the travel services as set out under subsection 33 (2). 

4. Cancellation terms and any cancellation charges. 

5. The availability and cost of trip cancellation insurance, and of out-of-province health insurance if applicable. 

6. The reftmd policy, including any penalty provisions. 

7. A fair and accurate description of the travel services, including, 

i. details of transportation, including the name of the principal carrier, the class of service and all departure and 
arrival points, and 

ii. detailsof any accommodation. 

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538 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

8. The date or anticipated date of commencement and the anticipated duration of any construction or renovation that is 
likely to interfere with the use and enjoyment of any accommodation. 

9. The period to which the representation applies. 

(2) Subsection ( 1 ) does not apply to a representation that is displayed on a billboard or bus board or made through any 
other medium with similar time or space limitations. 

Photographs and other pictures 

35. (1) If a photograph is used in a representation, 

(a) the photograph shall accurately depict the thing to which the representation refers; and 

(b) the representation shall indicate, in a clear, prominent and comprehensible manner, that the photograph is a photograph 
of the thing to which the representation refers. 

(2) If a picture that is not a photograph is used in a representation, 

(a) the picture shall accurately depict the thing being represented; and 

(b) the representation shall indicate, in a clear, prominent and comprehensible manner, that the picture is not a photograph 
of the thing to which the representation refers. 

Duty of travel agent, disclosure and advice 

36. Before entering into an agreement with a customer for travel services, and before taking payment or credit card 
information from the customer, a travel agent shall, 

(a) bring to the customer's attention any conditions related to the purchase of travel services that the travel agent has 
reason to believe may affect the customer's decision to purchase; 

(b) disclose the total price of the travel services, the travel dates and a fair and accurate description of the travel services to 
be provided; 

(c) explain to the customer any requirements or limitations relating to transfer or cancellation of the travel services, 
including, 

(i) the range of penalties or other costs associated with transfer or cancellation, and 

(ii) any non-refundable payments to be made by the customer; 

(d) advise the customer about the availability of, 

(i) trip cancellation insurance, and 
(ii) out-of-province health insurance if applicable; 

(e) in the case of proposed travel outside Canada, advise the customer, 

(i) about typical information and travel documents, such as passports, visas and affidavits, that will be needed for 
each person for whom travel services are being purchased, 

(ii) that entry to another country may be refused even if the required information and travel documents are complete, 
and 

(iii) that living standards and practices at the destination and the standards and conditions there with respect to the 
provision of utilities, services and accommodation may differ from those found in Canada; 

(f) refer to other conditions, if any, that relate to the transaction and to the travel services, and advise the customer where 
those conditions may be reviewed; and 

(g) advise the customer that the travel agent is required to answer any questions the customer may have arising from the 
information provided under clauses (a) to (f) or from a representation. 

Advising customer of changes 

37. If, after a customer has purchased travel services, the registrant becomes aware of a change to any matter that is 
referred to in a representation and that, if known, might have affected the customer's decision to purchase, the registrant shall 
promptly advise the customer of the change. 

Statements, invoices and receipts 

38. (1) After selling travel services to a customer, a travel agent shall promptly provide the customer with a statement, 
invoice or receipt that meets the requirements of subsection (3) and sets out, 

(a) the name and address of the customer who purchased the travel services and the name and address, if known, of each 
person on whose behalf the payment is made; 

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f 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 539 



(b) the date of the booking and the date of the first payment; 

(c) the amount of the payment, indicating whether it is full or partial payment, the amount of any balance owing, if 
known, and the date when it is to be paid; 

(d) any fees, levies, service charges, surcharges, taxes or other charges, and whether those amounts are refundable or non- 
refundable; 

(e) the total price of the travel services; 

(f) the name under which the travel agent carries on business, the travel agent's telephone number and registration 
number, the address of the travel agent's place of business, and information respecting other ways, if any, that the 
customer may contact the travel agent, such as the travel agent's fax and e-mail address; 

(g) a fair and accurate description of the travel services contracted for, including the destination, the departure date and the 
name of the persons who will provide the travel services; 

(h) whether or not the customer has purchased, 

(i) trip cancellation insurance, and 
(ii) out-of-province health insurance if applicable; 
(i) whether the contract permits price increases; 
(j) if the contract permits price increases, 

(i) a statement that no price increases are permitted after the customer has paid in full, and 

(ii) a statement that if the total price of the travel services is increased and the cumulative increase, except any 
increase resulting from an increase in retail sales tax or federal goods and services tax, is more than 7 per cent, 
the customer has the right to cancel the contract and obtain a full refund; 

(k) the information given to the customer under clause 36 (e); and 

(1) the names of all the travel counsellors who provided information to the customer on the travel agent's behalf. 

(2) Every travel wholesaler shall promptly provide to each travel agent through whom the travel wholesaler sells a travel 
service a statement, invoice or receipt that meets the requirements of subsection (3) and sets out, 

(a) the name and address of the travel agent through whom the travel wholesaler is selling the travel service; 

(b) the terms of payment and the amount paid; 

(c) the name of each customer and, if known, each other person for whom the travel service is being purchased; and 

(d) the destination of each customer and other person and, if relevant, the date of departure. 

(3) A statement, invoice or receipt referred to in subsection (1) or (2) shall, 

(a) if it is prepared manually, be consecutively pre-numbered; 

(b) if it is prepared by computer, be assigned a unique identifier. 

Verifying condition of accommodation 

39. (1) A registrant who acquires a right to accommodation for the purpose of selling it to a customer shall take 
reasonable measures to ensure that the accommodation is, at the time the customer uses the travel services, in the same 
condition as was described by the registrant at the time of sale. 

(2) If the accommodation is not in the condition represented by the registrant, the registrant shall promptly notify the 
customer to whom the accommodation is sold, or the customer's travel agent, as the case may be, of that fact and, 

(a) if the accommodation is sold as part of a package that includes transportation to a destination, offer the customer the 
choice of a full and immediate refund of the amount the customer paid for the package, including all fees, levies, 
service charges, surcharges, taxes and other charges, or a comparable alternate package acceptable to the customer; or 

(b) if the accommodation is not sold as a part of a package that includes transportation to a destination, offer the customer 
the choice of a full and immediate refund of the amount the customer paid for the accommodation, including all fees, 
levies, service charges, surcharges, taxes and other charges, or comparable alternate accommodation acceptable to the 
customer. 

(3) Every registrant shall establish a file for the purposes of this section, and a registrant who is required to act under 
clause (2) (a) or (b) shall make a written notation in the tile stating, 

(a) what information was communicated to the customer; 

(b) the date on which the information was communicated to the customer; 

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540 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(c) what method of communication was used; and 

(d) what choice the customer made. 

Events requiring notice and offer of refund or replacement 

40. (I) A registrant who becomes aware that any of the following events has occurred shall promptly notify the travel 
agent or customer, as the case may be, and offer the customer the choice of a full and immediate refund or comparable 
alternate travel services acceptable to the customer: 

1 . The scheduled departure of any transportation that forms part of the travel services is delayed or advanced by 24 hours 
or more, unless the reason for the delay or advancing is one described in subsection (2). 

2. A different cruise ship is substituted. 

3. The accommodation is changed or the standard of the accommodation is changed. 

4. The contract permits price increases, the total price of the travel services is increased and the cumulative increase, 
except any increase resulting from an increase in retail sales tax or federal goods and services tax, is more than 7 per 
cent. 

5. The contract does not pennit price increases but the total price of the travel services is increased, whatever the amount 
of the increase or the reason for it. 

6. The documents needed for the trip are changed because the transportation routing is changed, and there is not enough 
time for the person to obtain the documents before the departure. 

(2) Paragraph 1 of subsection ( 1 ) does not apply if the delay or advancing is the resuU of, 

(a) mechanical problems with a vehicle, ship or aircraft; 

(b) safety considerations; 

(c) weather conditions; 

(d) a strike or lock-out; or 

(e) force majeure. 

(3) Every registrant shall establish a file for the purposes of this section, and a registrant who is required to act under 
subsection (I) shall make a written notation in the file stating, 

(a) what infonnation was communicated to the customer; 

(b) the date on which the information was communicated to the customer; 

(c) what method of communication was used; and 

(d) what choice the customer made. 

Travel wholesaler to forward documents to travel agent 

41. If a travel agent sells travel services and pays the travel wholesaler for the travel services 21 or more days before the 
date of departure, the travel wholesaler shall forward the tickets, vouchers, itinerary and other documents that relate to the 
travel services to the travel agent at least 14 days before the date of departure, unless the agent or the customer directs 
otherwise. 

Travel agent to verify documents 

42. A travel agent shall, on receiving from a travel wholesaler or other person a ticket, voucher, itinerary or other 
document that relates to travel services, ensure that the information contained on it is correct before giving it to the customer 
who purchased the travel services from the travel agent. 

Travel wholesaler required to provide travel services in certain circumstances 

43. Despite any failure on the part of the travel agent to pay the travel wholesaler for travel services, the travel wholesaler 
shall not refuse to provide the travel services purchased by a customer if, 

(a) the customer has paid the travel agent for the travel services; and 

(b) the travel wholesaler has provided tickets or other documents that relate to the travel services to a travel agent for 
distribution to the customer. 

Disclosure of counselling fee or service charge 

44. A travel agent who charges a counselling fee or service charge with respect to travel services shall, before counselling 
the customer about travel services or selling travel services to the customer, infonn the customer, 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 541 



(a) of the existence of the counselling fee or service charge; and 

(b) whether the counselling fee or service charge or any part of it is refundable or non-refundable, and under what 
circumstances. 

Restrictions, resale of travel services 

45. ( 1 ) A travel wholesaler shall sell or offer for sale travel services only if the travel wholesaler has an agreement with 
the supplier of the travel services and all of the terms of the agreement are set out in writing. 

(2) Subsection (I) also applies, with necessary modifications, to a travel agent who has acquired rights to travel services 
for resale. 

Duty of registrant who resells travel services 

46. If a registrant acquires rights to travel services for resale to other registrants or to customers and the supplier fails to 
provide the travel services paid for by a customer, the registrant who acquired the rights for resale shall reimburse the 
customer or provide comparable alternate travel services acceptable to the customer. 

Restriction re air transportation 

47. A registrant shall not sell or offer for sale travel services that include air transportation unless the air carrier, 

(a) is licensed to provide the travel services in all the relevant jurisdictions, by the appropriate authorities; 

(b) has received any approvals or has filed to obtain any approvals necessary to provide the travel services; and 

(c) has complied with regulatory requirements in Canada and in any other relevant jurisdiction. 

Other Matters 

Disclosure of information on registrants 

48. (1) The registrar shall make available to the public, by electronic or other means, the following information respecting 
registrants: 

1. The names of persons registered as travel agents or travel wholesalers. 

2. The status of the registration of the persons described in paragraph I, including the conditions mentioned in subsection 
8(2)oftheActthatare, 

i. applied by the registrar under section 10 of the Act, or 

ii. ordered by the Tribunal. 

3. The business address and business telephone number of the persons described in paragraph 1 and the other ways, if 
any, of contacting them. 

4. The names of persons whose registration has been revoked within the previous two years. 

5. The name of any registrant who has been charged with an offence by the administrative authority. 

6. The name of any registrant against whom the registrar has made an order under subsection 29 ( 1 ) of the Act, and the 
contents of the order. 

(2) If the registrar becomes aware of information respecting a registrant or a person who is carrying on activities that 
require registration and is of the opinion that the information could assist in protecting the public if the public knew of it, the 
registrar shall disclose the information to the public by whatever means are reasonable. 

(3) If the Tribunal takes an action respecting an applicant for registration or a registrant as a result of the person requesting 
a hearing under the Act, the registrar shall make a notice of the action available to the public by electronic or other means. 

(4) In making any information or notice available to the public under this section, the registrar shall ensure that the 
information or notice, as the case may be, does not include the name of an individual, except if the individual is an applicant 
for registration, a registrant or a person who is required to be registered or if the name of the individual is otherwise available 
to the public. 

(5) The information that this section requires the registrar to disclose shall not be disclosed in bulk to any person except as 
required by law, or to a law enforcement authority. 

False advertising order, prescribed period for pre-approval 

49. The prescribed period for the purpose of subsection 29 (4) of the Act is 90 days. 



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542 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



PART III 
FLND 

General 

Parlicipaliun mandatory 

50. Every registrant shall participate in the Fund. 
Role of board 

51. The board of directors shall administer and manage the affairs of the Fund. 
Fund 

52. ( 1 ) The Fund is composed of, 

(a) payments made by registrants in accordance with this Regulation and by participants or registrants in accordance with 
a predecessor to this Regulation; 

(b) any money borrowed under this Regulation or under a predecessor of this Regulation; 

(c) recoveries made for money paid from the Fund; and 

(d) any income earned on the money in the Fund. 

(2) The administrative authority shall hold all money in the Fund in trust for the benefit of claimants whose claims for 
compensation the board of directors approves in accordance with this Regulation. 

Payments by travel agents and travel wholesalers 

53. (1) Payments under this section shall be made to the administrative authority, 

(a) within 45 days after the end of the first half of the registrant's fiscal year; and 

(b) within 45 days after the end of the second half of the registrant's fiscal year. 

(2) A travel agent shall make payments in the amount that is the greater of the following: ' 

1. $25 plus the applicable taxes. 

2. For every $1,000 or part of $1,000 of sales in Ontario during the preceding fiscal half-year, $0.25 plus the applicable 
taxes. 

(3) A travel wholesaler shall make payments in the amount that is the greater of the following: 

1. $25 plus the applicable taxes. 

2. For every $1,000 or part of $1,000 of sales in Ontario during the preceding fiscal half-year, $0.50 plus the applicable 
taxes. 

(4) A payment under this section shall be accompanied by a completed return indicating the registrant's sales in Ontario 
for the preceding fiscal half-year and the amount of payments owing to the administrative authority. 

(5) The return shall be certified, as to the accuracy of the information contained in it, by the registrant or an authorized 
officer or partner of the registrant. 

Payments deposited into Fund 

54. The administrative authority shall deposit into the Fund all payments that it receives under sections 53 and 64. 
Board to notify registrar of default, etc. 

55. The board of directors shall notify the registrar as soon as possible if, in connection with its administration of the 
Fund, it becomes aware of, 

(a) any default of a registrant; 

(b) any claim made under this Part in respect of a registrant; or 

(c) any failure by a registrant to perfomi any obligation or condition under the Act or this Regulation. 

Claims 

Board to deal with claims 

56. The board of directors shall determine, 

(a) whether a claim, or a part of one, is eligible for reimbursement; and 

(b) the eligible amount of the claim. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 543 

Reimbursement of customer 

57. ( 1 ) A customer is entitled to be reimbursed for travel services paid for but not provided if, 

(a) the customer paid for the travel services and the payment or any part of it was made to or through a registered travel 
agent; 

(b) the customer has made a demand for payment from, 

(i) the registered travel agent and the appropriate registered wholesaler, 

(ii) any other person who has received the customer's money, and 

(iii) any other person who may be legally obliged to reimburse or compensate the customer, including a person 
obliged under a contract for insurance; and 

(c) the customer has not been reimbursed by, 

(i) the registered travel agent or the appropriate registered wholesaler, because either or both of them, 

(A) are unable to pay by reason of bankruptcy or insolvency, 

(B) have ceased carrying on business and are unwilling to pay, or 

(C) have ceased carrying on business and cannot be located, 

(ii) any other person who has received the customer's money, or 

(iii) any other person who may be legally obliged to reimburse or compensate the customer, including a person 
obliged under a contract for insurance. 

(2) A reimbursement under subsection (1) is limited to the amount paid to or through any registrant for the travel services 
that were not provided. 

(3) Despite subsection (I), a customer is not entitled to be reimbursed for: 

1 . Travel services that were not provided because an end supplier, other than a cruise line or airline, became bankrupt or 
insolvent or ceased to carry on business. 

2. A payment to or through a registrant for any travel services that were provided or for which alternate travel services 
were provided or made available. 

3. A payment for travel services that were available, but were not received because of an act or a failure to act on the part 
of the customer or of another person for whom the travel services were purchased. 

4. Counselling fees paid to a travel agent. 

5. Travel services that were to be received as a prize, award or goodwill gesture. 

6. Travel services that the customer obtained with a voucher, certificate, coupon or similar document that the customer 
did not pay for. 

7. Travel services that the customer did not pay for with cash or by a cheque, credit card or other similar payment 
method. 

8. Insurance premiums. 

9. A claim that is based on the cost, value or quality of the travel services or alternate travel services. 

10. A claim in connection with which travel services were provided under section 68 or 69. 

11. Consequential or indirect damages incurred as a result of the failure to provide the travel services. 

(4) if the travel services were not provided because an end supplier who is an airline or a cruise line became bankrupt or 
insolvent or ceased to carry on business, subclauses (1) (b) (i) and (I) (c) (i) do not apply. 

Reimbursement of travel agent 

58. ( I ) A travel agent is entitled to be reimbursed for money paid by the travel agent to reimburse a customer or to 
provide alternate travel services to the customer if, 

(a) the customer paid for the travel services and the payment or any part of it was made to or through the travel agent; 

(b) the travel agent dealt with a travel wholesaler, airline or cruise line, in good faith and at arm's length; 

(c) the travel agent passed all or part of the customer's money to the travel wholesaler, airline or cruise line; and 

(d) the travel services were not provided. 

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544 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the travel agent had acquired the right to the travel services for resale as described in 
section 46. 

(3) The travel agent is entitled to be reimbursed only for the portion of the customer's money that the travel agent passed 
to the travel wholesaler, airline or cruise line. 

(4) The travel agent is entitled to be reimbursed only if the customer would otherwise have had a claim against the Fund. 

(5) The travel agent is not entitled to be reimbursed for any commission or other remuneration, including a service charge, 
owing on account of the travel services purchased by the customer. 

Reimbursement of travel wholesaler 

59. (1) A travel wholesaler is entitled to be reimbursed for money paid by the travel wholesaler to reimburse a customer 
for travel services paid for but not provided or to provide the customer with travel services for which the travel wholesaler 
has not been paid by the travel agent if, 

(a) the travel agent is a registrant; 

(b) the travel wholesaler dealt with the travel agent in good faith and at arm's length; 

(c) the travel agent failed to pass all or part of the customer's money to the travel wholesaler; 

(d) the travel wholesaler has had no previous dealings with the travel agent in which the travel agent failed to pass the 
customer's money to the travel wholesaler in respect of travel services or was otherwise in default; and 

(e) the travel wholesaler has taken reasonable measures in the circumstances to ensure that the travel agent is reliable and 
financially responsible. 

(2) The travel wholesaler is entitled to be reimbursed only for the portion of the customer's money that the travel agent 
received but failed to pass on to the travel wholesaler. 

(3) The travel wholesaler is entitled to be reimbursed only if it can reasonably be established that, 

(a) the travel agent received the customer's money; and 

(b) the customer would otherwise have had a claim against the Fund. 

(4) The travel wholesaler is not entitled to be reimbursed for any amount owing from the travel agent that represents a 
commission or other remuneration, including a service charge. 

(5) The travel wholesaler is not entitled to be reimbursed for a payment made by credit card if the registrant who 
processed the payment did not obtain approval for the payment from the customer and from the card issuer, in advance, in 
accordance with the agreement between the card issuer and the registrant. 

(6) The travel wholesaler is not entitled to be reimbursed for a payment made by means of a cheque received from a travel 
agent unless, 

(a) the cheque is received by the travel wholesaler seven or fewer days before the commencement of the travel services; 

(b) the cheque is promptly deposited by the travel wholesaler in an account maintained in a financial institution referred to 
in section 26; and 

(c) the cheque is returned to the travel wholesaler by the financial institution for reasons of insufficient funds. 

(7) If subsection (6) applies, the travel wholesaler is not entitled to be reimbursed for any portion of the claim that exceeds 
the travel wholesaler's volume of business with the travel agent for a normal week based on established trading patterns 
within the 12-month period that immediately preceded the customer's departure. 

Time for claim 

60. ( 1 ) A customer or a registrant may make a claim to be reimbursed in writing to the board of directors within six 
months after the relevant registrant or end supplier becomes bankrupt or insolvent or ceases to carry on business. 

(2) A claim to be reimbursed that is made after the end of the six-month period is not valid. 

Documents and other information 

61. ( 1 ) The claimant shall provide such documents and other information to the board of directors as the board requires to 
prove the claim. 

(2) The board of directors may request that the claimant provide additional documents or other information. 

(3) If the claimant does not provide the additional documents or other information within 12 months after receiving the 
request, the claim shall be treated as abandoned, unless the board of directors is satisfied that it would not be fair to do so. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 545 



Subrogation 

62. If the board determines that the claim or part of it is eligible for reimbursement, it may require the claimant to sign any 
documents that are necessary to transfer the claimant's interest in a related claim against a third party to the administrative 
authority so as to subrogate the administrative authority to the claimant's position. 

Credit arrangements, no reimbursement 

63. ( 1 ) A travel agent is not entitled to be reimbursed unless, 

(a) the customer paid for the travel services, to or through the travel agent; and 

(b) the travel agent passed the customer's payment on to a travel wholesaler or end supplier. 
(2) A travel wholesaler is not entitled to be reimbursed unless, 

(a) the customer paid for the travel services; 

(b) the travel wholesaler received the customer's payment; and 

(c) the travel wholesaler passed the payment on to another travel wholesaler or to an end supplier. 
Commissions and other remuneration repayable by registrant 

64. If a customer has not received any of the travel services paid for, the registrant shall pay the amount of all 
commissions and other remuneration that the registrant received for the travel services, except for counselling fees, 

(a) to the customer; or 

(b) to the administrative authority. 
Major event 

65. ( 1 ) The director may designate one or more events as a major event, having regard to, 

(a) the nature of the events; 

(b) the number of claims arising or potentially arising out of the events; and 

(c) the need to protect the Fund. 

(2) When the director designates one or more events as a major event, the board of directors may, 

(a) defer the payment of any reimbursement under section 67 until it is satisfied that it has received all claims likely to be 
made with respect to the major event; and 

(b) reimburse claims in one or more instalments or only partially reimburse claims, if it is necessary or prudent to do so in 
order to protect the Fund. 

Maximum amounts for payments from Fund 

66. The following rules apply to payments from the Fund under sections 67, 68 and 69: 

1. A maximum amount of $5,000 for each person whose travel services were paid for by a customer may be paid from 
the Fund for the following: 

i. Reimbursement under section 67. 

ii. Immediate departure under section 68. 

iii. Trip completion under section 69. 

2. Despite paragraph 1, but subject to paragraph 5, the maximum amount that may be paid from the Fund under sections 
67 and 68 with respect to all claims arising out of an event or a major event is $5 million, in addition to any amount 
that the administrative authority may recover by way of subrogated claim against a registrant or any other person. 

3. Subject to paragraph 4, the maximum amount that may be paid from the Fund for trip completion under section 69 is 
$2 million with respect to all claims arising out of an event or major event. 

4. If the $2 million maximum is not sufficient in the case of a particular event or major event the director may, with the 
approval of the board of directors, direct the administrative authority to make additional payments from the Fund for 
trip completion under section 69. These additional payments shall not exceed $5 million. 

5. Additional payments under paragraph 4, 

i. shall be deducted from the $5 million maximum for claims under sections 67 and 68 with respect to the same 
event or major event, and 

ii. take priority over claims under sections 67 and 68 with respect to the same event or major event. 

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546 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Reimbursement for claims under ss. S7, 58 and 59 

67. A customer or registrant who makes a claim under section 57, 58 or 59 may be reimbursed in accordance with 
paragraphs 1, 2 and 5 of section 66. 

Payments for immediate departure 

68. (1) The director may direct the administrative authority to make payments from the Fund in order to enable the 
immediate departure of a customer or of another person for whom the customer purchased travel services, if, 

(a) the customer or other person was preparing for immediate departure and was prevented from departing through no 
fault of his or her own; 

(b) immediate payment from the Fund is necessary to alleviate suffering on the part of the customer or other person; and 

(c) it is likely that the customer would be eligible for reimbursement from the Fund. 

(2) Payments under subsection (1 ) are governed by paragraphs 1 and 2 of section 66. 

(3) In deciding whether to make a direction under subsection ( 1 ), the director may consider any relevant matters including, 

(a) the welfare of the customer or other person; 

(b) the practicality of arranging for immediate departure; and 

(c) the need to protect the Fund. 
Payments for trip completion, etc. 

69. (1) If a customer or other person is experiencing hardship or inconvenience because he or she has begun a trip that 
cannot be completed because travel services have not been provided and it is likely that the customer would be eligible for 
reimbursement from the Fund, the director may direct the administrative authority to make payments from the Fund to pay or 
assist in paying the cost of, 

(a) trip completion for the customer or other person, in accordance with subsection (3); and 

(b) necessary accommodation and meals for the customer or other person before the trip can be completed. 

(2) Payments under subsection (1) are governed by paragraphs 1, 3 and 4 of section 66. 

(3) For the purposes of subsection ( 1 ), trip completion is achieved, 

(a) by bringing the customer or other person to the final destination; or 

(b) by returning the customer or other person home, if this is his or her preference and can be done for a cost that does not 
exceed the cost of bringing the customer or other person to the final destination. 

Registrant liable to reimburse Fund for certain payments 

70. A registrant is required to reimburse the Fund for any claims paid to the registrant's customers under the following 
circumstances: 

1 . The registrant is bankrupt or insolvent or has ceased to carry on business. 

2. The registrant purchased travel services on the customer's behalf extending credit to the customer, and the customer 
paid the registrant for the travel services after the supplier of the travel services had become bankrupt or insolvent or 
ceased to carry on business. 

Hearing by Tribunal 

71. (1) If the board of directors determines that a claim or any part of a claim made under section 57, 58 or 59 is not 
eligible for reimbursement, the administrative authority shall immediately serve notice of the decision on the claimant. 

(2) The claimant is entitled to a hearing before the Tribunal if, within 15 days after being served with notice, the claimant 
mails or delivers a written request for a hearing to the registrar, the administrative authority and the Tribunal. 

(3) The notice under subsection (1) shall inform the claimant of the right to a hearing and of the manner and time within 
which to request the hearing. 

(4) If a claimant who has been served with a notice under subsection (1) does not require a hearing, the decision of the 
board of directors becomes final. 

(5) If the claimant requires a hearing before the Tribunal in accordance with subsection (2), the Tribunal shall appoint a 
time for and hold the hearing. 

(6) The Tribunal may, 

(a) allow the claim, in whole or in part, and direct the administrative authority to pay the amount allowed from the Fund; 

or 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 547 

(b) refuse to allow the claim in whole or in part. 

(7) The claimant who requested the hearing, the administrative authority and any other person specified by the Tribunal 
are parties to the hearing. 

(8) Sections 56 to 69 apply with necessary modifications to any decision of the Tribunal under this section. 

Administration OF Fund 

Borrowing and investment powers 

72. (1) The administrative authority may borrow money to supplement the Fund. 

(2) The administrative authority may, from time to time, invest any money of the Fund that is surplus to the administrative 
authority's immediate requirements in property in which a trustee is authorized to invest, in accordance with the Trustee Act. 

Advisors 

73. ( 1 ) The board of directors may employ, retain or authorize the employment of any counsel, accountant or other expert 
or of advisors, staff or trade associations as the board may reasonably require to administer and manage the Fund, to 
investigate claims and to maintain and protect the Fund. 

(2) The board of directors and the administrative authority may rely and act upon the opinion, advice or information 
provided by any person mentioned in subsection ( 1 ). 

(3) The remuneration of a person mentioned in subsection (1) may be paid from the Fund. 
Records, etc. available to director 

74. The board of directors shall make available to the director any information, books, records or documents that it keeps 
respecting the affairs of the Fund. 

Audit 

75. (1) The director may require that the affairs of the Fund be audited. 

(2) The board of directors shall assist the auditors in performing the audit and shall provide any books, records or 
information that may be required. 

PART IV 
REVOCATION AND COMMENCEMENT 

Revocation 

76. Ontario Regulations 806/93, 570/94, 238/97, 331/98, 235/00 and 428/01 are revoked. 
Commencement 

77. This Regulation comes into force on July 1, 2005. 

RÈGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 26/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI DE 2002 SUR LE SECTEUR DU VOYAGE 

pris le 2 février 2005 
déposé le 3 février 2005 

DISPOSITIONS GÉNÉRALES 
SOMMAIRE 



1 . Définitions 

2. Exemptions 



PARTIE I 
DISPOSITIONS GÉNÉRALES 



PARTIE II 
INSCRIPTION 



Demandes et renouvellements 
Demande, fomiule et droits 



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548 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



4. Expiration de l'inscription 

5. Exigences prescrites pour l'inscription ou le renouvellement 

6. Conditions prescrites : maintien jusqu'au renouvellement 

7. Délai prescrit pour présenter une nouvelle demande après un refus 

Obligations des personnes inscrites 

8. Inscription d'un particulier : condition prescrite 

9. Nom 

10. Établissement 

1 1 . Succursales 

1 2. Vente de services de voyages par l'agent de voyages 

13. Certificat d'inscription 

14. Supervision du bureau 

1 5. Employés et sous-traitants 

16. Dossiers sur les employés et les sous-traitants 

17. Préavis donné au registrateur ; certains changements 

1 8. Avis donné au registrateur : autres changements 

1 9. Forme approuvée des renseignements 

20. Agent de voyages ou voyagiste non inscrit 

2 1 . Avis de la cessation de commercer avec une personne inscrite 

22. États financiers 

23. Fonds de roulement : disposition transitoire 

24. Fonds de roulement minimal 

25. Garantie ; auteur de demande non inscrit 

26. Comptes bancaires 

27. Comptes en fiducie 

28. Garantie au lieu du compte en fiducie 

29. Dossiers commerciaux 

30. Application des art. 31 à 37 

3 1 . Exigences relatives aux assertions 

32. Assertions fausses, mensongères et trompeuses 

33. Déclarations : prix 

34. Renseignements à inclure dans certaines assertions 

35. Photographies et autres images 

36. Obligation de l'agent de voyages : divulgations et conseils 

37. Avis au client ; changements 

38. États, factures et reçus 

39. Vérification de l'état de l'hébergement 

40. Événements exigeant un avis et une offre de remboursement ou de remplacement 

41 . Obligation du voyagiste de remettre des documents à l'agent de voyages 

42. Obligation de l'agent de voyages de vérifier les documents 

43. Obligation du voyagiste de fournir des services de voyages dans certains cas 

44. Divulgation des frais de consultation ou de service 

45. Restrictions : revente de services de voyages 

46. Obligation de la personne inscrite qui revend des services de voyages 

47. Restriction ; déplacement par avion 

Autres questions 

48. Divulgation de renseignements concernant les personnes inscrites 

49. Ordonnance relative à une publicité mensongère : période d'approbation préalable 

PARTIE III 
FONDS 

Dispositions générales 

50. Participation obligatoire 

5 1 . Rôle du conseil d'administration 

52. Fonds 

53. Paiements des agents de voyages et des voyagistes 

54. Paiements déposés dans le Fonds 

55. Obligation du conseil d'administration d'aviser le registrateur en cas de défaut 

Indemnités 

56. Traitement des demandes d'indemnisation par le Conseil 

57. Remboursement du client 

58. Remboursement de l'agent de voyages 

59. Remboursement du voyagiste 

60. Délai de présentation de la demande d'indemnisation 

6 1 . Documents et autres renseignements 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 549 



62. Subrogation 

63. Arrangements de crédit : aucun remboursement 

64. Commissions et autres rémunérations remboursées par la personne inscrite 

65. Evénement majeur 

66. ' Paiements maximaux sur le Fonds 

67. Remboursement en vertu des art. 57, 58 et 59 

68. Paiements en vue du départ immédiat 

69. Paiements en vue de la conclusion de voyages 

70. Obligation de la personne inscrite de rembourser certains paiements au Fonds 

71. Audience du Tribunal 

Administration du Fonds 

72. Pouvoirs d'emprunt et de placement 

73. Conseillers 

74. Dossiers mis à la disposition du directeur 

75. Vérification 

PARTIE IV 

ABROGATION ET ENTRÉE EN VIGUEUR 

76. , Abrogation 

77. Entrée en vigueur 

PARTIE I 
DISPOSITIONS GÉNÉRALES 

Définitions 

1. Les définitions qui suivent s'appliquent au présent règlement, 
«chiffre d'affaires en Ontario» Relativement à une période, s'entend : 

a) dans le cas d'un agent de voyages inscrit, des sommes payées ou à payer à l'agent ou par son entremise pour les 
services de voyages vendus en Ontario pendant la période pertinente; 

b) dans le cas d'un voyagiste inscrit, des sommes payées ou à payer au voyagiste ou par son entremise pour les services 
de voyages vendus en Ontario pendant la période pertinente, («sales in Ontario») 

«conseil d'administration» Le conseil d'administration de l'organisme d'application, («board of directors») 

«événement majeuD> Un ou plusieurs événements désignés comme majeurs par le directeur en vertu de l'article 65. («major 
event») 

«hébergement» Pièce destinée à loger le client ou l'autre personne pour qui les services de voyages ont été acquis, y compris 
les autres installations et services se rapportant à la pièce qui lui sont offerts, sauf les repas, («accommodation») 

Exemptions 

2. (1) Quiconque appartient à une catégorie énumérée au paragraphe (2) et n'agit pas par ailleurs en qualité d'agent de 
voyages ou de voyagiste est soustrait à l'application de la Loi et du présent règlement. 

(2) Le paragraphe ( 1 ) s'applique aux personnes suivantes : 

1. Quiconque, dans le cadre de l'entreprise consistant à être le fournisseur final d'hébergement, fournit également 
d'autres services de voyages locaux acquis auprès d'une autre personne. 

2. Toute personne qui n'exploite pas une compagnie aérienne, une société de croisières ou une société d'autocars et qui, 
dans le cadre de l'entreprise consistant à être le fournisseur final de services de voyages, fournit également des 
services de voyages locaux acquis auprès d'une autre personne, mais qui n'accepte pas le paiement de plus de 25 pour 
cent du coût des services de voyages vendus à un client plus de 30 jours avant leur fourniture. 

3. Les transporteurs publics qui vendent des services de transport réguliers. 

4. Les mandataires, nommés par un transporteur public titulaire d'un permis d'exploitation délivré en vertu de la Loi sur 
les véhicules de transport en commun, qui vendent des services de transport par autocar. 

5. Les transporteurs publics qui vendent des visites d'un jour. 

6. Quiconque vend des services de guide ou d'excursion en Ontario. 

7. Quiconque est employé pour enseigner dans une école élémentaire ou secondaire, une université ou un collège d'arts 
appliqués et de technologie, si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

i. il prend des dispositions pour offrir des visites d'un jour aux élèves de l'école, de l'université ou du collège dans 
le cadre du programme d'études ou prend des dispositions pour offrir d'autres services de voyages par 
l'intermédiaire d'un agent de voyages inscrit dans le cadre de ce programme. 



l 



191 



550 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

ii. le conseil, le directeur d'école ou l'autre organe de direction ou dirigeant pertinent l'autorise à prendre des 
dispositions pour offrir les services de voyages, 

iii. il ne tire aucun gain ou profit direct ou indirect du fait d'avoir pris des dispositions pour offrir les services de 
voyages, sauf sa participation à ceux-ci. 

8. Les membres d'un organisme religieux, d'une équipe de sport amateur ou d'une association non constituée en 
personne morale qui fournissent des services de voyages terrestres, si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

i. Les services de voyages sont fournis uniquement aux membres de l'organisme, de l'équipe ou de l'association. 

ii. L'organisme, l'équipe ou l'association existe principalement à des fins éducatives, culturelles, religieuses ou 
sportives et les services de voyages sont fournis à ces fins. 

iii. Les fonds reçus pour les services de voyages sont déposés dans un compte en fiducie et servent à payer les 
fournisseurs des services de voyages ou un agent de voyages. 

iv. L'organisme, l'équipe ou l'association ainsi que ses membres et ses employés ne tirent aucun gain ou profit direct 
ou indirect du fait de la fourniture des services de voyages, sauf leur participation à ceux-ci. 

V. Les services de voyages ne comprennent pas une destination éloignée de plus de 2 000 kilomètres du point de 
départ. 

vi. Le véhicule servant au transport reste au point d'arrivée pour permettre le voyage de retour. 

9. Les personnes morales sans capital-actions et sans but lucratif qui fonctionnent comme un club et qui fournissent des 
services de voyages terrestres à leurs membres, si les conditions suivantes sont réunies ; 

i. Les services de voyages sont fournis uniquement aux membres du club. 

ii. La personne morale existe principalement à des fins éducatives, culturelles, religieuses ou sportives et les services 
de voyages sont fournis à ces fins. 

iii. Les fonds reçus pour les services de voyages sont déposés dans un compte en fiducie et servent à payer les 
fournisseurs des services de voyages ou un agent de voyages. 

iv. La personne morale, ses membres, ses dirigeants, ses administrateurs et ses employés ne tirent aucun gain ou 
profit direct ou indirect du fait de la fourniture des services de voyages, sauf leur participation à ceux-ci. 

v. Les services de voyages ne comprennent pas une destination éloignée de plus de 2 000 kilomètres du point de 
départ. 

vi. Le véhicule servant au transport reste au point d'arrivée pour permettre le voyage de retour. 

partie ii 
inscription 

Demandes et renouvellements 

Demande, formule et droits 

3. (1) La demande d'inscription ou de renouvellement d'inscription à titre d'agent de voyages ou de voyagiste comprend 
les renseignements exigés, est rédigée selon la forme qu'approuve le registrateur et est accompagnée des droits applicables 
payables à l'organisme d'application, fixés par celui-ci en vertu de l'alinéa 12 (I) b) de la Loi de 1996 sur l'application de 
certaines lois traitant de sécurité et de services aux consommateurs. 

(2) La demande qui n'est pas conforme au paragraphe (1) est incomplète. 

Expiration de l'inscription 

4. L'inscription expire à la date qui figure au certificat d'inscription. 
Exigences prescrites pour l'inscription ou le renouvellement 

5. Pour l'application du paragraphe 8 (I) de la Loi, l'auteur de la demande d'inscription ou de renouvellement 
d'inscription satisfait aux exigences suivantes ; 

1. S'il est un particulier, il a au moins 18 ans et réside au Canada. 

2. Il ne doit pas d'argent à l'organisme d'application au titre de l'article 53 ou, le cas échéant, il a pris des dispositions 
que le registrateur accepte pour acquitter sa dette. 

3. Tout jugement que l'organisme d'application a obtenu contre lui a été exécuté ou, dans le cas contraire, il a pris des 
dispositions que le registrateur accepte pour y satisfaire. 



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4. L'organisme d'application n'a pas payé sur le Fonds d'indemnité relative à sa faillite, à son insolvabilité ou à la 
cessation de l'exploitation de son entreprise ou, le cas échéant, il lui a remboursé l'indemnité et les frais engagés ou a 
pris des dispositions que le registrateur accepte pour ce faire. 

5. Il a fourni, conformément à l'article 25, la garantie exigée, le cas échéant. 

6. Les autres personnes intéressées à son égard pour l'application de l'article 8 de la Loi remplissent également les 
conditions énoncées aux dispositions 2 à 5. 

Conditions prescrites : maintien jusqu'au renouvellement 

6. Les conditions prescrites pour l'application du paragraphe 1 1 (8) de la Loi sont les suivantes : 

1 . La personne inscrite qui est un particulier réside au Canada. 

2. La personne inscrite ne doit pas d'argent à l'organisme d'application au titre de l'article 53 ou, le cas échéant, elle a 
pris des dispositions que le registrateur accepte pour acquitter sa dette. 

3. Tout jugement que l'organisme d'application a obtenu contre la personne inscrite a été exécuté ou, dans le cas 
contraire, celle-ci a pris des dispositions que le registrateur accepte pour y satisfaire. 

4. L'organisme d'application n'a pas payé sur le Fonds d'indemnité relative à la faillite de la personne inscrite, à son 
insolvabilité ou à la cessation de l'exploitation de son entreprise ou, le cas échéant, celle-ci lui a remboursé l'indemnité 
et les frais engagés ou a pris des dispositions que le registrateur accepte pour ce faire. 

5. La personne inscrite a fourni, conformément à l'article 25, la garantie exigée, le cas échéant. 
Délai prescrit pour présenter une nouvelle demande après un refus 

7. Le délai prescrit pour l'application de l'alinéa 14 a) de la Loi est de 30 jours. 

Obligations des personnes inscrites 

Inscription d'un particulier : condition prescrite 

8. Pour l'application du paragraphe 8 (2) de la Loi, un particulier doit résider au Canada pour être une personne inscrite. 
Nom 

9. (1) La personne inscrite ne doit pas exploiter son entreprise sous un autre nom que celui qui, selon le cas : 

a) figure dans l'inscription; 

b) est enregistré en application de la Loi sur les noms commerciaux. 

(2) La personne inscrite avise le registrateur des noms sous lesquels elle exploitera son entreprise et ne doit pas l'exploiter 
sous ces noms tant qu'elle n'a pas reçu du registrateur un accusé de réception de l'avis. 

(3) La personne inscrite ne doit pas exploiter son entreprise sous un nom qui indique un parrainage, une approbation, une 
capacité ou une affiliation dont elle ne bénéficie pas. 

Etablissement 

10. ( 1 ) La personne inscrite exploite son entreprise en Ontario uniquement dans un établissement stable situé en Ontario. 
(2) La personne inscrite ne peut exploiter son entreprise dans un logement que si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

1 . Elle prouve au registrateur que la municipalité chargée d'appliquer les exigences locales en matière de zonage autorise 
l'exploitation de l'entreprise dans le logement. 

2. Elle a un numéro de téléphone d'affaires qui est associé au nom sous lequel elle exploite son entreprise et qui n'est pas 
un numéro de téléphone résidentiel. 

3. Elle a pris des dispositions que le registrateur trouve satisfaisantes pour donner accès à ses dossiers commerciaux. 
Succursales 

1 1. La personne inscrite ne peut exploiter une succursale en Ontario que si l'inscription l'autorise. 
Vente de services de voyages par l'agent de voyages 

12. (1) La personne inscrite qui est un agent de voyages ne peut vendre ni offrir des services de voyages que si les 
conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) elle le fait conformément au paragraphe (2) ou (3), selon le cas; 

b) elle divulgue au client le nom sous lequel elle exploite son entreprise, son adresse et son numéro de téléphone 
d'affaires; 

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552 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

c) elle divulgue au client tout lien qui existe entre elle et une autre personne inscrite et qui se rapporte aux services de 
voyages vendus ou offerts au client. 

(2) Jusqu'au 30 juin 2008, les services de voyages visés à l'alinéa (I) a) sont vendus ou offerts : 

a) soit directement par la personne inscrite; 

b) soit par un particulier qui est employé par la personne inscrite ou qui a conclu un contrat écrit avec elle. 

(3) A compter du T"' juillet 2008, les services de voyages visés à l'alinéa ( 1) a) sont vendus ou offerts ; 

a) soit directement par la personne inscrite; 

b) soit par un particulier qui est employé par la personne inscrite ou qui a conclu un contrat écrit avec elle et qui, selon le 

cas : 

(i) a été accrédité comme gérant en voyages ou comme conseiller en voyages par l'Institut canadien des conseillers 

en voyages, 

(ii) remplit les conditions énoncées au paragraphe 15 (3). 
Certificat d'inscription 

13. (I) La personne inscrite conserve le certificat d'inscription au bureau ou à la succursale qu'il vise et, sur demande de 
quiconque, le produit aux fins d'examen. 

(2) En cas de révocation, de suspension ou de radiation de son inscription ou en cas de cessation volontaire de 
l'exploitation de son entreprise, la personne inscrite retourne promptement le certificat d'inscription au registrateur par 
courrier recommandé ou le lui remet à personne. 

Supervision du bureau 

14. (1) Le présent article cesse de s'appliquer le 30 juin 2008. 

(2) L'agent de voyages veille à ce que chaque bureau qu'il exploite soit géré et supervisé, pendant ses heures d'ouverture, 
par un particulier qui, de l'avis du registrateur, a une expérience et une connaissance suffisantes de la vente des services de 
voyages pour que le bureau soit géré conformément à la Loi et au présent règlement. 

(3) La demande d'inscription ou de renouvellement d'inscription comprend le nom et l'adresse du particulier visé au 
paragraphe (2), ainsi qu'une description de son expérience et de sa connaissance. 

Employés et sous-traitants 

15. (1) Le présent article s'applique à compter du 1"^ juillet 2008. 

(2) L'agent de voyages veille à ce que : 

a) d'une part, chaque bureau qu'il exploite soit géré et supervisé, pendant ses heures d'ouverture, par une personne qui, 
selon le cas ; 

(i) a été accréditée comme gérant en voyages par l'Institut canadien des conseillers en voyages, 

(ii) remplit les conditions énoncées au paragraphe (3); . i 

b) d'autre part, au moins une personne qui a été accréditée comme conseiller en voyages par l'institut canadien des 
conseillers en voyages soit rattachée à chaque bureau qu'il exploite pendant ses heures d'ouverture. 

(3) Les conditions visées au sous-alinéa (2) a) (ii) sont les suivantes : 

a) le 30 juin 2008, la personne gérait et supervisait un bureau exploité par un agent de voyages; 

b) la personne a une expérience et une connaissance suffisantes de la vente des services de voyages pour que le bureau 
soit géré conformément à la Loi et au présent règlement. 

(4) La demande de renouvellement d'inscription à titre d'agent de voyages comprend la liste des nom et adresse des 
personnes qui satisfont aux exigences du paragraphe (2) et qui, selon le cas : 

a) sont des employés de l'auteur de la demande; 

b) ont conclu un contrat de louage de services avec l'auteur de la demande. 

(5) La demande d'inscription à titre d'agent de voyages dont l'auteur n'est pas inscrit comprend la liste des nom et adresse 
des personnes qui satisfont aux exigences du paragraphe (2) ou dont on s'attend à ce qu'elles y satisfassent lors de son 
inscription et qui, selon le cas : 

a) sont des employés effectifs ou projetés de l'auteur de la demande; 

b) ont conclu ou projettent de conclure un contrat de louage de services avec l'auteur de la demande. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 553 



Dossiers sur les employés et les sous-traitants 

16. (1) La personne inscrite maintient des dossiers exacts et à jour sur les personnes qui conseillent les clients 
relativement à des services de voyages et qu'elle emploie ou avec qui elle a conclu un contrat de louage de services. 

(2) À compter du 1" juillet 2008, les dossiers exigés par le paragraphe (1) comprennent une copie des certificats pertinents 
délivrés par l'Institut canadien des conseillers en voyages. 

Préavis donné au registrateur : certains changements 

17. (1) Jusqu'au 30 juin 2008, la personne inscrite donne au registrateur un préavis d'au moins cinq jours de ce qui suit : 

1 . Le changement d'adresse de son bureau ou d'une de ses succursales. 

2. Le remplacement de la personne désignée en application de l'article 14 pour gérer et superviser un bureau. 

3. Le changement du titulaire ou du numéro d'un compte ou de l'établissement financier où il est ouvert. 

(2) À compter du 1" juillet 2008, la personne inscrite donne au registrateur un préavis d'au moins cinq jours de ce qui 
suit : 

1 . Le changement d'adresse de son bureau ou d'une de ses succursales. 

2. Le remplacement de la ou des personnes qui satisfont aux exigences du paragraphe 15 (2). 

3. Le changement du titulaire ou du numéro d'un compte ou de l'établissement financier où il est ouvert. 
Avis donné au registrateur : autres changements 

18. La personne inscrite avise le registrateur dans les cinq jours de tout changement non visé à l'article 17 qui survient 
dans les renseignements exigés compris dans sa demande en application du paragraphe 3(1). 

Forme approuvée des renseignements 

19. La personne inscrite fournit les renseignements qu'elle est tenue de fournir à l'organisme d'application ou au 
registrateur sous la forme qu'approuve ce dernier. 

Agent de voyages ou voyagiste non inscrit 

20. La personne inscrite ne doit pas exploiter son entreprise avec quiconque doit être inscrit en application de la Loi mais 
ne l'est pas. 

Avis de la cessation de commercer avec une personne inscrite 

21. La personne inscrite qui cesse de commercer avec une autre personne inscrite parce qu'elle semble ne pas pratiquer 
une saine gestion financière remet promptement au registrateur un avis écrit motivé de la cessation. 

États financiers 

22. (1) La personne inscrite dépose auprès du registrateur les états financiers qu'exige le présent article pour chaque 
exercice. 

(2) La personne inscrite qui, l'exercice précédent, a fait un chiffre d'affaires en Ontario de moins de 10 millions de dollars 
dépose, dans les trois mois de la fin de l'exercice : 

a) soit des états financiers annuels accompagnés du rapport de mission d'examen d'un comptable public titulaire d'un 
permis délivré en vertu de la Loi sur la comptabilité publique; 

h) soit des états financiers annuels accompagnés du rapport de vérification d'un comptable public titulaire d'un permis, si 
elle doit les faire vérifier en application de la Loi sur les sociétés par actions. 

(3) La personne inscrite qui est un agent de voyages et qui, l'exercice précédent, a fait un chiffre d'affaires en Ontario d'au 
moins 10 millions de dollars mais de moins de 20 millions de dollars dépose : 

a) d'une part, dans les trois mois de la fin de l'exercice, des états financiers annuels accompagnés de l'opinion du 
comptable public titulaire d'un permis qui les a vérifiés; 

b) d'autre part, dans les 45 jours de la fin de chaque semestre de l'exercice, des états financiers semestriels. 

(4) La personne inscrite qui est un agent de voyages et qui, l'exercice précédent, a fait un chiffre d'affaires en Ontario d'au 
moins 20 millions de dollars dépose : 

a) d'une part, dans les trois mois de la fin de l'exercice, des états financiers accompagnés de l'opinion du comptable 
public titulaire d'un permis qui les a vérifiés; 

b) d'autre part, dans les 45 jours de la fin de chaque trimestre de l'exercice, des états financiers trimestriels. 

(5) La personne inscrite qui est un voyagiste et qui, l'exercice précédent, a fait un chiffre d'affaires en Ontario d'au moins 
10 millions de dollars dépose : 

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a) d'une part, dans les trois mois de la fin de l'exercice, des états financiers accompagnés de l'opinion du comptable 
public titulaire d'un permis qui les a vérifiés; 

b) d'autre part, dans les 45 jours de la fin de chaque trimestre de l'exercice, des états financiers trimestriels. 

(6) Les états financiers exigés par le présent article comprennent un état du chiffre d'affaires en Ontario réalisé dans la 
période qu'ils visent, un bilan, un état des résultats et le rapprochement des comptes en fiducie tenus en application de 
l'article 27. 

(7) Si des renseignements additionnels sont nécessaires pour permettre un examen exact et complet de la situation 
financière de la personne inscrite, le registrateur peut exiger qu'elle dépose des états financiers vérifiés qui combinent ses 
états financiers et, selon le cas : 

a) ceux d'une autre personne inscrite; 

b) s'il s'agit d'une personne morale, ceux d'une autre personne qui est un actionnaire associé avec elle. 

(8) S'il a des motifs de croire qu'une personne inscrite est en difficulté financière, le registrateur peut exiger qu'elle lui 
remette par écrit un état de son fonds de roulement net actuel, auquel cas elle le fait dans le délai qu'il précise. 

(9) Le registrateur peut exiger qu'un état remis en application du paragraphe (7) ou (8) soit appuyé d'un affidavit. 
Fonds de roulement : disposition transitoire 

23. ( I ) Le présent article cesse de s'appliquer le 3 1 décembre 2005. 

(2) La personne inscrite qui, l'exercice précédent, a fait un chiffre d'affaires en Ontario de moins de 1,5 million de dollars 
maintient un fonds de roulement minimal de 5 000 $. 

(3) La personne inscrite qui, l'exercice précédent, a fait un chiffre d'affaires en Ontario d'au moins 1,5 million de dollars 
mais de moins de 10 millions de dollars maintient un fonds de roulement minimal de 25 000 $. 

(4) La personne inscrite qui, l'exercice précédent, a fait un chiffre d'affaires en Ontario d'au moins 10 millions de dollars 
mais de moins de 20 millions de dollars maintient un fonds de roulement minimal de 50 000 $. 

(5) La personne inscrite qui, l'exercice précédent, a fait un chiffre d'affaires en Ontario d'au moins 20 millions de dollars 
maintient un fonds de roulement minimal de 100 000 $. 

(6) Le fonds de roulement de la personne inscrite est calculé conformément aux principes comptables généralement 
reconnus et ne comprend ni la valeur de toute garantie fournie en application du paragraphe 25 ( 1 ), ni les capitaux de toute 
personne avec qui elle a un lien de dépendance. 

Fonds de roulement minimal 

24. (1) Le présent article s'applique à compter du 1" janvier 2006. 

(2) La personne inscrite qui, l'exercice précédent, a fait un chiffre d'affaires en Ontario compris dans une fourchette 
précisée à la colonne 1 du tableau du présent article maintient un fonds de roulement égal ou supérieur à la somme précisée 
en regard à la colonne 2. 

(3) Le fonds de roulement de la personne inscrite est calculé conformément aux principes comptables généralement 
reconnus et ne comprend pas ce qui suit : 

a) la valeur de toute garantie fournie en application du paragraphe 25 ( 1 ); 

b) les capitaux de toute personne intéressée à l'égard de la personne inscrite pour l'application de l'article 8 de la Loi. 

TABLEAU 



Colonne 1 


Colonne 2 


Chiffres d'affaires en Ontario de l'exercice précédent 


Fonds de roulement minimal 


500 000 S ou moins 


5 000$ 


Plus de 500 000 $ mais au plus 750 000 $ 


10000 


Plus de 750 000 S mais au plus 1 000 000 $ 


15 000 


Plus de 1 000 000 $ mais au plus 2 000 000 $ 


20 000 


Plus de 2 000 000 $ mais au plus 5 000 000 S 


25 000 


Plus de 5 000 000 $ mais au plus 10 000 000 S 


35 000 


Plus de 10 000 000 $ mais au plus 20 000 000 $ 


50 000 


Plus de 20 000 000 S 


100 000 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 555 



Garantie : auteur de demande non inscrit 

25. (1) Quiconque n'était pas inscrit pendant les 12 mois précédents fournit une garantie de 10 000$ à l'organisme 
d'application au moment de demander l'inscription. 

(2) Après que la personne inscrite qui a fourni une garantie en application du paragraphe ( 1 ) a déposé deux états financiers 
annuels consécutifs en application de l'article 22 : 

a) le registrateur la lui remet dans un délai raisonnable s'il n'a pas de doutes quant à son observation du présent 
règlement et de la Loi; 

b) le registrateur ne la lui remet que lorsque sont dissipés les doutes qu'il a, le cas échéant, quant à son observation du 
présent règlement ou de la Loi. 

(3) Est déduite de la garantie que le registrateur remet en application du paragraphe (2) toute indemnité prélevée sur le 
Fonds qui a été versée aux clients de la personne inscrite ou qu'il est prévu de leur verser par suite de sa faillite, de son 
insolvabilité ou de la cessation de l'exploitation de son entreprise. 

Comptes bancaires 

26. ( 1 ) La personne inscrite tient tous ses comptes en Ontario dans une banque mentionnée à l'annexe 1 ou 11 de la Loi sur 
les banques (Canada), une société de prêt ou de fiducie ou une caisse populaire au sens de la Loi de 1994 sur les caisses 
populaires et les credit unions. 

(2) Chaque compte est ouvert à un nom sous lequel la personne inscrite est autorisée à exploiter son entreprise 
conformément au paragraphe 9(1). 

(3) La personne inscrite dépose promptement dans un tel compte toutes les sommes reçues en paiement de services de 
voyages. 

Comptes en fiducie 

27. (1) La personne inscrite tient un compte en fiducie pour toutes les sommes reçues de clients pour des services de 
voyages. 

(2) Le compte en fiducie est désigné comme compte en fiducie visé par la Loi sur le secteur du voyage. 

(3) La personne inscrite détient en fiducie les sommes reçues de clients pour des services de voyages et les dépose dans le 
compte en fiducie dans les deux jours ouvrables de leur réception. 

(4) Nulle personne inscrite ne doit maintenir plus d'un compte en fiducie en application du paragraphe (1) sans 
l'autorisation écrite préalable du registrateur. 

(5) La personne inscrite dépose auprès du registrateur : 

a) d'une part, dans les cinq jours de l'ouverture du compte en fiducie, une copie de la convention de fiducie conclue avec 
l'établissement financier; 

b) d'autre part, dans les cinq jours de toute modification apportée à la convention de fiducie, une copie de la 
modification. 

(6) La personne inscrite ne peut prélever ou retirer des sommes détenues dans un compte en fiducie en application du 
paragraphe (1) que dans l'un ou l'autre des cas suivants : 

a) pour effectuer un paiement au fournisseur des services de voyages à l'égard desquels les sommes ont été reçues; 

b) pour rembourser un client; 

c) après que le fournisseur des services de voyages a été payé intégralement, pour payer la commission de la personne 
inscrite. 

Garantie au lieu du compte en fiducie 

28. (1) Malgré l'article 27, la personne qui, sans interruption pendant au moins un exercice, est inscrite et exploite son 
entreprise peut, au lieu de tenir un compte en fiducie, fournir à l'organisme d'application une garantie d'un montant égal ou 
supérieur au sixième de son chiffre d'affaires en Ontario pour la période de 12 mois qui se termine le dernier jour de la 
période visée par les plus récents états financiers annuels, semestriels ou trimestriels, selon le cas, qu'elle doit déposer en 
application de l'article 22. 

(2) L'obligation de tenir un compte en fiducie demeure en vigueur jusqu'à ce que la personne inscrite reçoive du 
registrateur la confirmation de la réception de la garantie. 

(3) Dans les 30 jours du jour où elle doit déposer des états financiers en application de l'article 22, la personne inscrite qui 
fournit une garantie en vertu du paragraphe (1) en revoit le montant et veille à ce qu'elle continue à satisfaire aux exigences 
de ce paragraphe. 

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Dossiers commerciaux 

29. (1) La personne inscrite tient les dossiers commerciaux suivants à son établissement principal ou à un autre lieu que le 
registrateur approuve par écrit : 

1. Les dossiers comptables détaillant ses revenus et ses dépenses ainsi que les justificatifs, y compris des copies des 
relevés, factures ou reçus dotés d'un identificateur ou d'un numéro de série unique qui sont remis aux clients. 

2. Les dossiers bancaires qui permettent de repérer rapidement et de vérifier toutes les opérations effectuées relativement 
à son entreprise. 

3. Un dossier écrit des paiements qu'elle a faits ou reçus à l'égard de l'acquisition ou de la vente de services de voyages. 
Le dossier se présente sous une forme qui permet au registrateur de repérer rapidement l'opération à laquelle se 
rapporte chaque paiement au moyen des identificateurs ou des numéros de série uniques. 

4. Les dossiers tenus en application des paragraphes 39 (3) et 40 (3). 

(2) Les dossiers qui doivent être tenus en application du paragraphe (1) sont conservés pendant au moins six ans après la 
date de l'opération pertinente. 

Application des art. 31 à 37 

30. Les articles 3 1 à 37 s'appliquent à l'égard des assertions relatives à la fourniture de services de voyages. 
Exigences relatives aux assertions 

31. (1) La personne inscrite qui fait une assertion ou qui en fait faire une pour son compte veille à ce qu'elle soit 
conforme à la Loi et au présent règlement. 

(2) Sauf si une assertion est faite verbalement : 

a) d'une part, elle comprend le nom sous lequel la personne inscrite exploite son entreprise, son adresse et son numéro 
d'inscription; 

b) d'autre part, elle ne comprend pas un numéro de téléphone résidentiel. 

(3) L'alinéa (2) a) ne s'applique pas aux assertions affichées sur un panneau ou un panobus ou faites par un autre moyen 
comportant des restrictions semblables de temps ou d'espace. 

Assertions fausses, mensongères et trompeuses 

32. Nulle personne inscrite ne doit faire d'assertion fausse, mensongère ou trompeuse. 
Déclarations : prix 

33. (1) L'assertion qui concerne le prix de services de voyages indique les renseignements exigés par les paragraphes (2) 
et (4) de façon qu'ils soient clairs, compréhensibles et bien en évidence. 

(2) L'assertion indique, selon le cas ; 

a) la somme totale que le client sera tenu de payer pour les services de voyages, droits, cotisations, frais de service et 
suppléments compris; 

b) la somme que le client sera tenu de payer pour les services de voyages, droits, cotisations, frais de service et 
suppléments exclus, ainsi que : 

(i) soit la liste détaillée des coûts liés à chacun des droits, cotisations, frais de service et suppléments, 

(ii) soit le coût total que le client sera tenu de payer pour les droits, cotisations, fi^ais de service et suppléments. 

(3) 11 n'est pas nécessaire que l'assertion traite de la taxe de vente au détail ou de la taxe fédérale sur les produits et 
services. 

(4) L'assertion : 

a) indique les conditions qui influent, notamment en la resU-eignant, sur l'offre des services de voyages au prix indiqué en 
application du paragraphe (2); 

b) comprend une brève description des services de voyages, y compris les noms des transporteurs aériens, des hôtels et 
des voyagistes, au besoin; 

c) indique qu'un agent de voyages peut fournir de plus amples renseignements. 

(5) L'assertion ne peut mentionner le prix de services de voyages que s'ils sont offerts à ce prix pendant la période qu'elle 
vise. 

(6) L'assertion ne doit pas mentionner les prix antérieurs de services de voyages. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 557 



(7) Le prix de services de voyages mentionné dans une assertion est exprimé en monnaie canadienne, sauf si l'assertion 
comprend une indication claire, compréhensible et bien en évidence qu'une autre monnaie est utilisée. 

Renseignements à inclure dans certaines assertions 

34. (1) L'assertion écrite relative à un service de voyages particulier comprend les renseignements suivants : 

1 . Les exigences relatives au dépôt. 

2. Les exigences relatives au paiement final. 

3. Le prix total des services de voyages qui est indiqué selon le paragraphe 33 (2). 

4. Les conditions et frais d'annulation. 

5. L'offre et le coût de l'assurance-annulation et de l'assurance-maladie hors province, le cas échéant. 

6. La politique de remboursement, y compris toute disposition relative à une pénalité. 

7. Une description juste et fidèle des services de voyages, y compris ce qui suit : 

i. des précisions sur le transport, notamment le nom du transporteur principal, la catégorie de service et tous les 
points de départ et d'arrivée, 

ii. des précisions sur tout hébergement. 

8. La date effective ou prévue du début de tout travail de construction ou de rénovation qui nuira vraisemblablement à 
l'utilisation et à la jouissance de tout hébergement, ainsi que sa durée prévue. 

9. La période que vise l'assertion. 

(2) Le paragraphe (1) ne s'applique pas aux assertions affichées sur un panneau ou un panobus ou faites par un autre 
moyen comportant des restrictions semblables de temps ou d'espace. 

Pbotograpliies et autres images 

35. (I) Si l'assertion comprend une photographie : 

a) d'une part, la photographie représente fidèlement ce dont traite l'assertion; 

b) d'autre part, l'assertion indique, de façon claire, compréhensible et bien en évidence, que la photographie représente ce 
dont traite l'assertion. 

(2) Si l'assertion comprend une image qui n'est pas une photographie : 

a) d'une part, l'image représente fidèlement ce dont traite l'assertion; 

b) d'autre part, l'assertion indique, de façon claire, compréhensible et bien en évidence, que l'image n'est pas une 
photographie de ce dont traite l'assertion. 

Obligation de l'agent de voyages : divulgations et conseils 

36. Avant de conclure une convention de service de voyages avec un client et d'en accepter un paiement ou de prendre les 
renseignements concernant sa carte de crédit, l'agent de voyages fait ce qui suit : 

a) il porte à l'attention du client toute condition qui se rapporte à l'acquisition des services de voyages et dont il a des 
motifs de croire qu'elle peut influer sur la décision du client de les acquérir; 

b) il divulgue le prix total des services de voyages, les dates des déplacements et une description juste et fidèle des 
services de voyages qui seront fournis; 

c) il explique au client toute exigence ou restriction touchant le transfert ou l'annulation des services de voyages, y 
compris : 

(i) d'une part, l'éventail des pénalités ou des autres coûts associés au transfert ou à l'annulation, 

(ii) d'autre part, tout paiement non remboursable que doit effectuer le client; 

d) il avise le client de la possibilité de souscrire : 

(i) d'une part, une assurance-annulation, 
(ii) d'autre part, une assurance-maladie hors province, s'il y a lieu; 

e) dans le cas d'un projet de voyage à l'étranger, il informe le client : 

(i) des renseignements et documents de voyage courants, tels que passeports, visas et affidavits, qui seront 
nécessaires pour chaque personne à l'égard de qui des services de voyages sont acquis, 

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558 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(ii) de la possibilité de se voir refuser l'entrée dans un autre pays même en possession de tous les renseignements et 
documents de voyage exigés, 

(iii) de la différence possible entre le niveau de vie de la destination, ses us et coutumes ainsi que les normes et 
conditions d'hébergement et de fourniture des services, notamment publics, qui y régnent et ceux du Canada; 

f) il mentionne les autres conditions éventuelles qui se rapportent à l'opération et aux services de voyages et informe le 
client de l'endroit où elles peuvent être examinées; 

g) il avise le client qu'il est tenu de répondre à toutes ses questions au sujet des renseignements fournis en application des 
alinéas a) à f) ou d'une assertion. 

Avis au client : changements 

37. La personne inscrite avise promptement le client qui a acquis des services de voyages de tout changement dont elle 
prend connaissance, qui touche une question visée dans une assertion et qui, si le client en avait eu connaissance, aurait pu 
influer sur sa décision d'acquérir les services. 

États, factures et reçus 

38. (I) Après avoir vendu des services de voyages à un client, l'agent de voyages lui remet promptement un état, une 
facture ou un reçu qui satisfait aux exigences du paragraphe (3) et qui énonce ce qui suit : 

a) le nom et l'adresse du client qui a acquis les services de voyages et, s'ils sont connus, le nom et l'adresse de chaque 
personne pour le compte de qui le paiement est effectué; 

b) la date de la réservation et la date du premier paiement; 

c) le montant du paiement, l'indication qu'il s'agit d'un paiement intégral ou partiel, le montant de tout solde dû, s'il est 
connu, et la date où il doit être payé; 

d) les droits, cotisations, frais de service, suppléments, taxes et autres frais et l'indication qu'ils sont remboursables ou 
non; 

e) le prix total des services de voyages; 

f) le nom sous lequel l'agent de voyages exploite son entreprise, son numéro de téléphone, son numéro d'inscription, 
l'adresse de son établissement ainsi que, s'il y en a, les autres façons de communiquer avec lui telles que son numéro 
de télécopieur et son adresse électronique; 

g) une description juste et fidèle des services de voyages qui font l'objet du contrat, y compris le nom des personnes qui 
les fourniront, la destination et la date de départ; 

h) l'indication que le client a acquis ou non : 

(i) d'une part, une assurance-annulation, , 

(ii) d'autre part, une assurance-maladie hors province, s'il y a lieu; 
i) l'indication que le contrat autorise ou non les augmentations de prix; 
j) si le contrat autorise les augmentations de prix : 

(i) d'une part, l'indication qu'aucune augmentation n'est autorisée après que le client a effectué le paiement intégral, 

(ii) d'autre part, l'indication que le client a le droit de résilier le contrat et d'obtenir un remboursement intégral si le 
prix total des services de voyages augmente et que l'augmentation totale, exclusion faite de toute augmentation 
de la taxe de vente au détail ou de la taxe fédérale sur les produits et services, est de plus de 7 pour cent; 

k) les renseignements donnés au client en application de l'alinéa 36 e); 

I) le nom des conseillers en voyages qui ont renseigné le client pour le compte de l'agent de voyages. 

(2) Le voyagiste remet promptement à chaque agent de voyages par l'intermédiaire duquel il vend un service de voyages 
un état, une facture ou un reçu qui satisfait aux exigences du paragraphe (3) et qui énonce ce qui suit : 

a) le nom et l'adresse de l'agent de voyages; 

b) les conditions de paiement et la somme payée; 

c) le nom de chaque client et, s'il est connu, celui de chaque autre personne pour qui le service de voyages est acquis; 

d) la destination de chaque client ou de chaque autre personne et, le cas échéant, la date de départ. 

(3) Un état, une facture ou un reçu visé au paragraphe (1) ou (2) doit : 
a) être prénuméroté consécutivement, s'il est préparé manuellement; 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 559 



b) recevoir un identificateur unique, s'il est préparé par ordinateur. 
Vérification de l'état de l'hébergement 

39. ( 1 ) La personne inscrite qui acquiert un droit relatif à un hébergement dans le but de le vendre à un client prend les 
mesures raisonnables pour que l'hébergement soit, au moment où le client utilise les services de voyages, dans l'état qu'elle 
indique au moment de la vente. 

(2) Si l'hébergement n'est pas dans l'état indiqué par la personne inscrite, elle en avise promptement le client à qui 
l'hébergement est vendu ou son agent de voyages, selon le cas, et : 

a) si l'hébergement est vendu dans le cadre d'un forfait qui comprend le transport jusqu'à une destination, elle offre au 
client le choix entre le remboursement intégral et immédiat de la somme qu'il a payée pour le forfait, y compris les 
droits, cotisations, frais de service, suppléments, taxes et autres frais, et un forfait de remplacement semblable qu'il 
juge acceptable; 

b) si l'hébergement n'est pas vendu dans le cadre d'un forfait qui comprend le transport jusqu'à une destination, elle offre 
au client le choix entre le remboursement intégral et immédiat de la somme qu'il a payée pour l'hébergement, y 
compris les droits, cotisations, frais de service, suppléments, taxes et autres frais, et un hébergement de remplacement 
semblable qu'il juge acceptable. 

(3) Toute personne inscrite tient un dossier pour l'application du présent article et celle qui doit agir en application de 
l'alinéa (2) a) ou b) y verse une note écrite indiquant ce qui suit : 

a) les renseignements communiqués au client; 

b) la date de la communication des renseignements au client; 

c) le mode de communication utilisé; 

d) le choix du client. 

Événements exigeant un avis et une offre de remboursement ou de remplacement 

40. (1) La personne inscrite qui apprend qu'un des événements suivants s'est produit avise promptement l'agent de 
voyages ou le client, selon le cas, et offre au client le choix entre le remboursement intégral et immédiat et des services de 
voyages de remplacement semblables qu'il juge acceptables : 

1. Le départ prévu d'un moyen de transport compris dans les services de voyages est retardé ou anticipé de 24 heures ou 
plus, sauf si la raison du changement est visée au paragraphe (2). 

2. Le paquebot de croisière est remplacé par un autre. 

3. L'hébergement ou le niveau d'hébergement est modifié. 

4. Le contrat autorise les augmentations de prix, le prix total des services de voyages est augmenté et l'augmentation 
totale, exclusion faite de toute augmentation de la taxe de vente au détail ou de la taxe fédérale sur les produits et 
services, est de plus de 7 pour cent. 

5. Le contrat n'autorise pas les augmentations de prix, mais le prix total des services de voyages est augmenté, quel que 
soit le montant ou le motif de l'augmentation. 

6. La liste des documents nécessaires pour le voyage est modifiée parce que l'itinéraire a été modifié et la personne n'a 
plus le temps d'obtenir les documents avant le départ. 

(2) La disposition 1 du paragraphe (1) ne s'applique pas si le changement résulte, selon le cas : 

a) de problèmes mécaniques présentés par un véhicule, un navire ou un aéronef; 

b) de facteurs touchant à la sécurité; 

c) de conditions atmosphériques; 

d) d'une grève ou d'un lock-out; 

e) d'une force majeure. 

(3) Toute personne inscrite tient un dossier pour l'application du présent article et celle qui doit agir en application du 
paragraphe ( 1 ) y verse une note écrite indiquant ce qui suit : 

a) les renseignements communiqués au client; 

b) la date de la communication des renseignements au client; 

c) le mode de communication utilisé; 

d) le choix du client. 

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560 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

Oblitjatiun du voyagiste de remettre des documents à l'agent de voyages 

41. Si l'agent de voyages vend des services de voyages et les paie au voyagiste au moins 21 jours avant la date de départ, 
ce dernier lui remet les billets, les bons d'échange, l'itinéraire et les autres documents qui se rapportent aux services de 
voyages au moins 14 jours avant la date de départ, sauf directive contraire de l'agent ou du client. 

Obligation de l'agent de voyages de vérifier les documents 

42. Lorsqu'il reçoit d'un voyagiste ou d'une autre personne un billet, un bon d'échange, un itinéraire ou un autre 
document qui se rapporte à des services de voyages, l'agent de voyages s'assure que les renseignements qui y figurent sont 
exacts avant de le remettre au client qui a acquis les services de voyages auprès de lui. 

Obligation du voyagiste de fournir des services de voyages dans certains cas 

43. Même si l'agent de voyages ne lui paie pas les services de voyages acquis par un client, le voyagiste ne doit pas 
refuser de les fournir si : 

a) d'une part, le client les a payés à l'agent de voyages; 

b) d'autre part, le voyagiste a remis les billets ou les autres documents qui s'y rapportent à un agent de voyages pour 
qu'ils soient remis au client. 

Divulgation des frais de consultation ou de service 

44. Avant de conseiller le client au sujet de services de voyages ou de lui en vendre, l'agent de voyages qui exige des frais 
de consultation ou de service à l'égard de ces services l'informe : 

a) d'une part, de l'existence des frais de consultation ou de service; 

b) d'autre part, du fait que tout ou partie des frais de consultation ou de service sont remboursables ou non et des 
circonstances où ils le sont ou non. 

Restrictions : revente de services de voyages 

45. (1) Le voyagiste ne vend ou n'offre des services de voyages que s'il a conclu, avec leur fournisseur, une convention 
dont toutes les conditions sont énoncées par écrit. 

(2) Le paragraphe (1) s'applique également, avec les adaptations nécessaires, à l'agent de voyages qui a acquis des droits 
relatifs à des services de voyages pour les revendre. 

Obligation de la personne inscrite qui revend des services de voyages 

46. Si la personne inscrite acquiert des droits relatifs à des services de voyages pour les revendre à d'autres personnes 
inscrites ou à des clients et que le fournisseur ne fournit pas ceux qu'un client a payés, elle rembourse ce dernier ou lui 
fournit des services de voyages de remplacement semblables qu'il juge acceptables. 

Restriction : déplacement par avion 

47. La personne inscrite ne peut vendre ou offrir des services de voyages comprenant un déplacement par avion que si le 
transporteur aérien : 

a) est autorisé à fournir des services de voyages sur le territoire de chaque autorité législative pertinente en vertu d'un 
permis délivré par les autorités compétentes; 

b) a reçu ou demandé les approbations nécessaires pour fournir les services de voyages; 

c) s'est conformé aux exigences réglementaires en vigueur au Canada et dans les autres autorités législatives pertinentes. 

AUTRES QUESTIONS 
Divulgation de renseignements concernant les personnes inscrites 

48. ( I ) Le registrateur met à la disposition du public, par un moyen électronique ou autre, les renseignements suivants 
concernant les personnes inscrites : 

1. Le nom de quiconque est inscrit à titre d'agent de voyages ou de voyagiste. 

2. L'état de l'inscription de quiconque est visé à la disposition I, y compris les conditions visées au paragraphe 8 (2) de 
la Loi qui sont : 

i. soit appliquées par le registrateur en vertu de l'article 10 de la Loi, 

ii. soit ordonnées par le Tribunal. 

3. L'adresse d'affaires et le numéro de téléphone d'affaires de quiconque est visé à la disposition 1 ainsi que, s'il y en a, 
les autres façons de communiquer avec lui. 

4. Le nom de quiconque a vu son inscription révoquée au cours des deux années précédentes. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 561 



5. Le nom de toute personne inscrite que l'organisme d'application a accusée d'une infraction. 

6. Le nom de toute personne inscrite visée par une ordonnance que rend le registrateur en vertu du paragraphe 29 (1) de 
la Loi et le dispositif de l'ordonnance. 

(2) Le registrateur divulgue au public, par n'importe quel moyen raisonnable, les renseignements dont il prend 
connaissance au sujet d'une personne inscrite ou non qui exerce des activités exigeant l'inscription s'il estime que leur 
divulgation pourrait contribuer à protéger le public. 

(3) Le registrateur met à la disposition du public, par un moyen électronique ou autre, un avis de toute mesure que prend le 
Tribunal à l'égard de l'auteur d'une demande d'inscription ou d'une personne inscrite qui a demandé une audience en vertu 
de la Loi. 

(4) Le registrateur veille à ce que les seuls noms de particuliers compris dans les renseignements ou l'avis qu'il met à la 
disposition du public en application du présent article soient ceux d'auteurs de demandes d'inscription, de personnes inscrites 
ou de personnes tenues de se faire inscrire ou des noms qui sont par ailleurs déjà dans le domaine public. 

(5) Les renseignements que le registrateur doit divulguer en application du présent article ne peuvent être divulgués en 
vrac que si la loi l'exige ou qu'aux autorités chargées de l'exécution de la loi. 

Ordonnance relative à une publicité mensongère : période d'approbation préalable 

49. La période prescrite pour l'application du paragraphe 29 (4) de la Loi est de 90 jours. 

PARTIE m 
FONDS 

Dispositions générales 

Participation obligatoire 

50. Toute personne inscrite participe au Fonds. * 
Rôle du conseil d'administration 

51. Le conseil d'administration administre et gère les affaires du Fonds. 
Fonds 

52. (1) Le Fonds est constitué de ce qui suit : 

a) les paiements qu'effectuent les personnes inscrites conformément au présent règlement et les participants ou les 
personnes inscrites conformément à un règlement que celui-ci remplace; 

b) les emprunts contractés en vertu du présent règlement ou d'un règlement qu'il remplace; 

c) les recouvrements de sommes payées sur le Fonds; 

d) le revenu que produit le Fonds. 

(2) L'organisme d'application détient le Fonds en fiducie dans l'intérêt des réclamants dont le conseil d'administration 
approuve les demandes d'indemnisation conformément au présent règlement. 

Paiements des agents de voyages et des voyagistes 

53. (1) Les paiements visés au présent article sont faits à l'organisme d'application : 

a) d'une part, dans les 45 jours de la fin du premier semestre de l'exercice de la personne inscrite; 

b) d'autre part, dans les 45 jours de la fin du deuxième semestre de l'exercice de la personne inscrite. 

(2) L'agent de voyages paie la plus élevée des sommes suivantes : 

1 . 25 $ plus les taxes applicables. 

2. Pour chaque tranche de 1 000 $ du chiffre d'affaires en Ontario du semestre précédent ou partie d'une telle tranche, 
0,25 $ plus les taxes applicables. 

(3) Le voyagiste paie la plus élevée des sommes suivantes : 

1. 25 $ plus les taxes applicables. 

2. Pour chaque tranche de 1 000 $ du chiffre d'affaires en Ontario du semestre précédent ou partie d'une telle tranche, 
0,50 $ plus les taxes applicables. 

(4) Les paiements visés au présent article sont accompagnés d'un rapport dûment rempli indiquant le chiffre d'affaires en 
Ontario du semestre précédent de la personne inscrite et la somme due à l'organisme d'application. 



I 



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562 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(5) La personne inscrite ou son dirigeant ou associé autorisé atteste l'exactitude des renseignements que comprend le 
rapport. 

Paiemenis déposés dans le Ponds 

54. L'organisme d'application dépose dans le Fonds toutes les sommes qu'il reçoit en application des articles 53 et 64. 
Obligation du conseil d'administration d'aviser le registrateur en cas de défaut 

55. Le conseil d'administration avise le registrateur dès que possible si, relativement à son administration du Fonds, il 
prend connaissance, selon le cas : 

a) d'un manquement de la part d'une personne inscrite; 

b) d'une demande d'indemnisation présentée en vertu de la présente partie à l'égard d'une personne inscrite; 

c) de l'omission d'une personne inscrite de remplir une obligation ou une condition que lui impose la Loi ou le présent 
règlement. 

Indemnités 

Traitement des demandes d'indemnisation par le Conseil 

56. Le conseil d'administration détermine : 

a) d'une part, si tout ou partie d'une demande d'indemnisation donne droit à un remboursement; 

b) d'autre part, le montant de l'indemnité. 
Remboursement du client 

57. ( 1 ) Le client a droit au remboursement des services de voyages payés mais non fournis si les conditions suivantes sont 
réunies : 

a) il a payé les services de voyages et tout ou partie du paiement a été fait à un agent de voyages inscrit ou par son 
intermédiaire; 

b) il a présenté une demande de paiement aux personnes suivantes : 

(i) l'agent de voyages inscrit et le voyagiste inscrit concerné, 

(ii) les autres personnes qui ont reçu son argent, 

(iii) les autres personnes qui peuvent être légalement tenues de le rembourser ou de l'indemniser, notamment aux 
termes d'un contrat d'assurance; 

c) aucune des personnes suivantes ne l'a remboursé : 

(i) l'agent de voyages inscrit ou le voyagiste inscrit concerné, parce que l'un ou l'autre ou les deux : 

(A) soit sont incapables de payer pour cause de faillite ou d'insolvabilité, 

(B) soit ont cessé d'exploiter leur entreprise et ne veulent pas payer, 

(C) soit ont cessé d'exploiter leur entreprise et sont introuvables, 

(ii) les autres personnes qui ont reçu son argent, 

(iii) les autres personnes qui peuvent être légalement tenues de le rembourser ou de l'indemniser, notamment aux 
termes d'un contrat d'assurance. 

(2) Le remboursement visé au paragraphe ( 1 ) se limite à la somme payée à une personne inscrite ou par son intermédiaire 
pour les services de voyages qui n'ont pas été fournis. 

(3) Malgré le paragraphe ( 1 ), le client n'a pas droit à un remboursement pour ce qui suit : 

1. Les services de voyages qui n'ont pas été fournis parce qu'un fournisseur final, sauf un croisiériste ou une compagnie 
aérienne, est devenu failli ou insolvable ou a cessé d'exploiter son entreprise. 

2. Les paiements effectués à une personne inscrite ou par son intermédiaire pour des services de voyages qui ont été 
fournis ou pour lesquels des services de voyages de remplacement ont été fournis ou offerts. 

3. Les paiements pour des services de voyages qui étaient disponibles, mais qui n'ont pas été reçus à cause d'un acte ou 
d'une omission du client ou d'une autre personne pour qui ils ont été acquis. 

4. Les frais de consultation payés à un agent de voyages. 

5. Les services de voyages qui devaient être reçus comme prix, distinction ou acte de courtoisie. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 563 



6. Les services de voyages que le client a obtenus avec un bon d'échange, un certificat, un coupon ou un document 
semblable qu'il n'a pas payé. 

7. Les services de voyages que le client n'a pas payés en espèces, par chèque ou carte de crédit ou par un autre mode de 
paiement semblable. 

8. Les primes d'assurance. 

9. Les demandes d'indemnisation fondées sur le coût, la valeur ou la qualité des services de voyages ou des services de 
voyages de remplacement. 

10. Les demandes d'indemnisation à l'égard desquelles des services de voyages ont été fournis en application de l'article 
68 ou 69. 

11. Les dommages indirects subis par suite de l'omission de fournir les services de voyages. 

(4) Les sous-alinéas (I) b) (i) et (1) c) (i) ne s'appliquent pas si les services de voyages n'ont pas été fournis parce qu'un 
fournisseur final qui est une compagnie aérienne ou un croisiériste est devenu failli ou insolvable ou a cessé d'exploiter son 
entreprise. 

Remboursement de l'agent de voyages 

58. (1) L'agent de voyages a droit au remboursement des sommes qu'il a payées pour rembourser un client ou pour lui 
fournir des services de voyages de remplacement si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) le client a payé les services de voyages et tout ou partie du paiement a été effectué à l'agent de voyages ou par son 
intermédiaire; 

b) l'agent de voyages a traité de bonne foi et n'a pas de lien de dépendance avec un voyagiste, une compagnie aérienne 
ou un croisiériste; 

c) l'agent de voyages a remis tout ou partie de l'argent du client au voyagiste, à la compagnie aérienne ou au croisiériste; 

d) les services de voyages n'ont pas été fournis. 

(2) Le paragraphe (1) ne s'applique pas si l'agent de voyages a acquis le droit relatif aux services de voyages pour les 
revendre comme l'énonce l'article 46. 

(3) L'agent de voyages n'a droit qu'au remboursement de la partie de l'argent du client qu'il a remise au voyagiste, à la 
compagnie aérienne ou au croisiériste. 

(4) L'agent de voyages n'a droit au remboursement que si le client aurait pu par ailleurs demander une indemnité au 
Fonds. 

(5) L'agent de voyages n'a pas droit au remboursement de toute commission ou autre rémunération, y compris des frais de 
service, due au titre des services de voyages acquis par le client. 

Remboursement du voyagiste 

59. (1) Le voyagiste a droit au remboursement des sommes qu'il a payées pour rembourser à un client des services de 
voyages payés mais non fournis ou pour fournir à ce dernier des services de voyages que l'agent de voyages ne lui a pas 
payés si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) l'agent de voyages est une personne inscrite; 

b) le voyagiste a traité de bonne foi et n'a pas de lien de dépendance avec l'agent de voyages; 

c) l'agent de voyages n'a pas remis tout ou partie de l'argent du client au voyagiste; 

d) le voyagiste n'a pas eu avec l'agent de voyages des rapports dans le cadre desquels ce dernier ne lui a pas remis 
l'argent du client à l'égard de services de voyages ou était en défaut par ailleurs; 

e) le voyagiste a pris des mesures raisonnables dans les circonstances pour s'assurer que l'agent de voyages est fiable et 
pratique une saine gestion financière. 

(2) Le voyagiste n'a droit qu'au remboursement de la partie de l'argent du client que l'agent de voyages a reçue mais ne 
lui a pas remise. 

(3) Le voyagiste n'a droit au remboursement que s'il peut être raisonnablement établi : 

a) d'une part, que l'agent de voyages a reçu l'argent du client; 

b) d'autre part, que le client aurait pu par ailleurs demander une indemnité au Fonds. 

(4) Le voyagiste n'a pas droit au remboursement de toute somme que lui doit l'agent de voyages et qui constitue une 
commission ou une autre rémunération, y compris des frais de service. 



I 



205 



564 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(5) Le voyagiste n'a pas droit au remboursement d'un paiement effectué par carte de crédit si la personne inscrite qui l'a 
traité n'en a pas obtenu l'approbation à l'avance du client et de l'émetteur de la carte, conformément à la convention qu'ont 
conclue ce dernier et la personne inscrite. 

(6) Le voyagiste n'a droit au remboursement d'un paiement effectué par chèque reçu d'un agent de voyages que si les 
conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) le voyagiste reçoit le chèque sept jours ou moins avant le début de la fourniture des services de voyages; 

b) le voyagiste dépose promptement le chèque dans un compte maintenu dans un établissement financier visé à l'article 

26; 

c) l'établissement financier retourne le chèque au voyagiste pour cause de fonds insuffisants. 

(7) Si le paragraphe (6) s'applique, le voyagiste n'a pas droit au remboursement de l'excédent de l'indemnité sur le 
volume d'affaires qu'il a réalisé avec l'agent de voyages dans une semaine normale, sur la base des tendances de leurs 
échanges au cours des 1 2 mois qui précèdent immédiatement le départ du client. 

Délai de présentation de la demande d'indemnisation 

60. (I) Le client ou la personne inscrite peut présenter par écrit une demande d'indemnisation au conseil d'administration 
au plus six mois après que la personne inscrite ou le fournisseur final pertinent devient failli ou insolvable ou cesse 
d'exploiter son entreprise. 

(2) Est irrecevable la demande d'indemnisation présentée après le délai de six mois. 

Documents et autres renseignements 

61. (1) Le réclamant fournit au conseil d'administration les documents et les autres renseignements qu'il exige pour 
établir le bien-fondé de la demande d'indemnisation. 

(2) Le conseil d'administration peut demander au réclamant des documents ou des renseignements additionnels. 

(3) Si le réclamant ne fournit pas les documents ou les renseignements additionnels dans les 12 mois de la réception de la 
demande du conseil d'administration, la demande d'indemnisation est traitée comme étant abandonnée, sauf si le conseil 
d'administration est convaincu que cela serait injuste. 

Subrogation 

62. Si le conseil d'administration détermine que tout ou partie de la demande d'indemnisation donne droit à un 
remboursement, il peut demander au réclamant de signer les documents nécessaires pour lui transférer son intérêt dans une 
demande d'indemnisation connexe visant une tierce partie, de façon à subroger l'organisme d'application au réclamant. 

Arrangements de crédit : aucun remboursement 

63. (1) L'agent de voyages n'a droit à un remboursement que si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) le client lui a payé les services de voyages ou les a payés par son intermédiaire; 

b) il a remis le paiement du client à un voyagiste ou à un fournisseur final. 

(2) Le voyagiste n'a droit à un remboursement que si les conditions suivantes sont réunies : 

a) le client a payé les services de voyages; 

b) il a reçu le paiement du client; 

c) il a remis le paiement à un autre voyagiste ou à un fournisseur final. 
Commissions et autres rémunérations remboursées par la personne inscrite 

64. Si le client n'a reçu aucun des services de voyages payés, la personne inscrite paie les commissions et les autres 
rémunérations qu'elle a reçues pour ces services, sauf les frais de consultation ; 

a) soit au client; 

b) soit à l'organisme d'application. 
Événement majeur 

65. (I) Le directeur peut désigner un ou plusieurs événements comme événements majeurs en tenant compte de ce qui 
suit : 

a) la nature des événements; , 

b) le nombre de demandes d'indemnisation découlant ou pouvant découler des événements; 

c) la nécessité de protéger le Fonds. ' 



206 



r 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 565 



(2) Lorsque le directeur désigne un ou plusieurs événements comme événement majeur, le conseil d'administration peut : 

a) d'une part, reporter le paiement d'un remboursement visé à l'article 67 jusqu'à ce qu'il soit convaincu d'avoir reçu 
toutes les demandes d'indemnisation qui découleront vraisemblablement de l'événement majeur; 

b) d'autre part, payer les indemnités en un ou plusieurs versements ou les payer partiellement si cela est nécessaire ou 
prudent pour protéger le Fonds. 

Paiements maximaux sur le Fonds 

66. Les règles suivantes s'appliquent aux paiements effectués sur le Fonds en vertu des articles 67, 68 et 69. 

1. Une somme maximale de 5 000 $ par personne dont les services de voyages ont été payés par un client peut être payée 
sur le Fonds pour ce qui suit : 

i. Un remboursement visé à l'article 67. 

ii. Un départ immédiat visé à l'article 68. 

iii. La conclusion de voyages visée à l'article 69. 

2. Malgré la disposition 1, mais sous réserve de la disposition 5, la somme maximale qui peut être payée sur le Fonds en 
vertu des articles 67 et 68 à l'égard de toutes les demandes d'indemnisation découlant d'un événement majeur ou autre 
est de 5 millions de dollars, toute somme que l'organisme d'application peut recouvrer par voie de subrogation à une 
personne inscrite ou autre étant en sus. 

3. Sous réserve de la disposition 4, la somme maximale qui peut être payée sur le Fonds pour la conclusion de voyages 
en vertu de l'article 69 est de 2 millions de dollars à l'égard de toutes les demandes d'indemnisation découlant d'un 
événement majeur ou autre. 

4. Si la somme maximale de 2 millions de dollars n'est pas suffisante dans le cas d'un événement majeur ou autre 
particulier, le directeur peut, avec l'approbation du conseil d'administration, enjoindre à l'organisme d'application 
d'effectuer des paiements additionnels sur le Fonds pour la conclusion de voyages en vertu de l'article 69. Ces 
paiements ne doivent pas dépasser 5 millions de dollars. 

5. Les paiements additionnels visés à la disposition 4 : 

i. d'une part, sont déduits du plafond de 5 millions de dollars prévu pour les demandes d'indemnisation présentées 
en vertu des articles 67 et 68 à l'égard du même événement majeur ou autre; 

ii. d'autre part, ont la priorité sur les demandes d'indetnnisation présentées en vertu des articles 67 et 68 à l'égard du 
même événement majeur ou autre. 

Remboursement en vertu des art. 57, 58 et 59 

67. Le client ou la personne inscrite qui présente une demande d'indemnisation en vertu de l'article 57, 58 ou 59 peut se 
faire rembourser conformément aux dispositions 1, 2 et 5 de l'article 66. 

Paiements en vue du départ immédiat 

68. (1) Si les conditions suivantes sont réunies, le directeur peut enjoindre à l'organisme d'application d'effectuer des 
paiements sur le Fonds pour permettre le départ immédiat d'un client ou d'une autre personne pour qui celui-ci a acquis des 
services de voyages : 

a) le client ou l'autre personne se préparait à partir immédiatement et en a été empêché sans faute de sa part; 

b) un paiement immédiat sur le Fonds est nécessaire pour atténuer la souffrance du client ou de l'autre personne; 

c) le client aurait vraisemblablement droit à un remboursement sur le Fonds. 

(2) Les dispositions 1 et 2 de l'article 66 régissent les paiements visés au paragraphe (1). 

(3) Lorsqu'il décide de donner ou non une directive en vertu du paragraphe (1), le directeur peut tenir compte des 
questions pertinentes, y compris : 

a) le bien-être du client ou de l'autre personne; 

b) la possibilité de prendre des dispositions pour le départ immédiat; 

c) la nécessité de protéger le Fonds. 
Paiements en vue de la conclusion de voyages 

69. (1) Si un client ou une autre personne subit un préjudice ou un inconvénient parce qu'il a commencé un voyage qui ne 
peut être terminé à cause d'une omission de fournir des services de voyages et que le client aurait vraisemblablement droit à 
un remboursement sur le Fonds, le directeur peut enjoindre à l'organisme d'application d'effectuer des paiements sur le 
Fonds pour payer ou aider à payer le coût de ce qui suit : 

207 



566 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

a) la conclusion du voyage du client ou de l'autre personne, conformément au paragraphe (3); 

b) l'hébergement et les repas dont le client ou l'autre personne a besoin avant de pouvoir terminer le voyage. 

(2) Les dispositions 1, 3 et 4 de l'article 66 régissent les paiements visés au paragraphe (1). 

(3) Pour l'application du paragraphe ( 1 ), la conclusion d'un voyage se fait : 

a) soit en transportant le client ou l'autre personne à la destination finale; 

b) soit en ramenant le client ou l'autre personne à son domicile, s'il le préfère et que cela est possible à un coût qui ne 
dépasse pas celui de son transport à la destination fmale. 

Obligation de la personne inscrite de rembourser certains paiements au Fonds 

70. La personne inscrite doit rembourser au Fonds toute indemnité payée à ses clients dans les circonstances suivantes : 

1 . La personne inscrite est devenue faillie ou insolvable ou a cessé d'exploiter son entreprise. 

2. La personne inscrite a acquis des services de voyages pour le compte du client en lui faisant crédit et celui-ci lui a payé 
les services après que leur fournisseur est devenu failli ou insolvable ou a cessé d'exploiter son entreprise. 

Audience du Tribunal 

71. (1) Si le conseil d'administration détermine que tout ou partie d'une demande d'indemnisation présentée en vertu de 
l'article 57, 58 ou 59 ne donne pas droit à un remboursement, l'organisme d'application signifie immédiatement un avis de la 
décision au réclamant. 

(2) Le réclamant qui, dans les 15 jours de la signification de l'avis, poste ou remet une demande écrite d'audience au 
registrateur, à l'organisme d'application et au Tribunal a droit à une audience devant le Tribunal. 

(3) L'avis visé au paragraphe (1) informe le réclamant du droit à l'audience, de la manière de la demander et du délai fixé 
pour ce faire. 

(4) La décision du conseil d'administration est définitive si le réclamant à qui l'avis visé au paragraphe (I) a été signifié ne 
demande pas d'audience. 

(5) Si le réclamant demande une audience devant le Tribunal conformément au paragraphe (2), celui-ci en fixe le moment 
et la tient. 

(6) Le Tribunal peut, selon le cas : 

a) accueillir tout ou partie de la demande d'indemnisation et enjoindre l'organisme d'application de payer la somme 
adjugée sur le Fonds; 

b) refuser d'accueillir tout ou partie de la demande d'indemnisation. 

(7) Sont parties à l'audience le réclamant qui l'a demandée, l'organisme d'application et les autres personnes que précise 
le Tribunal. 

(8) Les articles 56 à 69 s'appliquent, avec les adaptations nécessaires, aux décisions que rend le Tribunal en vertu du 
présent article. 

Administration du Fonds 

Pouvoirs d'emprunt et de placement 

72. (I) L'organisme d'application peut contracter des emprunts pour augmenter le Fonds. 

(2) L'organisme d'application peut placer l'argent du Fonds dont il n'a pas immédiatement besoin dans les biens dans 
lesquels un fiduciaire est autorisé à faire des placements conformément à la Loi sur les fiduciaires. 

Conseillers 

73. (1) Le conseil d'administration peut employer les avocats, les comptables, les autres experts, les conseillers, les 
membres du personnel ou les associations professionnelles dont il a raisonnablement besoin pour administrer, gérer, 
maintenir et protéger le Fonds et enquêter sur les demandes d'indemnisation, ou retenir leurs services ou autoriser leur 
emploi. 

(2) Le conseil d'administration et l'organisme d'application peuvent se fonder sur les opinions, les conseils ou les 
renseignements fournis par les personnes visées au paragraphe ( I ) et y donner suite. 

(3) La rémunération des personnes visées au paragraphe ( I ) peut être payée sur le Fonds. 
Dossiers mis à la disposition du directeur 

74. Le conseil d'administration met à la disposition du directeur les renseignements, les livres, les dossiers ou les 
documents qu'il conserve au sujet des affaires du Fonds. 

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567 



Vérification 

75. (1) Le directeur peut exiger la vérification des affaires du Fonds. 

(2) Le conseil d'administration aide les vérificateurs à effectuer la vérification et fournissent les livres, les dossiers ou les 
renseignements exigés. 

PARTIE IV 
ABROGATION ET ENTRÉE EN VIGUEUR 

Abrogation 

76. Les Règlements de l'Ontario 806/93, 570/94, 238/97, 331/98, 235/00 et 428/01 sont abrogés. 
Entrée en vigueur 

77. Le présent règlement entre en vigueur le 1"^ juillet 2005. 

8/05 



r 



ONTARIO REGULATION 27/05 

made under the 

SAFETY AND CONSUMER STATUTES ADMINISTRATION ACT, 1996 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

ADMINISTRATION OF VARIOUS ACTS 

Designated Legislation 



Designated legislation 

1. The provisions that are specified in Column 2 of the following Table and that are provisions of the Act or regulations 
specified opposite in Column 1 are designated as designated legislation for the purposes of subsection 3 (1) of the Act: 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Electricity Act. 1998 


section 1 1 3 


Motor Vehicle Dealers Act 


all provisions except for section 24 


the regulations made under the Motor Vehicle Dealers Act 


all provisions 


Real Estate and Business Brokers Act 


all provisions except for section 52 


the regulations made under the Real Estate and Business Brokers Act 


all provisions 


Technical Standards and Safely Act, 2000 


all provisions except for sections 33, 34 and 35 and 
subsections 36 ( 1 ), (2) and (5) 


the regulations made under the Technical Standards and Safety Act, 2000 


all provisions 


Travel Industry Act. 2002 


all provisions except for sections 42 and 43 


the regulations made under the Travel Industry Act, 2002 


all provisions 



I 



Designated Administrative Authorities 

Electricity Act, 1998 

2. For the purposes of subsection 3 (2) of the Act, the Electrical Safety Authority, that is incorporated under the laws of 
the Province of Ontario by letters patent dated January 12, 1999 and with which the Minister of Consumer and Business 
Services entered into an administrative agreement dated March 11, 1999 for the purposes of section 4 of the Act, is 
designated as the sole administrative authority for the purposes of administering the provision of the Electricity Act, 1998 that 
is designated legislation under section 1. 

Motor Vehicle Dealers Act 

3. For the purposes of subsection 3 (2) of the Act, the Ontario Motor Vehicle Industry Council, that is incorporated under 
the laws of the Province of Ontario by letters patent dated October 8, 1996 and with which the Minister of Consumer and 
Commercial Relations entered into an administrative agreement dated January 6, 1997 for the purposes of section 4 of the 
Act, is designated as the sole administrative authority for the purpose of administering the provisions of the Motor Vehicle 
Dealers Act and the regulations made under that Act that are designated legislation under section 1 . 

209 



568 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Real Estate and Business Brokers Act 

4. For the purposes of subsection 3 (2) of the Act, the Real Estate Council of Ontario, thai is incorporated under the laws 
of Canada by letters patent dated January 24, 1997 and with which the Minister of Consumer and Commercial Relations 
entered into an administrative agreement dated March I, 1997 for the purposes of section 4 of the Act, is designated as the 
sole administrative authority for the purpose of administering the provisions of the Real Estate and Business Brokers Act and 
the regulations made under that Act that are designated legislation under section 1 . 

Technical Standards and Safety Act, 2000 

5. For the purposes of subsection 3 (2) of the Act, the Technical Standards and Safety Authority, that is incorporated under 
the laws of the Province of Ontario by letters patent dated August 30, 1996 and with which the Minister of Consumer and 
Commercial Relations entered into an administrative agreement dated January 13, 1997 for the purposes of section 4 of the 
Act, is designated as the sole administrative authority for the purpose of administering the provisions of the Technical 
Standards and Safety Act, 2000 and the regulations made under that Act that are designated legislation under section 1 . 

Travel Industry Act, 2002 

6. For the purposes of subsection 3 (2) of the Act, the Travel Industry Council of Ontario, that is incorporated under the 
laws of the Province of Ontario by letters patent dated April 7, 1997 and with which the Minister of Consumer and 
Commercial Relations entered into an administrative agreement dated April 29, 1997 for the purposes of section 4 of the Act, 
is designated as the sole administrative authority for the purpose of administering the provisions of the Travel Industry Act, 
2002 and the regulations made under that Act that are designated legislation under section 1 . 

Miscellaneous 

Motor Vehicle Dealers Act 

7. For the purposes of subsection 20 ( 1 ) of the Motor Vehicle Dealers Act, any notice or order required to be given or 
served under that Act or the regulations made under it is sufficiently given or served if delivered personally or sent by 
registered mail addressed to the person to whom delivery or service is required to be made at the latest address for service 
appearing on the records of the Ontario Motor Vehicle Industry Council. 

Real Estate and Business Brokers Act 

8. For the purposes of subsection 48 ( I ) of the Real Estate and Business Brokers Act, any notice or order required to be 
given or served under that Act or the regulations made under it is sufficiently given or served if delivered personally or sent 
by registered mail addressed to the person to whom delivery or service is required to be made at the latest address for service 
appearing on the records of the Real Estate Council of Ontario. 

Revocation 

9. Ontario Regulations 159/97, 160/97, 237/97, 280/01 and 24/03 are revoked. 
Commencement 

10. This Regulation comes into force on the day that subsection 21 (3) of the Ministry of Consumer and Business 
Services Statute Law Amendment Act, 2004 comes into force. 

8/05 



ONTARIO REGULATION 28/05 

made under the 
TOURISM ACT 

Made; February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 

Amending Reg. 1037ofR.R.O. 1990 
(General) 

Note: Regulation 1037 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview which can be found at wwvv.c-lavvs.uov.on.ca. 

1. Subsection 16 (4) of Regulation 1037 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 is amended by striking out 
'"''Travel Industry Act''^ wherever it appears and substituting in each case "^Travel Industry Act, 2002". 

210 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



569 



2. This Regulation comes into force on July 1, 2005. 



REGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 28/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI SUR LE TOURISME 

pris le 2 février 2005 
déposé le 3 février 2005 

modifiant le Régi. 1037 des R.R.O. de 1990 
(Dispositions générales) 



Remarque : Le Règlement 1037 a été modifié antérieurement. Ces modifications sont indiquées dans le Sommaire de 
l'historique législatif des règlements qui se trouve sur le site www.lois-en-ligne.gouv.on.ca. 

- I. Le paragraphe 16 (4) du Règlement 1037 des Règlements refondus de l'Ontario de 1990 est modifié par 
substitution de «Loi de 2002 sur le secteur du voyage» à «Loi sur les agences de voyages». 



2. Le présent règlement entre en vigueur le 1" juillet 2005. 



8/05 



» 



ONTARIO REGULATION 29/05 

made under the 
JUSTICES OF THE PEACE ACT 

Made; February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 3, 2005 



Amending O. Reg. 247/94 
(Salaries and Benefits of Justices of the Peace — Regions Designated under Section 22 of the Act) 

Note: Ontario Regulation 247/94 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - 
Legislative History Overview wnich can be found at www.e-laws.aov.on.ca . 

1. Subsection 1.1 (1) of Ontario Regulation 247/94 is amended by adding the following definition: 

"spouse" means either of two persons who, 

(a) are married to each other within the meaning of clause (a) of the definition of "spouse" in section 1 of the Family Law 
Act, 

(b) have together entered into a marriage that is voidable or void, in good faith on the part of a person relying on this 
clause to assert any right, or 

(c) live together in a conjugal relationship outside marriage. 

2. Section 2 of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

2. The salary of a person who held office as a fiill-time justice of the peace on or after April 1, 2002 shall be paid on the 
basis of the annual salaries for the periods set out in Columns 2, 3 and 4 of the following Table opposite the office set out in 
Column 1 of that Table. 

TABLE 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Column 3 


Column 4 


Office 


Salary April 1,2002 
to March 31, 2003 


Salary- April 1,2003 
to March 31, 2004 


Salary — annually from 
April 1,2004 


Resional senior justice of the peace for a region 


$87,738 


$91,043 


$93,621 


Senior advisory justice of the peace 


87,738 


91,043 


93,621 



211 



570 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Senior justice of the peace/administrator of the Native 
justice of the peace program 


87,738 


91,043 


93,621 


Presiding justice of the peace 


82,628 


85,933 


88,511 


Non-presiding justice of the peace 


60,115 


62,520 


64,396 



3. Section 7 of the Regulation is amended by adding the following subsection: 

(4) A sel of judicial attire for a justice of the peace who holds office on or afler April I, 2002 includes an intake court 
jacket in addition to the garments listed in subsection (3). 

4. Paragraph 1 of subsection 8 (I) of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

I. Mileage expenses for travel in his or her own private automobile to or from a location other than his or her regular 
location, at the rate of, 

i. 30 cents per kilometre travelled in southern Ontario and 30.5 cents per kilometre travelled in northern Ontario for 
the period before April I, 2002, and 

ii. 37 cents per kilometre travelled in southern Ontario and 40 cents per kilometre travelled in northern Ontario for 
the period after March 31, 2002. 

5. Subsection 17 (1) of the Regulation is amended by striking out "same-sex partner" in the portion following clause 
(b). 

6. (1) Clause 26 (1) (a) of the Regulation is amended by striking out "or same-sex partner". 
(2) Clause 26 (1) (b) of the Regulation is amended by striking out "or same-sex partner". 

7. (1) Subsection 29 (5) of the Regulation is amended by striking out "$200" and substituting "$300". 

(2) Subsection 29 (6) of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

(6) The Supplementary Health and Hospital Insurance Plan must provide the cost of the purchase and repair of a hearing 
aid (other than the replacement of a battery) to a maximum of $1,200 per person every four years to every justice of the peace 
who elects to participate in the Plan's additional coverage for vision care and hearing aids. 

(6.1) Every person who held office as a justice of the peace after March 31, 2002 and before February 3, 2005 and who 
elected to participate in the Plan's additional coverage for vision care and hearing aids is entitled to be reimbursed for vision 
care and hearing aids as if subsections (5) and (6) and the definition of "vision care" in subsection (9) as they read on 
February 3, 2005 had been in force during that period of time. 

(3) Subsection 29 (8) of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

(8) For the additional coverage described in subsection (5), the Crown shall pay, 

(a) 80 per cent of the premiums for each participating full-time justice of the peace for the period after March 31, 2002; 
and 

(b) 80 per cent of the applicable monthly percentage under clause (2) (b) of the premiums for each participating part-time 
justice of the peace for the period after March 31, 2002. 

(8. 1 ) For the additional coverage described in subsection (6), the Crown shall pay, 

(a) 60 per cent of the premiums for each participating full-time justice of the peace; and 

(b) 60 per cent of the applicable monthly percentage under clause (2) (b) of the premiums for each participating part-time 
justice of the peace. 

(4) The definition of "vision care" in subsection 29 (9) of the Regulation is revoked and the following substituted: 

"vision care" means, 

(a) eye examinations conducted by a physician who is a member of the College of Physicians and Surgeons of Ontario or 
an optometrist who is a member of the College of Optometrists of Ontario, and 

(b) eyeglasses, frames and lenses for eyeglasses and contact lenses prescribed by a physician who is a member of the 
College of Physicians and Surgeons of Ontario or an optometrist who is a member of the College of Optometrists of 
Ontario, and includes the fitting of such eyeglasses, frames, lenses and contact lenses, but does not include eyeglasses 
for cosmetic purposes or sunglasses. 

8. (1) Paragraph 2 of subsection 30 (I) of the Regulation is amended by striking out "or same-sex partner". 
(2) Paragraph 4 of subsection 30 (1) of the Regulation is amended by striking out "or same-sex partner". 

8/05 



212 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 571 

ONTARIO REGULATION 30/05 
, made under the 
NORTHERN ONTARIO GROW BONDS CORPORATION ACT, 2004 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 4, 2005 

DEBT FINANCING: ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA AND PURPOSES 

Eligibility criteria 

1. (I) To be eligible to receive debt financing fi-om the Northern Ontario Grow Bonds Corporation, a business or entity 
must meet the following criteria: 

1 . It must be a corporation, joint venture, partnership or sole proprietorship that carries on or will carry on business for 
profit in northern Ontario. 

2. It must be a small or medium-sized business. 

3. It must be located in northern Ontario. 

4. It must be controlled by residents of northern Ontario. 

5. In the case of an existing business, it must have demonstrated business experience and an acceptable business plan. 

6. In the case of a new business, it must have an acceptable business plan. 

7. It must enter into an agreement with the Corporation that sets out the terms of the loan, including but not limited to the 
amount of the loan, the interest rate payable on the loan, the repayment terms, the information that the business or 
entity is required to provide to the Corporation and when it is required to provide that information. 

(2) A corporation with share capital is eligible if it meets the criteria set out in subsection (1) and if none of its shares are 
held by the federal government, a provincial government, a municipal government or a government agency, except pursuant 
to subsection 9 ( 1 ) of the Charities Accounting Act. 

Purposes for which loan to be used 

2. An eligible business or entity may use a loan provided by the Corporation, 

(a) to establish a new business or expand an existing business in northern Ontario, excluding a new or expanded retail, 
construction or hospitality business; 

(b) to make capital investments, that may include but are not limited to investments in physical infrastructure, leasehold 
improvements, new or used equipment and intellectual property; and 

(c) to create new permanent, full-time employment opportunities within its business operations in northern Ontario. 

RÈGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 30/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI DE 2004 SUR LA SOCIÉTÉ D'ÉMISSION D'OBLIGATIONS DE DÉVELOPPEMENT DU 

NORD DE L'ONTARIO 

pris le 2 février 2005 
déposé le 4 février 2005 

FINANCEMENT PAR EMPRUNT : CRITÈRES D'ADMISSIBILITÉ ET FINS 

Critères d'admissibilité 

1. (1) Pour être admissible à un financement par emprunt de la Société d'émission d'obligations de développement du 
Nord de l'Ontario, une entreprise ou une entité doit répondre aux critères suivants : 

1. Elle doit être une personne morale, une coentreprise, une société de personnes ou une entreprise individuelle qui 
exerce ou exercera des activités commerciales à des fins lucratives dans le Nord de l'Ontario. 

213 



572 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

2. Elle doit êlre une petite ou moyenne entreprise. 

3. Elle doit être située dans le Nord de l'Ontario. 

4. Elle doit être contrôlée par des résidents du Nord de l'Ontario. 

5. Dans le cas d'une entreprise existante, elle doit avoir une expérience manifeste en affaires et un plan d'affaires 
acceptable. 

6. Dans le cas d'une nouvelle entreprise, elle doit avoir un plan d'affaires acceptable. 

7. Elle doit conclure avec la Société une entente qui énonce les modalités du prêt, notamment son montant, le taux 
d'intérêt payable sur lui, les modalités de remboursement, les renseignements qu'elle est tenue de fournir à la Société 
et le moment où elle doit les fournir. 

(2) Une personne morale avec capital-actions est admissible si elle répond aux critères énoncés au paragraphe (1) et 
qu'aucune de ses actions n'est détenue par le gouvernement fédéral, un gouvernement provincial, une administration 
municipale ou un organisme gouvernemental, si ce n'est en vertu du paragraphe 9 (1) de la Loi sur la comptabilité des 
oeuvres de bienfaisance. 

Fins auxquelles un prêt peut être utilisé 

2. Une entreprise ou une entité admissible peut utiliser un prêt consenti par la Société pour faire ce qui suit : 

a) établir une nouvelle entreprise ou développer une entreprise existante dans le Nord de l'Ontario, sauf dans les secteurs 
du commerce de détail, de la construction ou de l'hospitalité; 

b) placer des capitaux, notamment dans l'infrastructure matérielle, les améliorations locatives, le matériel neuf ou usagé 
et la propriété intellectuelle; 

c) créer de nouvelles occasions d'emploi permanent à temps plein dans le cadre de ses activités commerciales dans le 
Nord de l'Ontario. 

8/05 



NOTE: The Table of Regulations - Legislative History Overview and other tables related to regulations can be found at the 
e-Laws web site (www.e-la ws.gov.on.ca ) under Tables. Consolidated regulations may also be found at that site by clicking 
on Statutes and associated Regulations under Consolidated Law. 

REMARQUE : On trouve le Sommaire de l'historique législatif des règlements et d'autres tables liées aux règlements sur le 
site Web Lois-en-ligne (www .lQJy-en-ligne.go u v.on.cti ) en cliquant sur «Tables». On y trouve également les règlements 
codifiés en cliquant sur le lien Lois et règlements d'application sous la rubrique «Textes législatifs codifiés». 



214 



<; 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 6 1 5 



Publications under the Regulations Act 
Publications en vertu de la Loi sur les règlements 

2005—4)2—26 



ONTARIO REGULATION 31/05 

made under the 

FOOD SAFETY AND QUALITY ACT, 2001 

Made: February 2, 2005 
Filed: February 10, 2005 

MEAT 
CONTENTS 





PARTI 




INTERPRETATION AND APPLICATION 


1. 


Interpretation 


2. 


Application of Regulation 




PART II 




RESTRICTIONS ON SALE OF MEAT AND RELATED AC 1 VITIES 


3. 


Restrictions 


4. 


Persons liable 




PART III 




LICENCES AND INFORMATION PROVIDED TO DIRECTOR 


5. 


Licensed activities 


6. 


Application for licence 


7. 


No licence 


8. 


Time to respond 


9. 


Conditions of licences 


10. 


Transfer of licences 


II. 


Expiry of licences 


12. 


Information provided to director 




PART IV 




PREMISES, FACILITIES AND EQUIPMENT OF MEAT PLANTS 


13. 


Responsibility of operator 


14. 


Location 


15. 


Design 


16. 


Construction materials 


17. 


Lighting 


18. 


Temperature, ventilation and plumbing systems 


19. 


Drainage and sewage systems 


20. 


Receiving and shipping facilities 


21. 


Facilities for inspectors 


22. 


Storage facilities 


23. 


Cleaning and sanitizing facilities 


24. 


Slaughter facilities for birds 


25. 


Slaughter facilities for rabbits 


26. 


Slaughter facilities for other food animals 


27. 


Washroom and other facilities 


28. 


Dressing areas 


29. 


Animal pens and crates 


30. 


Refrigeration facilities 


31. 


Equipment 



32. Drinking-water system 



PART V 
WATER USED IN MEAT PLANTS 



215 



616 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



33. Non-potable water system 

34. Standards for water used 

35. Testing by applicant for licence 

36. Testing by inspector 

37. Disinfection of water 

38. Order for remedial steps 

39. Operation of equipment 

40. Notice of remedial steps 
4L Re-use of water 

PART VI 
OPERATION OF MEAT PLANTS 

42. Operation 

43. Living or sleeping quarters 

44. Presence of other animals 

45. Premises and equipment 

46. Maintenance program 

47. Sanitation program 

48. Pest control program 

49. Authorized materials 

50. Cleaning and sanitizing 

51. Temperature and humidity of rooms 

52. Limit on contents of coolers 

PART VII 
PERSONNEL AT MEAT PLANTS 

53. Personal hygiene and clothing 

54. Procedures requiring change of clothing 

55. Movement of persons and products 

56. Persons with diseases 

57. Training and supervision 

PART VIII 
SLAUGHTER OF FOOD ANIMALS 

INIORMATION AND RECORDS 

58. Information from person making delivery 

59. Record of plant operator 



60. Handling of animals 

61. Segregation of animals 

62. Removal of animals 

63. Entry of animal into plant 



Handling of Food Animals 



CONDBMNATION OF FOOD ANIMALS 



64. Order for condemnation 

65. Other required condemnation 

66. Voluntary condemnation 

Slaughter of Food Animals 

67. Required procedure 

68. Ante mortem inspection 

69. Response of non-veterinary inspector 

70. Response of veterinary inspector 

71. Order to euthanize food animals in a shipment 

72. Identification of food animal 

73. Taking animals into killing room 

74. Time for slaughter 

75. Method of slaughter 

Dressing and Partial Dressing of Carcasses 

76. Dressing 

77. Partial dressing 

78. Transfer of carcasses 

79. Operating procedures 

Post Mortem Inspection and Disposition of Carcasses 

80. Post mortem inspection 

8 1 . Response of inspector 

82. Voluntary condemnation 

83. Cooling and refrigeration 

Entry of Carcass into Meat Plant 

84. Entry of carcass into meat plant 



216 



Ml'., THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 617 



» ; • ■ 


PARTIX 




INEDIBLE MATERIALS 


85. 


Procedures 


86. 


Rooms for inedible materials 


87. 


Removal from rooms for inedible materials 


88. 


Denaturing 


89. 


Material intended for use in animal food 


90. 


Material intended for use in pet food 


91. 


Disposal of inedible material 




PART X 




MEAT PRODUCTS — PROCESS CONTROLS 


92. 


Prohibition 


93. 


Process controls 


94. 


Production of information to director 


95. 


Production of information to inspector 


96. 


Standards for handling and storing 


97. 


Processing standards 


98. 


Records of cooking, fermenting and smoking 


99. 


Thermal processing 


100. 


Processing of blood 


101. 


Entry of meat products into meat plant 


102. 


Mandatory condemnation 


103. 


Voluntary condemnation 




PART XI 




MEAT PRODUCT STANDARDS 


104. 


Standards 


105. 


Processing 


106. 


Treatment of organs 


107. 


Casing 


108. ' 


Composition 


109. 


Weight 


110. 


Interpretation of Table 1 


_. 


PART XII 




INSPECTION LEGEND, LABELLING AND PACKAGING 




Inspection Legend 


111. 


Requirement for inspection legend 


112. 


Restrictions on applying inspection legend 


113. 


Form of inspection legend 


114. 


Duty to notify inspector 




Labelling 


115. 


Requirement for labels 


116. 


Form of labels 


117, 


Label for raw meat 


118. 


Label for other meat products 


119. 


Name of meat product 


120. 


Listing ingredients on label 


121. 


Storage instructions 


122. 


Location of information on label 


123. 


Location of label 


124. 


Legibility of labels 


125. 


Shipping meat products without a label 


126. 


Label for inedible material 




Packaging 


127. 


Packaging 


128. 


Procedures 


129. 


Packaging material 


130. 


Weights of pre-packaged meat products 




PART XIII 




TRANSPORTATION STANDARDS 


131. 


Application of Part 


132. 


Receiving carcasses, etc. 


133. 


Shipping carcasses, etc. 


134. 


Standards for transport containers 



PART XIV 
DISTRIBUTION RECORDS, RECALL PROCEDURE AND NOTICE TO THE PUBLIC 

135. Application of Part 



217 



618 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



136. 


Dislribution record 




137. 


Recall procedure 




138. 


Notice of defective shipping 


PART XV 
COMMENCEMENT 


139. 


Commencement 




Tabic 1 


Meat product standards 





PARTI 
INTERPRETATION AND APPLICATION 

Interpretation 

1. (1) Inthis Regulation, 

"animal food" means food for an animal that is not a food animal, but does not include pet food; 

"ante mortem inspection" means the inspection of a food animal by an inspector in accordance with Part VIII before the 
animal is slaughtered; 

"bird" means a bird that is a food animal; 

"bulk container" means a container, including a shipping container, used for a meat product, other than a container in which a 
meat product is packaged for intended sale by a retailer to a consumer; 

"carcass" means the carcass of a food animal; 

"commercial sterility" means the condition obtained in a meat product that has been processed by the application of heat, 
alone or in combination with other treatments, to render the meat product free from viable forms of micro-organisms, 
including spores, that are capable of growing in the meat product at the temperatures at which the meat product is designed 
to be held during distribution and storage; 

"component" means an individual unit of food that is combined with one or more individual units of food to form an 
ingredient; 

"condemn", 

(a) in respect of a food animal, means to determine that the animal is unfit for slaughter, and 

(b) in respect of a carcass, a part of a carcass or a meat product derived from a food animal, to determine that the carcass, 
the part of the carcass or the meat product, as the case may be, is unfit for use as food; 

"condemned material" means material that, under this Regulation, is condemned or required to be condemned; 

"consumer" means an individual who purchases or acquires a meat product for the individual's own use or consumption or 
that of the individual's immediate family and who is acting other than in the course of carrying on business; 

"container" means a package or confining band in which a meat product is or is intended to be offered for sale, but does not 
include a lining, a bulk container or a transport container; 

"contaminated", 

(a) in respect of an animal, a carcass, a part of a carcass, a meat product, an ingredient or other food, means, 

(i) containing or having been treated with or exposed to, 

(A) a substance not permitted by, or in an amount in excess of limits prescribed under the Canadian 
Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (Canada), the Food and Drugs Act (Canada) or the Pest Control 
Products Act (Canada), or 

(B) an ingredient, a food additive or any source of ionizing radiation not permitted by, or in excess of limits 
prescribed under the Food and Drugs Act (Canada), 

(ii) containing or having on it any decomposed matter, foreign matter or visible extraneous material, or 

(iii) containing or having been exposed to a hazard, or 

(b) in respect of water, a packaging material, any other substance or thing or a condition of a premises, facilities, 
equipment, utensils or conveyances, means containing or having been exposed to a hazard, 

and "contamination", as a noun, has a corresponding meaning; 

"denature" means to treat inedible material by giving it an appearance or character so that it cannot be mistaken for a meat 
product; 

"dress", as a verb, 

218 



, THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 619 

(a) in respect of the carcass of a slaughtered food animal, other than a pig or bird, means, 

(i) to remove the skin, the head and developed mammary glands and to remove the feet at the carpal and tarsal 
joints, 

(ii) to eviscerate, and i 

(iii) except in the case of a sheep, goat, deer or rabbit, to split, 

(b) in respect of the carcass of a slaughtered food animal that is a pig, means, 

(i) to remove the hair, toenails and developed mammary glands, or to remove the things set out in subclause (a) (i) in 
the manner mentioned in that subclause, if applicable, 

(ii) to eviscerate, 

(iii) if required by a regional veterinarian, to split, and 

(iv) to remove the interdigital glands in the feet, if they are intended for human consumption, 

(c) in respect of the carcass of a slaughtered food animal that is a bird, other than a ratite, means to remove the feathers, 
hair and head, the feet at the tarsal joints, and the uropygial gland and to eviscerate, and 

(d) in respect of the carcass of a slaughtered food animal that is a ratite, means to remove the feathers, hair and head, to 
remove the feet at the tarsal joints and to eviscerate; 

"euthanize", as a verb in respect of a food animal at a slaughter plant, means to kill the animal for a purpose other than 
human consumption and "euthanasia", as a noun, has a corresponding meaning; 

"eviscerate" means, 

(a) to remove the respiratory and digestive system and the other thoracic and abdominal organs of a carcass, which may 
include the reproductive and urinary system, if, 

(i) the carcass is derived from a chicken whose live weight was 2.7 kg or less, 

(ii) the carcass is derived from a duck whose live weight was 4 kg or less, or 

(iii) the carcass is derived from other birds that a director specifies, 

(b) in respect of a carcass derived from a bird other than a chicken or duck mentioned in clause (a), to remove the 
respiratory, digestive, reproductive and urinary systems and the other thoracic and abdominal organs of the carcass, 
and 

(c) in respect of a carcass not described in clause (a) or (b), to remove the respiratory, digestive, reproductive and urinary 
systems of the carcass, except the kidneys, and the other thoracic and abdominal organs; 

"food animal" means a mammal or bird that is raised in captivity and whose meat or meat by-products are intended for 
human consumption, but does not include a hunted game animal; 

"food contact surface" means a surface with which carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products at a meat plant ordinarily 
come into contact at the plant; 

"freestanding meat plant" means a premises, other than a slaughter plant, where one or more Category 1 or Category 2 
activities are carried on as a business, and includes any part of the premises where hides are removed from partially dressed 
carcasses of food animals or carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products from food animals are produced, processed, 
handled, stored, packaged, labelled, distributed or sold, but does not include a premises if, 

(a) there are no Category 2 activities carried on as a business at the premises, and 

(b) all of the Category 1 activities carried on as a business at the premises are carried on in respect only of meat products 
that the operator of the premises sells, serves or otherwise distributes directly to consumers; 

"game animal" means a mammal or bird that is of a species that is wild by nature, whether it is found in the wild or has been 
raised in captivity, and includes deer, elk, moose, caribou, wild sheep, wild goats, bear and migratory and non-migratory 
game birds; 

"hazard" means a biological, chemical or physical agent or factor or a condition of a food or the environment in which a food 
is produced, processed, handled or stored, if the agent, factor or condition, as the case may be, may directly or indirectly 
cause a food to be unsafe for human consumption in the absence of its control; 

"hermetically sealed container" means a container that is designed to be and is secure against the entry of micro-organisms; 

"hunted game animal" means a game animal that has been killed by hunting or that has been killed by a conservation officer 
appointed under the Fish and Wildlife Conservation Act, 1997 and whose meat products are intended for human 
consumption; 



Ï 



219 



620 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



"hunting" has the same meaning as in the Fish and Wildlife Conservation Act. 1997 and "hunted" has a corresponding 
meaning; 

"inedible material" means a carcass, a part of a carcass or a meat product derived from a food animal that is not intended for, 
or is not permitted under this Regulation, to be sold or distributed for use as food, whether or not the material is 
condemned material, but does not include a meat product; 

"inedible materials room" means the room at a slaughter plant described in subsection 22 (2) for inedible materials; 

"ingredient", in respect of a meat product, means an individual unit of the product that is combined with one more other 
individual units of the product to form an integral unit of the product; 

"inspection legend" means an inspection legend in the form required by section 1 13; 

"killing room" means the room or area of a meat plant where food animals are slaughtered; 

"meat" means the muscle that is derived from a carcass, that is intended for human consumption and that is associated with 
the skeleton, tongue, diaphragm, heart, gizzard or mammalian esophagus, whether or not the muscle is accompanied by fat, 
and includes those parts of the bones, skin, sinews, nerves, blood vessels and other tissues that normally accompany the 
muscle and are not ordinarily removed in dressing a carcass, but does not include meat by-products, mechanically 
separated meat or meat to which an ingredient other than meat has been added; 

"meat by-product" means the muscle associated with the lips, snout, scalp or ears of a carcass of a food animal, the blood 
from the carcass or the edible organs or tissues from the carcass that are intended for human consumption, but does not 
include meat, mechanically separated meat, or a meat by-product to which an ingredient other than a meat by product has 
been added; 

"meat plant" means a slaughter plant or a freestanding meat plant; 

"meat product", in respect of a product derived from a food animal, means, 

(a) a carcass or a part of a carcass that has received a post mortem inspection in accordance with this Regulation or the 
Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and that has either been approved for use as food or has been imported in accordance 
with that Act, 

(b) meat, a meat by-product, mechanically separated meat, or a prepared meat product, or 

(c) a product that is intended for human consumption and that is derived in whole or part from a carcass or a part of a 
carcass described in clause (a) or anything mentioned in clause (b), 

but does not include inedible material; 

"mechanically separated meat" means a product that is derived from a carcass of a food animal, that is intended for human 
consumption and that is obtained by removing the muscle tissue attached to the bones by means of mechanical separation 
equipment; 

"operator" means a person who has responsibility for and control over the operation of a meat plant; 

"packaging material" means material used to package a meat product and includes a container and a bulk container; 

"partially dress", 

(a) in respect of a slaughtered food animal, other than a bird, means, 

(i) to remove the developed mammary glands and the feet at the carpal and tarsal joints, if required by a regional 
veterinarian as a condition of issuing an authorization under section 77, 

(ii) to eviscerate, 

(iii) to split, except in the case of a sheep, goat, deer or calf, and 

(iv) to carry out any other dressing procedures required by a regional veterinarian as a condition of issuing an 
authorization under section 77, and 

(b) in respect of a slaughtered food animal that is a bird, other than a ratite, means, 

(i) to remove the feathers and hair, 

(ii) to remove the head and the feet at the tarsal joints, if required by a regional veterinarian as a condition of issuing 
an authorization under section 77, 

(iii) to eviscerate, if required by a regional veterinarian as a condition of issuing an authorization under section 77, 
and 

(iv) to carry out any other dressing procedures required by a regional veterinarian as a condition of issuing an 
authorization under section 77; 

220 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 621 



"pet food" means food for a companion animal that is not a food animal, but does not include animal food; 

"pet food processing room" means the room at a slaughter plant described in subsection 22 (3) for processing, packaging and 
labelling inedible material that is intended for pharmaceutical, research or therapeutic purposes, if processing, packaging or 
labelling the material for any of those purposes is likely to contaminate meat products at the plant, or intended for use in 
pet food; 

"post mortem inspection" means the inspection of a carcass or a part of a carcass by an inspector in accordance with Part 
Vlll; 

"premises", in respect of a meat plant, includes the lands, buildings and facilities of the plant; 

"pre-packaged", in respect of a meat product, means packaged in a container in the manner in which it is ordinarily sold to or 
used or purchased by a consumer without being repackaged and "pre-packaging" has a corresponding meaning; 

"prepared meat product" means a meat product that is derived in whole or part from a carcass of a food animal that is 
intended for human consumption and that, 

(a) is cooked, fermented or dehydrated, or 

(b) contains any ingredient, other than meat, a meat by-product or mechanically separated meat, unless the ingredient is 
salt or a seasoning that has only been applied to the surface of the product; 

"preserved", in respect of a meat product, means salted, pickled, dried, cured, smoked or treated by other similar means 
permitted under this Regulation but does not include refrigerated or frozen; 

"principal display panel", 

(a) in the case of a container that is mounted on a display card, means the part of the label applied to, 

(i) all or part of the principal display surface of the container, 

(ii) all or part of the side of the display card that is displayed or visible under normal or customary conditions of sale 
or use, or 

(iii) both the parts described in subclauses (i) and (ii), 

(b) in the case of an ornamental container, means that part of the label applied to all or part of the bottom of the container, 
to all or part of the principal display surface of the container or to all or part of a tag that is attached to the container, 
and 

(c) in the case of all other containers and bulk containers, means that part of the label applied to all or part of the principal 
display surface of the container; 

"principal display surface", 

(a) in the case of a container or bulk container that has a side or surface that is displayed or visible under normal or 
customary conditions of sale or use, means the total area of that side or surface, excluding the top, if any, 

(b) in the case of a container or bulk container that has a lid that is the part of the container displayed or visible under 
normal or customary conditions of sale or use, means the total area of the top surface of the lid, 

(c) in the case of a container or bulk container that does not have a side or surface that is displayed or visible under normal 
or customary conditions of sale or use, means any 40 per cent of the total surface area of the container, excluding the 
top and bottom, if any, if that 40 per cent can be displayed or visible under normal or customary conditions of sale or 
use, 

(d) in the case of a container or bulk container that is a bag with sides of equal dimensions, means the total area of one of 
the sides, 

(e) in the case of a container or bulk container that is a bag with sides of more than one size, means the total area of one of 
the largest sides, and 

(f) in the case of a container that is a wrapper or confining band that is so narrow in relation to the size of the product 
contained that it cannot reasonably be said to have any side or surface that is displayed or visible under normal or 
customary conditions of sale or use, means the total area of one side of a ticket or tag attached to the container; 

"processing", in respect of a carcass, part of a carcass or a meat product, means any operation performed to prepare the 
carcass, the part of a carcass or the meat product for use as food and includes adding an anticoagulant to blood, aging, 
basting, boning, breaking, canning, coating, comminution, cooling, cooking, curing, cutting, dehydrating, emulsifying 
fabricating, fermenting, freezing, heating, marinating, massaging, pasteurizing, pickling, refrigerating, rinsing, rubbing, 
salting, slicing, smoking, tenderizing, thermal processing washing and reprocessing of previously processed products, but 
does not include the dressing of a carcass; 



221 



622 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



"ready-to-eat", in respect of a meat product, means that the product that has been subjected to a process sufficient to 
inactivate pathogenic micro-organisms or their toxins, control spores of food borne pathogenic bacteria or control, 
inactivate or eliminate any other thing that is present in the product in an amount that would render the product unsafe for 
human consumption so that, when the product is handled and stored under appropriate conditions, it does not require 
further heating or processing, other than refrigeration, in order to be safe for human consumption; 

"recipe", in respect of a meat product, means a written description of, 

(a) the ingredients contained in the meat product and the components of the ingredients, including food additives, 

(b) the proportions of the ingredients and components mentioned in clause (a), and 

(c) the method of manufacture of the product; 

"regional veterinarian" means a veterinary inspector appointed by a director as a regional veterinarian; 

"safe", in respect of any food, means that, subject to subsection (3), the food is not likely to cause any adverse affect to health 
or safety of a person who consumes it if it is prepared and consumed by the person in accordance with its intended use; 

"sanitize" means to reduce the level of micro-organisms to a level that will not compromise the safety of a meat product; 

"seasoning" means a spice or seasoning listed in Division 7 of Part B of the Food and Dnig Regulations made under the 
Food and Drugs Act (Canada); 

"sell" includes offer to sell, agree to sell, barter, possess for the purposes of sale, sell on consignment and dispose of or to 
agree to dispose of by any method to any person for valuable consideration; 

"slaughter", in respect of a food animal, means to slaughter the animal for the purpose of human consumption; 

"slaughter plant" means a premises where food animals are slaughtered, and includes any part of the premises where 
carcasses from food animals are dressed or carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products derived from food animals are 
produced, processed, packaged, labelled, handled, stored, distributed or sold; 

"spouse" means a person to whom a person is married or with whom a person lives in a conjugal relationship outside 
marriage; 

"transport container" includes any conveyance used for the transportation of food animals or meat products; 

"veterinarian" means a person licensed under the Veterinarians Act; 

"veterinary inspector" means a veterinarian appointed by a director under section 14 of the Act as an inspector; 

"water activity" means the ratio of water vapour pressure of a meat product to the vapour pressure of pure water at the same 
temperature and pressure. 

(2) In the definition of "freestanding meat plant" in subsection (1), 

"Category 1 activity" means, 

(a) aging or breaking of a carcass or a part of a carcass, 

(b) aging, boning, comminution, cutting, fabrication, marinating, slicing or tenderizing of a meat product, 

(c) packaging of a meat product for wholesale or other sale or distribution to persons other than consumers, 

(d) pre-packagingof a meat product, 

(e) cooking of ready-to-serve meat products for the purpose of immediate consumption, and 

(f) any other processing activity performed in respect of a carcass, a part of a carcass or a meat product that in the opinion 
of a director presents a low risk of adversely affecting the safety for human consumption of the carcass, the part of the 
carcass or the meat product, as the case may be; 

"Category 2 activity" means, 

(a) canning, curing, dehydrating, emulsifying, fermenting or smoking of a meat product, 

(b) manufacturing of a ready-to-eat meat product, other than cooking a ready-to-serve meat product for immediate 
consumption, 

(c) processing bumt heads or feet of cattle or sheep, unfinished green tripe or casings, bile, blood products containing salt 
or other ingredients or reproductive organs from the carcasses of food animals, 

(d) preparing mechanically separated meat, and 



Î 



222 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 623 



(e) any other processing activity performed in respect of a carcass, a part of a carcass or a meat product that in the opinion 
of a director presents a medium to high risk of adversely affecting the safety for human consumption of the carcass, 
the part of the carcass or the meat product, as the case may be. 

(3) For the purposes of the definition of "safe" in subsection (1), food is not unsafe merely because its inherent nutritional 
or chemical properties or its inherent nature cause adverse reactions only in persons with allergies or sensitivities that are not 
common to the majority of persons. 

(4) A reference in this Regulation to a percentage of a meat product or other substance means a reference to a percentage 
of the meat product or other substance by weight. 

Application of Regulation 

2. (1) Subject to subsections 15 (4), 16 (3), 21 (4), 23 (2), 27 (3), (4) and (5), 28 (1) and 57 (3), nothing in this Regulation 
applies, 

(a) until April 1, 2006, to the operation of a freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, processed meat products of more than 
500,000 kilograms but no more than 1 million kilograms; or 

(b) until October 1 , 2006, to the operation of a freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, processed meat products of no more 
than 500,000 kilograms or did not process meat products. 

(2) Parts 111 to X, XII, XIII and XIV do not apply to the operation of a registered establishment defined in the Meat 
Inspection Act (Canada). 

(3) A producer who owns, raises and slaughters food animals on the producer's own premises for consumption by the 
producer or the producer's immediate family is exempt from this Regulation in respect of those animals and any carcasses, 
parts of carcasses or meat products derived from those animals that the producer or the producer's immediate family consume 
on the premises. 

PART II 
RESTRICTIONS ON SALE OF MEAT AND RELATED ACTVITIES 

Restrictions 

3. ( 1 ) No person shall sell, transport, deliver or distribute to any person any carcass, part of a carcass or meat product 
derived from a food animal unless, 

(a) the food animal has received an ante mortem inspection and approval for slaughter in accordance with this Regulation 
and the carcass of the animal has received a post mortem inspection and approval for use as food in accordance with 
this Regulation or the regulations made under the Meat Inspection Act (Canada); 

(b) the slaughter of the food animal took place at a slaughter plant operated by a licensee or at a registered establishment 
as defined in the Meat Inspection Act (Canada); and 

(c) the carcass, the part of a carcass or the meat product, as the case may be, is stamped with an inspection legend or is 
labelled in accordance with this Regulation. 

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to a carcass, part of a carcass or a meat product if it has been imported into Canada in 
accordance with the Meat Inspection Act (Canada). 

Persons liable 

4. In any proceedings relating to a contravention of this Regulation, a person or entity in possession of a carcass, part of a 
carcass or a meat product that does not comply with this Regulation shall be deemed, in the absence of evidence to the 
contrary, to have possession of the carcass, part of the carcass or the meat product for the purpose of selling it unless it is for 
the person's or entity's own consumption. 

PART III 
LICENCES AND INFORMATION PROVIDED TO DIRECTOR 



Licensed activities 



* 5. (I) The following regulatable activities are licensed activities to which section 4 of the Act applies when carried on by 
a person who is engaged in the business of operating a slaughter plant: 

1 . The slaughter of food animals. 

2. The dressing of carcasses. 

3. The processing, handling, storage, packaging, labelling, sale and distribution of carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat 
products. 

4. Any other activity that the person carries on in respect of operating the plant. 

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624 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(2) The following regulatable activities are licensed activities to which section 4 of the Act applies when carried on by a 
person who is engaged in the business of operating a freestanding meat plant: 

1 . The removal of hides from partially dressed carcasses that have been received from a slaughter plant and that an 
inspector on a post mortem inspection has found fit for use as food. 

2. The processing, handling, storage, packaging, labelling, sale and distribution of meat products. 

3. Any other activity that the person carries on in respect of operating the plant. 

(3) A person who is the operator of a registered establishment as defined in the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) is exempt 
from the requirement to hold a licence to carry on a licensed activity mentioned in subsection ( 1 ) or (2). 

Application for licence 

6. (I) An application for the issuance or renewal of a licence to operate a meat plant shall be in a form approved by the 
director to whom the applicant submits the application and shall be accompanied by, 

(a) in the case of an initial application, the plans and specifications of the plant recommended by the regional veterinarian 
and the results of the water tests, if any, that section 35 require be conducted; 

(b) a list of the names of all persons, including corporations, that are operators of the plant; 

(c) a list of every water system that supplies water to the meat plant; 

(d) all information and documents that the director requires for the purpose of determining whether the application meets 
the requirements of the Act and the regulations; and 

(e) payment of the fee, if any, required by a regulation made by the Minister under clause 52 (a) of the Act . 

(2) A person shall make a separate application and hold a separate licence in respect of each location at which the person 
operates a meat plant. 

No licence 

7. (1) Under clause 5 (1) (b) of the Act, a director may refuse to issue a licence to operate a meat plant if the director is of 
the opinion that, the applicant does not or will not have all of the premises, facilities, equipment and water necessary to 
engage in the business of operating the plant in accordance with this Regulation. 

(2) Under clause 6 ( 1 ) (c) of the Act, a director may refuse to renew or may suspend or revoke a licence to operate a meat 
plant if the director is of the opinion that, 

(a) the premises, facilities, equipment and water used by the licensee in operating the plant do not comply with this 
Regulation; 

(b) the past or present conduct of the licensee or, if the licensee is a corporation, of its officers, its directors or any of the 
persons specified in the paragraphs of subsection (3) reading the references in that subsection to the applicant as 
references to the licensee, affords reasonable grounds to believe that the licensee will not carry on the licensed 
activities in accordance with the law; or 

(c) the licensee has not paid in full all costs that the licensee is required to pay under section 5 1 of the Act. 

(3) The following persons are specified for the purposes of clause 5 (I) (a) of the Act, if the applicant mentioned in that 
clause is a corporation: 

1 . Persons who have or may have a beneficial interest in the applicant. 

2. Persons who exercise or may exercise control either directly or indirectly over the applicant. 

3. Persons who have provided or may have provided financing either directly or indirectly to the applicant. 
Time to respond 

8. ( 1) For the purposes of subsection 5 (2) of the Act, the prescribed time within which an applicant may request a hearing 
by the director is 21 days after the day on which the applicant is served with the notice. 

(2) For the purposes of subsection 6 (2), (4) or 9 (3) of the Act, the prescribed time within which a licensee may request a 
hearing by the director is 10 days after the day on which the licensee is served with the notice. 

(3) For the purposes of subsection 8 (2) of the Act, the prescribed time within which the person who was the applicant or 
licensee may request a rehearing by the director is 10 days after the day on which the person is served with the notice. 

(4) For the purposes of subsection 10 (1) of the Act, the prescribed time within which the applicant or licensee may appeal 
the director's decision to the Tribunal is 15 days after the day on which the person receives notice of the decision. 

Conditions of licences 

9. It is a condition of every licence issued under the Act, that the licensee, 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 625 



(a) comply with the Act, this Regulation and every order or direction of a director or an inspector made under the Act; and 

(b) ensure that the operation of the licensee's meat plant is carried on in accordance with this Regulation and every order 
or direction of a director or inspector made under the Act. 

Transfer of licences 

10. (1) Except as provided in this section, a licence is subject to the condition that it is not transferable. 

(2) If a licensee who carries on business as a sole proprietor transfers the business to a corporation, of which the person is 
the only officer, director and shareholder, the corporation is entitled to have the licence transferred to it. 

(3) If a licensee who carries on business as a sole proprietor transfers the business to a related person or a group of related 
persons, the related person or the group as a partnership, as the case may be, are entitled to have the licence transferred to 
them. 

(4) In subsection (3), 

"related person", with respect to a licensee, means a spouse, child, parent, grandparent, grandchild of the licensee. 

(5) If a licensee that carries on business as a partnership transfers the business to a corporation, of which the partners are 
the only officers, directors and shareholders, the corporation is entitled to have the licence transferred to it. 

(6) If a licensee that carries on business as a partnership transfers the business to one of the partners who carries it on as a 
sole proprietorship, the sole proprietor is entitled to have the licence transferred to him or her. 

(7) If a licensee that is a corporation transfers its business to another corporation and the officers, directors and 
shareholders of the licensee are the only officers, directors and shareholders of the new corporation, the new corporation is 
entitled to have the licence transferred to it. 

(8) If a licensee that is a corporation, of which the only officer, director and shareholder is the same person, and the 
licensee transfers its business to that person who carries it on a sole proprietorship, the sole proprietor is entitled to have the 
licence transferred to him or her. 

(9) If a licensee that is a corporation transfers its business to a partnership and the officers, directors and shareholders of 
the licensee are the only partners, the partnership is entitled to have the licence transferred to it. 

(10) Despite anything in this section, an applicant is not entitled to the transfer of a licence if the apphcant would not be 
entitled to the issuance of a licence for any ground under section 5 of the Act and the regulations. 

(11) To apply for a transfer of a licence, an applicant shall submit an application to a director in a form approved by the 
director. 

(12) The director shall consider the application and, 

(a) approve it if the applicant is not disentitled to the transfer of the licence and pays the fee, if any, required by a 
regulation made by the Minister under clause 52 (a) of the Act; or 

t 

(b) refuse it if the applicant is not entitled to the transfer of the licence and serve a written notice of refusal on the 
applicant. 

(13) A licence transferred under this section is subject to whatever conditions the regulations prescribe or a director 
imposes and a director may impose those conditions. 

(14) Sections 9 and 10 of the Act apply to the conditions that a director imposes under subsection (13). 
Expiry of licences 

11. (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a licence expires on March 31 next following the date of its issuance or 
renewal. 

(2) A licence that was issued under the Meat Inspection Act (Ontario) immediately before this section comes into force 
with an expiry date of March 3 1 , 2006 shall be continued as a licence to operate a slaughter plant issued under the Food 
Safety and Qi4ality Act, 2001 until that date, unless the licence is surrendered, suspended or revoked before that date. 

(3) An application for the renewal of a licence made to the Director on or before March 31, 2005 under the Meat 
Inspection Act (Ontario) on which the Director has not made a decision to renew or to refijse to renew the licence under that 
Act at the time this section comes into force shall be continued as an application to a director for the renewal of a licence 
under the Food Safety and Quality Act, 2001 and the applicant shall be deemed to hold a licence under the Act until the 
director under the Act makes a decision on the application to renew or to refuse to renew a licence. 

(4) For the purposes of subsection 6 (6) of the Act, the prescribed time is 60 days before the licence expires. 
Information provided to director 

12. (1) No person shall make an alteration in a meat plant unless the operator of the plant has given written notice of the 
proposed alteration to a director at least 30 days before making the alteration. 

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626 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE /LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(2) In this section, 

"alteration", with respect to a meat plant, means, 

(a) a change for which a building permit is required, 

(b) any other significant change to the plant or its premises, facilities or equipment, or 

(c) a significant change in the licensed activities that are carried on at the plant or the manner in which the activities are 
carried on. 

(3) The notice mentioned in subsection (I) shall be in a form approved by a director and shall contain, 

(a) the name and address of the operator of the plant; 

(b) the address of the plant; 

(c) the name and address of the owner of the plant, if different than that of the operator; 

(d) a description of the proposed alteration and the nature of the licensed activities to be carried out at the location that 
would be affected by the alteration; 

(e) if the proposed alteration involves a change to the premises, facilities or equipment at the plant, the plans and 
specifications, if any, concerning the changes; and 

(f) any other information that a director requires be included with the notice in order to determine if the proposed change 
complies with this Regulation. 

PART IV 
PREMISES, FACILITIES AND EQUIPMENT OF MEAT PLANTS 

Responsibility of operator 

13. The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that it complies with this Part. 
Location 

14. (I) A meat plant shall be situated on land that, 

(a) is readily accessible; 

(b) provides or permits good drainage; 

(c) is free of debris, refuse and other conditions that may interfere with its hygienic operation or contaminate carcasses, 
parts of carcasses or meat products; and 

(d) does not provide a harbour for pests. 

(2) A meat plant shall not be located in close proximity to any place where, 

(a) activities are performed that are incompatible with the hygienic operation of the plant; or 

(b) things or conditions exist that are likely to contaminate carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products at the plant. 
Design 

15. (1) A meat plant shall be designed, constructed and equipped in a manner that, 

(a) facilitates the hygienic operation of the plant, the hygienic slaughter of food animals and the hygienic processing, 
packaging, labelling, handling and storing of carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products; 

(b) allows for inspectors to effectively perform their functions and duties; 

(c) accommodates the separation of incompatible activities; 

(d) allows good manufacturing practices to be followed; 

(e) facilitates the humane handling of food animals; 

(f) protects against the entry of birds, other than those intended for slaughter, and against insects, rodents or other pests 
likely to contaminate carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products; and 

(g) allows the plant to be operated in compliance with this Regulation. 

(2) A room or space intended to be used as sleeping or living quarters shall not form part of or open directly into a meat 
plant. 

(3) A meat plant shall have enough rooms or areas to accommodate the separation of incompatible activities. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



627 



(4) The rooms of a meat plant described in Column 1 of the following Table shall be designed to ensure that products flow 
in a single direction, from raw to finished state, if the plant is in operation on or after the date set out opposite it in Column 2: 



TABLE 
DATE OF PHASE-IN 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Type of Meat Plant 


Date of Phase-In 


slaughter plant 


June 1,2005 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2006 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 
500,000 kilograms but no more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2007 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of no more than 
500,000 kilograms or did not process 
meat products 


October 1,2007 



(5) All external openings of a meat plant shall be screened to prevent the entry of insçcts and other pests likely to 
contaminate carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products. 

Construction materials 

16. (1) A meat plant shall be soundly constructed of materials that are suitable for their intended purpose, durable, and 
free of constituents that are likely to contaminate carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products at the plant. 

(2) The floors, ceilings, doors and walls of rooms or areas in a meat plant shall be made of hard, corrosion-resistant, 
smooth material that is constructed to enable effective cleaning and that is impervious to moisture at locations where, 

(a) food animals are slaughtered or carcasses are dressed; 

(b) carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products are received, processed, packaged, labelled, shipped, stored or otherwise 
handled; 

(c) inedible materials or refuse are handled or stored; 

(d) washroom facilities are located; and 

(e) salted hides are stored, if the room is located in a building where food animals are slaughtered or carcasses, parts of 
carcasses or meat products are processed, packaged, labelled, handled or stored. 

(3) In a meat plant described in Column 1 of the following Table, the floors in the killing room and the rooms or areas of 
the plant where carcasses are dressed and carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products or ingredients are received, processed, 
packaged, labelled, shipped, handled or stored, other than rooms or areas where only dry products are stored, shall be joined 
to the walls with leakproof coved joints, if the plant is in operation on or after the date set out opposite it in Column 2: 

TABLE 
DATE OF PHASE-IN 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Type of Meat Plant 


Date of Phase-In 


slaughter plant 


June 1,2005 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2006 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 
500,000 kilograms but no more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2007 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of no more than 
500,000 kilograms or did not process 
meat products 


October 1,2007 



Lighting 

17. (1) A meat plant shall be equipped with adequate lighting that, 



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628 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(a) meets the minimum levels of illumination set out in Column 2 of the following Table opposite the rooms or areas of 
the plant described in Column I ; and 

(b) does not distort the colour or other appearance of food animals, carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products or 
ingredients. 

TABLE 
MINIMUM LEVELS OF ILLUMINATION 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Rooms or Areas of Meat Plant 


Minimum Level of 
Illumination 


Inspection stations and plant inspection 

sites 


800 lux 


Ante mortem inspection stations 


540 lux 


All rooms and areas where meat products 
and ingredients are stored in dry storage, 
refrigeration facilities or freezing 
facilities 


110 lux 


Killing room and rooms and areas where 
carcasses are dressed or where meat 
products are processed, packaged or 
labelled 


220 lux 


All rooms and areas, such as 
maintenance closets, where there are no 
meat products 


110 lux 



(2) Rooms and areas of a meat plant where carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products, ingredients or packaging materials 
are exposed, shall be equipped with light bulbs and fixtures that, 

(a) do not cause contamination of the carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products, ingredients or packaging materials 
during their normal operation; and 

(b) can be readily and effectively cleaned. 
Temperature, ventilation and plumbing systems 

18. (I) A meat plant shall be equipped with heating, cooling, ventilation and plumbing systems that are adequate to meet 
the requirements of the activities carried out at the plant and that are designed and constructed to facilitate their effective 
cleaning. 

(2) In addition to subsection (1), a slaughter plant shall have adequate heating and ventilation to ailow inspectors at 
inspection stations in the killing room to work in a comfortable environment. 

(3) All sinks and drains in a meat plant shall be properly equipped and maintained to prevent any odours or fumes from 
them from entering any room where carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products are processed, packaged, labelled, stored 
or otherwise handled. 

Drainage and sewage systems 

19. (1) A meat plant shall have an effective system for waste and effluent removal and disposal. 

(2) A meat plant shall have drainage and sewage systems that are equipped with traps and vents, that are capable of 
handling all waste and that segregate the effluent of human waste from other waste. 

(3) The drainage and sewage systems shall be located, designed and constructed to prevent the contamination of meat 
products and the plant's potable water supply. 

(4) A meat plant shall be equipped with a catch basin, grease trap or interceptor for the purpose of separating solid matter 
from effluent. 

(5) In the case of a slaughter plant, the catch basin, grease trap or interceptor shall be located in the inedible materials 
room of the plant only. 

Receiving and sliipping facilities 

20. (I) A meat plant shall have facilities for receiving and shipping carcasses, meat products, ingredients and packaging 
materials that are adequate for the volume of carcasses, meat products, ingredients and packaging materials that are received 
and shipped and the size of the conveyances used in the receiving and shipping. 

(2) The receiving and shipping facilities at a meat plant shall be designed and constructed in a manner that facilitates the 
hygienic handling of carcasses, meat products, ingredients and packaging materials. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



629 



(3) A slaughter plant shall have separate facilities, including a separate shipping door in the inedible materials room for 
shipping inedible materials. 

Facilities for inspectors 

I 21. (1) A slaughter plant that requires ante mortem or post mortem inspections on three days or more per week on average 
shall have the following facilities and services: 

1. A locker or cabinet for each inspector that is capable of being locked, that is for the exclusive use of only one inspector 
at a time, that has a minimum volume of 0.62 cubic metres and that is suitable for the protection and storage of the 
inspector's equipment and supplies. 

2. If an inspector carries out post mortem inspections, access for the inspector to an inspection station that is located in 
the killing room in order to carry out post mortem inspections and that is acceptable to a regional veterinarian. 

3. Access to a furnished office that is for the exclusive use of inspectors, that is located in an appropriate area of the plant 
and that has a minimum work surface measuring 0.508 metres by 1.1 18 metres, heating, lighting, ventilation and an 
electrical outlet, together with a telephone line and telephone for the exclusive use of inspectors. 

(2) In addition to the requirements set out in subsection (1), a slaughter plant that, on or after April 1, 2006, requires post 
mortem or ante mortem inspections on five days per week in a normal work week shall provide washroom facilities that are 
for the exclusive use of inspectors, that are equipped with a toilet and that comply with paragraphs 1 to 6 of subsection 27 

(2). 

(3) A slaughter plant that requires ante mortem or post mortem inspections on fewer than three days per week on average 
shall have the following facilities and services: 

1. A locker or cabinet for each inspector that is capable of being locked, that is for the exclusive use of only one inspector 
at a time, that has a minimum volume of 0.62 cubic metres and that is suitable for the protection and storage of the 
inspector's equipment and supplies. 

2. If an inspector carries out post mortem inspections, access for the inspector to an inspection station that is located in 
the killing room in order to carry out post mortem inspections and that is acceptable to a regional veterinarian. 

3. Access for inspectors to a workstation and telephone line acceptable to a regional veterinarian. 

(4) A freestanding meat plant described in Column I of the following Table shall have a locker or cabinet for each 
inspector that is capable of being locked, that is for the exclusive use of only one inspector at a time, that has a minimum 
volume of 0.62 cubic metres and that is suitable for the protection and storage of the inspector's equipment and supplies if the 
plant is in operation on or after the date set out opposite it in Column 2: 

TABLE 
DATE OF PHASE-IN 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Type of Freestanding Meat Plant 


Date of Phase-In 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2006 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 
500,000 kilograms but no more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2007 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of no more than 
500,000 kilograms or did not process 
meat products 


October 1,2007 



(5) A freestanding meat plant shall provide, to inspectors, access to a workstation and telephone line acceptable to a 
regional veterinarian. 

(6) In addition to the other requirements set out in this section, every meat plant shall have facilities for inspectors that are 
adequate to allow for the effective performance of the inspection activities carried on at the plant. 

Storage facilities 

22. ( 1 ) A slaughter plant shall have a separate dry storage room. 

(2) A slaughter plant shall have a separate room and facilities for processing, packaging, labelling or storing inedible 
material, other than inedible material that is intended for pharmaceutical, research or therapeutic purposes or intended for use 
in pet food. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(3) A slaughter plant shall have a separate room and facilities for processing, packaging and labelling inedible material 
that is intended for pharmaceutical, research or therapeutic purposes, if processing, packaging or labelling the material for 
any of those purposes is likely to contaminate meat products at the plant, or intended for use in pet food. 

(4) A freestanding meat plant shall have a separate room or area for processing, packaging, labelling or storing inedible 
material. 

Cleaning and sanitizing facilities 

23. ( 1 ) A meat plant shall be equipped with adequate facilities to permit effective cleaning and sanitizing of rooms, 
equipment and utensils. 

(2) A meat plant described in Column 1 of the following Table shall have a water sanitizer that complies with subsection 
(3) or an effective chemical sanitizer in the killing room and any room where carcasses are dressed and carcasses, parts of 
carcasses or meat products are processed, if utensils are used in the room and if the plant is in operation on or af\er the date 
set out opposite it in Column 2: 

TABLE 
DATE OF PHASE-IN 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Type of Meat Plant 


Date of Phase-In 


slaughter plant 


June 1,2005 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2006 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 
500,000 kilograms but no more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2007 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of no more than 
500,000 kilograms or did not process 
meat products 


October 1,2007 



(3) A water sanitizer shall, 

(a) have a continuous supply of potable water and continuous overflow; and 

(b) be capable of being maintained at a temperature of not less than 82 degrees Celsius. 
Slaughter facilities for birds 

24. (1) A slaughter plant in which birds are slaughtered shall have facilities for, 

(a) receiving and housing birds; 

(b) effective cleaning and disinfecting of crates and containers used for the conveyance of birds other than ratites; 

(c) slaughtering birds; 

(d) scalding carcasses, other than ratite carcasses, using equipment with overflow outlets of sufficient size to prevent 
clogging and discharging into or close to drains; 

(e) plucking carcasses, other than carcasses of ratites; 

(f) plucking or skinning the carcasses of ratites, if the plant slaughters ratites; 

(g) washing carcasses using water spray equipment with sufficient water pressure to clean them; 

(h) dressing carcasses; 

(i) holding in a rack carcasses, other than ratite carcasses, and holding on a rail ratite carcasses that an order made under 
section 81 requires the operator of the plant to hold; 

(j) washing carcasses using water spray equipment with sufficient water pressure to clean them; and 

(k) refrigerating and storing dressed or partially dressed carcasses. 

(2) The facilities shall be laid out so that the activities described in subsection ( 1 ) take place in the order set out in that 
subsection. 

Slaughter facilities for rabbits 

25. (I) A slaughter plant in which rabbits are slaughtered shall have facilities for. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 631 



(a) receiving and housing live rabbits; 

(b) effective cleaning and disinfecting of crates and containers used for the conveyance of live rabbits; 

(c) slaughtering rabbits; 

(d) washing carcasses using water spray equipment with sufficient water pressure to clean them; 

(e) dressing carcasses; 

(f) holding in a rack carcasses that an order made under section 81 requires the operator of the plant to hold; 

(g) washing carcasses using water spray equipment with sufficient water pressure to clean them; and 

(h) refrigerating and storing dressed carcasses. 

(2) The facilities shall be laid out so that the activities described in subsection (1) take place in the order set out in that 
subsection. 

Slaughter facilities for other food animals 

26. (1) A slaughter plant in which food animals other than birds or rabbits are slaughtered shall have the following 
facilities: 

1 . Receiving facilities for food animals. 

2. Pens for housing food animals before slaughter. 

3. One or more killing rooms. 

4. A restraining box or cradle in the killing room. 

5. A room or area for the dressing of carcasses, which may be part of the killing rooms. 

6. Head inspection racks or hooks. 

7. Subject to subsection (3), a viscera truck or table. 

8. Facilities for washing carcasses using water spray equipment with sufficient water pressure to clean them. 

9. Facilities for refrigerating and storing dressed carcasses. 

10. A rail for holding carcasses that an order made under section 8 1 requires the operator of the plant to hold. 

(2) The facilities shall be laid out so that the activities described in subsection (1) take place in the order set out in that 
subsection. 

(3) If a regional veterinarian is of the opinion that the volume of food animals slaughtered at a slaughter plant is so small 
that a viscera truck or table is not necessary, the regional veterinarian may by order, determine that the plant is not required to 
have a viscera truck or table, subject to the terms and conditions, if any, contained in the order. 

(4) A slaughter plant in which veal calves are slaughtered shall be equipped with a device located at a spot in the killing 
room sufficiently close to where the carcasses are eviscerated that the carcass can be weighed immediately after evisceration. 

(5) In subsection (4), 

"device" means a device approved for use in trade in accordance with the Weights and Measures Act (Canada). 
Washroom and other facilities 

27. (I) A meat plant shall have at least one washroom facility that meets the requirements of subsection (2). 
(2) Each washroom facility at a meat plant shall meet the following requirements: 

1 . It shall be capable of being kept clean and sanitary. 

2. It shall be lit, heated and ventilated to the outside of the plant. 

3. It shall be separate from and shall not lead directly into any room where carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products 
are prepared, packaged, labelled, refrigerated, stored or otherwise handled. 

4. It shall be enclosed by floor to ceiling walls and full-length self-closing doors. 

5. It shall be equipped with hand washing facilities that are remote functioning or timed, and be equipped with soap and 
single-use paper towel dispensers. 

6. It shall have notices instructing users to clean their hands with soap and water immediately after using toilets. 

7. Subject to subsection (5), if applicable, it shall be equipped with at least one toilet. 



i 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(3) Subsections (4) and (5) apply lo a meat plant described in Column 1 of the following Table only if the plant is in 
operation on or after the date set out opposite it in Column 2: 

TABLE 
DATE OF PHASE-IN 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Type of Meat Plant 


Date of Phase-In 


slaughter plant 


April 1,2006 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2006 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 
500,000 kilograms but no more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2007 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of no more than 
500,000 kilograms or did not process 
meat products 


October 1,2007 



(4) A meat plant shall have separate washroom facilities to serve each sex of persons at the plant unless there are no more 
than nine persons at the plant or the total area of the plant, excluding the basement, is no more than 300 square metres, in 
which case the plant may have only one washroom facility if it is for the use of all persons at the plant. 

(5) A meat plant shall be equipped with at least the number of toilets for each sex that are specified in Column 2 to the 
following Table opposite the number of persons of each sex specified in Column 1 at the plant. 

TABLE 
MINIMUM NUMBER OF TOILETS FOR EACH SEX 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Number of Persons of 
Each Sex at the Plant 


Minimum Number of Toilets for 
Each Sex 


Fewer than 10 


1 


10 to 24 


2 


25 to 49 


3 


50 to 74 


4 


75 to 100 


5 


More than 100 


6 plus 1 for each additional 
increment of 30 persons of each sex 
in excess of 100 



(6) A meat plant shall have, 

(a) hand washing facilities that are remote functioning or timed, in the killing room and rooms or areas where carcasses 
are dressed; and 

(b) directly drained hand washing facilities that are remote controlled or timed, in rooms or areas where meat products are 
processed or handled. 

(7) Washroom facilities and hand washing facilities at a meat plant shall be accessible to inspectors. 

(8) In this section, 

"person at a meat plant" includes the operator of the plant and the operator's employees at the plant. 

Dressing areas 

28. (1) A meat plant described in Column 1 of the following Table shall have a dressing room or area for employees who 
are required to work with carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products if the plant is in operation on or after the date set out 
opposite it in Column 2: 

TABLE 
DATE OF PHASE-IN 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Type of Meat Plant 


Date of Phase-In 


slaughter plant 


April 1,2006 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 


April 1,2006 



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633 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Type of Meat Plant 


Date of Phase-In 


processed meat products of more than 1 
million kilograms 




freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 
500,000 kilograms but no more than 1 
million kilograms 


April 1,2007 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of no more than 
500,000 kilograms or did not process 
meat products 


October 1,2007 



» 



» 



(2) In addition to subsection (1), a slaughter plant that is in operation on or after April I, 2006 shall have a dressing room 
or area for the exclusive use of persons, other than an inspector, who work with food animals at the slaughter plant. 

(3) The dressing rooms or areas mentioned in subsections (I) and (2) shall be capable of being kept clean and sanitary and 
shall be lit, heated and ventilated. 

Animal pens and crates 

29. ( I ) A slaughter plant shall have a separate area equipped with pens or capable of accommodating crates for, 

(a) the separate housing and inspection of incompatible species and classes within species of food animals; 

(b) food animals considered to be a danger to other food animals; 

(c) food animals that are injured or ill; 

(d) food animals that the operator of the plant condemns under section 66 or is required to condemn under section 65 or by 
an order made under section 64; and 

(e) food animals that an order made under clause 69 (2) (a) or 70 (I) (b) or (4) (b) requires the operator of the plant to 
hold. 

(2) A slaughter plant shall be equipped for, 

(a) restraining food animals for detailed inspection; 

(b) conveying ill, injured or disabled food animals in a humane manner; and 

(c) euthanizing food animals that have been identified as condemned in accordance with Part VIII. 

(3) Floors, ramps, gangways, chutes, pens and crates used for food animals in a slaughter plant shall be, 

(a) free from sharp projections or obstructions that may injure the food animals; 

(b) constructed and maintained so as to provide safe footing for the food animals; 

(c) constructed so that they may be maintained in a clean, dry and sanitary condition; 

(d) provided with good drainage; 

(e) adequately ventilated and lit; and 

(f) maintained in a clean, dry and sanitary condition. 

(4) In addition to subsection (3), a pen or crate used for food animals in a slaughter plant shall be designed, constructed 
and located so that inspectors, 

(a) have ready access to the pen or crate; 

(b) are readily able to view each animal in the pen, in the case of a pen; and 

(c) are readily able to view the food animals that are held in any group of crates, in the case of a crate. 

(5) In addition to subsections (3) and (4), a crate used for rabbits and birds other than ratites in a slaughter plant shall be, 

(a) designed and constructed to prevent the protrusion of an animal from the crate; 

(b) adequately ventilated; 

(c) located in an area with adequate lighting; and 

(d) capable of being cleaned and disinfected. 
Refrigeration facilities 

30. ( I ) A meat plant shall have, 



É 



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634 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(a) refrigeration or freezing facilities adequate for the rapid cooling of carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products 
immediately after slaughter; 

(b) refrigeration facilities adequate for the safe refrigeration and storage of carcasses, parts of carcasses and those meat 
products that require refrigeration; 

(c) freezing facilities adequate for the safe freezing and storage of meat products that require freezing; and 

(d) a separate area with refrigeration or freezing facilities for storage of carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products 
that are detained under the Act or storage of carcasses and parts of carcasses that an order made under section 8 1 
requires the operator of the plant to hold. 

(2) Coolers at a meat plant shall be adequate to ensure that carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products from different 
species of food animals are stored without coming into contact with each other. 

(3) Coolers and the killing room at a meat plant shall be equipped with rails of a sufficient height to ensure that carcasses, 
parts of carcasses and meat products do not come into contact with the floor. 

(4) A meat plant shall be equipped with, 

(a) effective systems for establishing, maintaining and verifying the temperature in rooms and areas where carcasses, parts 
of carcasses or meat products are received, packaged, labelled, shipped, stored or otherwise handled, if the systems are 
necessary to ensure that the carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products do not deteriorate in the rooms and areas; 
and 

(b) effective systems for establishing, maintaining and verifying the temperature of rooms and areas of the plant where 
carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products are processed or are refrigerated or frozen. 

(5) Every room in a meat plant where pork products are frozen for destruction of Thchinella spiralis or meat products are 
frozen to destroy parasites shall contain a self recording temperature indicating device that is calibrated and maintained in 
proper working order. 

(6) Every piece of equipment or room in a meat plant where meat products packed in hermetically sealed containers are 
incubated shall contain a self recording temperature indicating device that is calibrated and maintained in proper working 
order. 

Equipment 

31. (1) Equipment used in a meat plant shall be designed, constructed, located, installed, calibrated, maintained and 
operated in a manner that facilitates the sanitary operation of the plant and the hygienic processing, packaging, labelling, 
storing, handling and testing of carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products. 

(2) Equipment and utensils that are used on carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products in rooms or areas of a meat plant 
where carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products are received, processed, packaged, labelled, shipped, stored or otherwise 
handled shall meet the following requirements: 

1 . They shall be effective for their intended purpose. 

2. They shall be constructed of corrosion resistant materials that, 

i. are free of constituents that are likely to contaminate carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products, and 
ii. do not transmit odour or taste. 

3. They shall be capable of withstanding repeated cleaning and sanitizing. 

4. They shall be accessible for cleaning, servicing and inspection or easily disassembled for those purposes. 

(3) Food contact surfaces in a meat plant shall be, 

(a) non absorbent, unaffected by food and free of constituents that are likely to contaminate or otherwise adversely affect 
the quality of carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products and ingredients; 

(b) designed and constructed in a manner and using materials that minimize the adherence of food; 

(c) smooth and free from pitting, cracks or chipping; 

(d) free of sharp internal angles, comers in which a meat product or part of a meat product could be trapped, crevices and 
unnecessary ridges or indentations; and 

(e) capable of withstanding repeated cleaning and sanitizing. 

(4) Equipment used at a meat plant to cook, heat, treat, refrigerate or freeze a carcass, part of a carcass or a meat product 
shall be designed and maintained so that it is capable of achieving any conditions or temperatures that are required by this 
Regulation for cooking, heating, treating, refrigerating or freezing the carcass, part of a carcass or meat product. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 635 

(5) A slaughter plant shall have appropriate equipment at the plant for, 

(a) the hygienic collecting, conveying, storing, handling and disposal of inedible material; and 

(b) the hygienic processing, packaging and labelling of inedible material that is intended for use in pet food, animal food 
or for pharmaceutical, research or therapeutic purposes. 

PARTY 
WATER USED IN MEAT PLANTS 

Drinking-water system 

32. (1 ) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that it has a system to supply the plant with potable hot and cold running 
water that is protected against contamination. 

(2) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that the plant has a water-sampling tap installed in an accessible location in 
the plumbing of the plant that is, 

(a) at or near where the water from the drinking-water system enters the plant; 

(b) upstream from all other plumbing fixtures; and 

(c) acceptable to an inspector. 

(3) The operator shall ensure that the water-sampling tap is only used for sampling the water. 

(4) The operator shall ensure that the plant has a back-flow prevention device installed immediately downstream of the 
water-sampling tap to prevent water from the plant's plumbing from re-entering the drinking-water system. 

Non-potable water system 

33. In addition to a drinking-water system, a meat plant may be supplied with a system of non-potable water if, 

(a) the system is not connected to a drinking-water system; 

(b) the piping of the system is identified by markings that are permanent, distinct and easily recognized; and 

(c) no outlet from the system is located where it can discharge into, 

(i) a sink or lavatory, 

(ii) a fixture into which an outlet from a drinking-water system is discharged, or 

(iii) a fixture that is used for a purpose related to the processing, packaging, labelling, storing or other handling of 
carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products or ingredients. 

Standards Tor water used 

34. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that all water used at the plant is, 

(a) potable, subject to subsection (4); 

(b) adequate in quantity and pressure to serve the needs of the plant; 

(c) stored and distributed in a manner that prevents the contamination of the water; and 

(d) monitored to ensure that the temperature is appropriate for the activity for which the water is used. 

(2) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that all ice used at the plant is, 

(a) made with potable water; 

(b) free of toxic substances; and 

(c) stored and handled in a manner that prevents the contamination of the ice. 

(3) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that all steam used at the plant that may come into contact with a carcass, a 
part of a carcass, a meat product, an ingredient, packaging material or a food contact surface is, 

(a) generated from potable water; 

(b) freeof toxic substances; and ' 

(c) adequate in pressure to serve the needs of the plant. 

(4) Non-potable water may be used at a meat plant if it is used, 

(a) exclusively for fire protection, boilers or auxiliary services not related to carrying on licensed activities at the plant; 
and 



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636 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(b) in a manner thai will not contaminate a carcass, a part of a carcass, a meat product or an ingredient, except if it is used 
for fire protection. 

Testing by applicant for licence 

35. (1) Subject to subsection (4), when applying for a licence to operate a meat plant, a person shall have the water of the 
plant's drinking-water system tested in accordance with this section to determine if the water meets the microbiological 
standards set out in Schedule 1 to Ontario Regulation 1 69/03 (Ontario Drinking- Water Quality Standards) made under the 
Safe Drinking Water Act. 2002. 

(2) The tests shall be conducted, 

(a) by a person who holds a drinking-water testing licence within the meaning of the Safe Drinking Water Act, 2002 and at 
the laboratory specified in the licence; or 

(b) at a laboratory located outside Ontario that is an eligible laboratory under subsection 1 1 (4) of the Safe Drinking Water 
Act. 2002. 

(3) The applicant for a licence to operate a meat plant shall provide the person doing the testing with samples of water at 
the plant taken at a location in the plumbing of the plant that is downstream of the water-sampling tap that subsection 32 (2) 
requires. 

(4) An applicant for a licence to operate a meat plant is not required to have the water of the plant's drinking-water system 
tested under subsection ( 1 ) if, 

(a) a licensee has operated the meat plant at any time in the 30 days before the day on which the applicant applied for a 
licence; and 

(b) a director is satisfied in the circumstances that it is not necessary to have the testing done and so advises the applicant. 
Testing by inspector 

36. (1) An inspector may, at the risk and expense of the operator of a meat plant, take samples of the drinking water 
supplied to or used at the plant and have the samples tested to detennine if the water meets the standards prescribed as the 
drinking-water quality standards for the purpose of the Safe Drinking Water Act. 2002. 

(2) The tests shall be conducted, 

(a) by a person who holds a drinking-water testing licence within the meaning of the Safe Drinking Water Act, 2002 and at 
the laboratory specified in the licence; or 

(b) at a laboratory located outside Ontario that is an eligible laboratory under subsection 1 1 (4) of the Safe Drinking Water 

Act, 2002. 

Disinfection of water 

37. (I) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that all drinking water used at the plant that is not from any of the 
sources described in subsection (2) is disinfected using water disinfection equipment that is designed and constructed to be 
capable of producing water that meets the standards prescribed as the drinking-water quality standards for the purpose of the 
Safe Drinking Water Act, 2002. 

(2) The sources mentioned in subsection (I) are, 

(a) a large municipal residential system or a small municipal residential system, as those terms are defined in subsection I 
(1) of Ontario Regulation 170/03 (Drinking-Water Systems) made under the Safe Drinking Water Act, 2002; and 

(b) a large municipal non-residential system, a small municipal non-residential system, a non-municipal year-round 
residential system, a non-municipal seasonal residential system, a large non-municipal non-residential system or a 
small non-municipal non-residential system, as those terms are defined in subsection I (1) of Ontario Regulation 
170/03 (Drinking-Water Systems) made under the Safe Drinking Water Act, 2002, if the owner and operating authority 
of the system provides and operates treatment equipment in accordance with sections 2-2 to 2-6 of Schedule 2 to that 
regulation. 

(3) If drinking water supplied to a meat plant is from a system described in subsection (2), the owner of the system shall, 
upon request of a director, provide to the director any of the information that section 1 2 of Ontario Regulation 1 70/03 
(Drinking-Water Systems) made under the Safe Drinking Water Act, 2002 requires the owner to make available for 
inspection. 

Order for remedial steps 

38. (1) In accordance with section 32 of the Act, if drinking water used in a meat plant does not meet a standard 
prescribed as a drinking-water quality standard for the purpose of the Safe Drinking Water Act. 2002, an inspector may order 
the operator of the plant to take the steps that are necessary to ensure that the water meets the standard, including installing at 
the plant effective water disinfection or water treatment equipment. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 637 



(2) If the medical officer of health has directed the operator of a meat plant to take steps under section 2 of Ontario 
Regulation 169/03 (Ontario Drinking- Water Quality Standards) made under the Safe Drinking Water Act, 2002, the steps that 
an inspector orders under subsection (1) shall be in addition to the steps that the medical officer of health directs. 

Operation of equipment 

39. The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that any water disinfection or water treatment equipment used at the plant is 
operated and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. 

Notice of remedial steps 

40. If the owner of a drinking-water system or the operating authority for the system under Schedule 17 or 18 to Ontario 
Regulation 170/03 (Drinking- Water Systems) made under the Safe Drinking Water Act. 2002 has notified the operator of a 
meat plant to use an alternate source of drinking water or to bring water to a rapid rolling boil for at least one minute before 
use, the operator of the meat plant shall immediately inform an inspector, if an inspector is on-site, and the regional 
veterinarian. 

Re-use of water 

41. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that no water is re-used at the plant unless a regional veterinarian is 
satisfied that the re-use of the water will not contaminate carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products, ingredients or 
packaging materials at the plant and has approved the re-use in writing. 

(2) The regional veterinarian can attach conditions to an approval given under subsection ( 1 ) if the conditions relate to 
avoiding having the re-use of water contaminate carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products, ingredients or packaging 
materials at the plant and the operator shall comply with the conditions. 

(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to container cooling water that meets the requirements of clause 99 (4) (I). 

(4) If a regional veterinarian provides written approval to re-use water at the plant, the re-used water may be non-potable, 
despite section 34, if the regional veterinarian is satisfied that using non-potable water will not contaminate carcasses, parts 
of carcasses, meat products, ingredients or packaging materials at the plant and indicates in the approval that the re-used 
water may be non-potable. 

PART VI 
OPERATION OF MEAT PLANTS 

Operation 

42. The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that it is operated and maintained in a manner that, 

(a) facilitates the hygienic operation of the plant, the hygienic slaughter of food animals and the hygienic processing, 
packaging, labelling, handling and storing of carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products; and 

(b) allows for inspectors to effectively perform their functions and duties. 
Living or sleeping quarters 

43. No person shall use, as living or sleeping quarters, any room or area that forms part of or opens directly into a meat 
plant. 

Presence of other animals 

44. (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (4), no person shall permit any animal, other than a food animal that is to be 
slaughtered or euthanized in accordance with this Regulation, to be in any room or area of the meat plant. 

(2) A service dog serving as a guide for a blind person or for a person with another medical disability who requires the use 
of the dog as a guide is permitted to be in an area of the meat plant, 

(a) where food is served, sold or offered for sale to consumers; or 

(b) that does not contain food animals and that is not used for the receiving, processing, packaging, labelling, shipping, 
handling or storing of carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products. 

(3) For the purposes of subsection (2), a dog is a service dog for a person with a medical disability if, 

(a) it is readily apparent to an average person that the dog functions as a guide for the person; or 

(b) the person can provide, on request, a letter from a physician or nurse confirming that the person requires the use of the 
dog as a guide. 

(4) The operator of a meat plant may keep one or more guard animals on the plant premises if the operator ensures that, 

(a) the guard animals are not permitted to enter the plant buildings or any other area of the premises that contains food 
animals or where carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products or ingredients are processed, packaged, labelled, handled 
or stored; and 

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638 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(b) the guard animals are kept under appropriate restraints, so that their presence at the premises does not intimidate or 
otherwise impede inspectors from gaining access to plant facilities and operations or effectively performing their 
functions and duties under the Act and this Regulation. 

Premises and equipment 

45. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that the premises, equipment and utensils of the plant are maintained in 
good repair, in such a way as to minimize the risk of contamination of carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products at the 
plant. 

(2) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that the facilities, equipment and utensils of the plant are maintained in a 
sanitary condition. 

Maintenance program 

46. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall establish and maintain a written maintenance program for the premises, 
equipment and utensils of the plant. 

(2) The maintenance program shall include, 

(a) effective schedules, procedures and methods for maintaining the premises, equipment and utensils of the plant in good 
repair; and 

(b) effective measures to prevent contamination of the premises, equipment, utensils of the plant and carcasses, parts of 
carcasses, meat products and ingredients at the plant, including effective schedules, procedures and methods for, 

(i) ensuring that meat products are not contaminated, and 

(ii) ensuring the supply of potable water. 

(3) The operator shall ensure that the maintenance program is implemented and complied with. 

(4) The operator shall ensure that the implementation and results of the maintenance program are regularly monitored to 
ensure that the program is complied with and is effective. 

(5) The operator shall ensure that written records of the results of the monitoring mentioned in subsection (4) are made on 
the day of the monitoring. 

(6) The operator shall keep the written records required by subsection (5) at the plant at least until the anniversary of the 
date on which they are made. 

(7) The operator shall make the changes to the maintenance program that are necessary to ensure that it continues to meet 
the requirements of this section. 

Sanitation program 

47. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall establish and maintain a written sanitation program for the premises, equipment 
and utensils of the plant. 

(2) The sanitation program shall include effective measures to prevent contamination of the premises, equipment, utensils 
of the plant and carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products and ingredients at the plant including schedules, procedures and 
measures to ensure the effective cleaning and sanitation of the premises, equipment and utensils of the plant. 

(3) The operator shall ensure that the sanitation program is implemented and complied with. 

(4) The operator shall ensure that implementation and results of the sanitation program are regularly monitored to ensure 
that the program is complied with and is effective. 

(5) The operator shall ensure that written records of the results of the monitoring mentioned in subsection (4) are made on 
the day of the monitoring. 

(6) The operator shall ensure that for each day the plant operates, and before beginning operations on that day, the operator 
or plant employees shall conduct a pre-operational inspection of the premises, equipment and utensils of the plant to ensure 
that the plant complies with its sanitation program. 

(7) The operator shall ensure that written records of the results of each pre-operational inspections mentioned in 
subsection (6) are made at the time of the inspection. 

(8) The operator shall ensure that operations at the plant do not commence until the plant complies with its sanitation 
program. 

(9) The operator shall keep all written records required by subsection (5) or (7) at the plant at least until the anniversary of 
the date on which they are made. 

(10) The operator shall make the changes to the sanitation program that are necessary to ensure that it continues to meet 
the requirements of this section. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 639 



Pest control program 

48. ( 1 ) The operator of a meat plant shall establish and maintain a written pest control program for the premises of the 
plant. 

(2) The pest control program shall include effective measures, including effective schedules, procedures and methods, to 
prevent the contamination, by pests, of the premises, equipment and utensils of the plant and carcasses, parts of carcasses, 
meat products and ingredients at the premises. 

(3) The operator shall ensure that the pest control program is implemented and complied with. 

(4) The operator shall ensure that the implementation and results of the pest control program are regularly monitored to 
ensure that the pest control program is complied with and is effective. 

(5) The operator shall ensure that written records of the results of the monitoring mentioned in subsection (4) are made on 
the day of the monitoring. 

(6) The operator shall keep all written records required by subsection (5) at the plant at least until the anniversary of the 
date on which they are made. 

(7) The operator shall make the changes to the pest control program that are necessary to ensure that it continues to meet 
the requirements of this section. 

Authorized materials 

49. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that the only materials, coatings and chemical agents used in the killing 
room or the rooms or areas of the plant where carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products or ingredients are received, 
processed, packaged, labelled, shipped, stored or otherwise handled are durable and free from constituents that are likely to 
contaminate carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products or ingredients. 

(2) The operator shall ensure that the materials, coatings or chemical agents that are used in the plant are, 

(a) stored separately in their original containers bearing their original labels and in a manner that prevents contamination 
of carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products and ingredients; and 

(b) used in accordance with the manufacturer's directions, by a person trained in their use, and in a manner that prevents 
contamination of carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products and ingredients. 

Cleaning and sanitizing 

50. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that the facilities, equipment and utensils in the killing room or the rooms 
or areas of the plant where carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products or ingredients are processed, packaged, labelled, 
stored or otherwise handled are, as often as is necessary to maintain a hygienic environment and to prevent the contamination 
of food, thoroughly cleaned with hot water and detergent, rinsed with potable water and sanitized. 

(2) If it is necessary to do so to ensure that the carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products or ingredients are not 
contaminated, the operator shall ensure that carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products and ingredients are removed or 
properly protected before the cleaning and sanitizing mentioned in subsection ( 1 ) is done and before maintenance of the 
plant, including the servicing of equipment, is undertaken. 

(3) The operator shall ensure that equipment, utensils and food contact surfaces that have been in contact with 
contaminated material are immediately and effectively cleaned and sanitized. 

(4) The operator shall ensure that the facilities, equipment and utensils mentioned in subsection (1) are effectively cleaned 
and sanitized at the end of each working day or, if there is more than one shift in a working day, at the end of each shift. 

(5) The operator shall ensure that the equipment and utensils mentioned in subsection (1) are cleaned and sanitized in an 
area that is, 

(a) designed and located to prevent the contamination of carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products and ingredients; and 

(b) if it is practicable, is used exclusively for that purpose. 

(6) The operator shall ensure that equipment that is used to collect or convey inedible material within a meat plant is, 

(a) marked to indicate its intended use and not used for any other purpose; 

(b) effectively cleaned and sanitized immediately before leaving the inedible materials room and entering any other area 
of the plant; 

(c) kept in good repair; and 

(d) kept in a storage room or area provided for that purpose. 

(7) The operator shall ensure that a crate or other container used to transport live birds or rabbits to the plant is effectively 
cleaned and sanitized in an appropriate area, 

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640 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(a) before the crate or container leaves the plant, if it is immediately removed from the plant; and 

(b) before the crate or container is moved to any other area of the plant, otherwise. 

(8) The operator shall ensure that any cleaning equipment that is used at the meat plant is handled, maintained and stored 
in a manner that prevents contamination of carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products and ingredients. 

Temperature and humidity of roums 

51. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that no carcass, part of a carcass, meat product or ingredient is kept at the 
plant at a temperature or humidity level that may cause them to deteriorate or become unfit for human consumption. 

(2) Subject to subsection (3), the operator shall not permit the temperature to exceed 10 degrees Celsius in rooms or areas 
of the plant where meat products are processed, packaged, labelled or otherwise handled and where a low temperature is 
required for the preservation of the products. 

(3) If the temperature exceeds 10 degrees Celsius in rooms or areas of the plant where meat products are processed, 
packaged, labelled or otherwise handled and where a low temperature is required for the preservation of the products, the 
operator shall, 

(a) not permit the internal temperature of the products to exceed 10 degrees Celsius; and 

(b) have the rooms or areas and the equipment and utensils used in them effectively cleaned and sanitized every four 
hours. 

(4) If carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products are frozen, the operator shall ensure that the temperature of the freezer 
is maintained at minus 18 degrees Celsius or lower. 

(5) The operator shall ensure that the temperature and humidity of every room at the plant where meat products are 
received, processed, packaged, labelled, shipped, stored or otherwise handled are controlled to prevent the formation of 
condensation on the walls and ceilings of the room and the equipment used in the room. 

Limit on contents of coolers 

52. (1) A regional veterinarian may limit the number of carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products placed in coolers 
at a meat plant so that, 

(a) the temperature required by subsection 83 (6) for refrigeration can be maintained in the coolers; and 

(b) inspectors have reasonable access to them. 

(2) A regional veterinarian who imposes a limit under subsection (1) shall so advise the operator of the plant and the 
operator shall ensure that the number of carcasses and parts of carcasses placed in coolers at the plant do not exceed the limit. 

PART VII 
PERSONNEL AT MEAT PLANTS 

Personal hygiene and clothing 

53. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that every person at the plant engaged in the processing, packaging, 
labelling, handling or storing of a carcass, a part of a carcass or a meat product and any other person who enters a room or 
area of the plant where carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products are processed, packaged, labelled, handled or stored 
keeps their hands clean at all times. 

(2) Without limiting the generality of subsection (1), the operator shall ensure that every person whom that subsection 
requires to keep clean hands washes their hands thoroughly with soap and water, 

(a) after handling any animal; 

(b) after handling or otherwise coming into contact with raw meat products; 

(c) between handling meat products that are incompatible with each other; 

(d) after handling or otherwise coming into contact with chemical agents, pallets or any other substance or thing that is a 
hazard to meat products; 

(e) after handling or otherwise coming into contact with inedible materials or refuse; 

(0 after handling or otherwise coming into contact with containers used for inedible material or refuse; 

(g) before exiting the inedible materials room; 

(h) before exiting a washroom facility; 

(i) each time their hands have been exposed to any other possible sources of contamination; 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 641 



(j) each lime upon entering a room where food animals are slaughtered, where carcasses are dressed, or where carcasses, 
parts of carcasses or meat products are processed, packaged, labelled or handled; and 

(k) each time upon exiting the killing room. 

(3) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that every person at the plant washes and sanitizes hands and gloves before 
handling ready-to-eat meat products and wears those gloves when handling ready-to-eat meat products. 

(4) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that any person who is in any room or area of the plant where a carcass, a part 
of a carcass or a meat product is exposed, 

(a) wears sanitary clothing; 

(b) wears a sanitary hair covering, including a beard covering if applicable, acceptable to a regional veterinarian; 

(c) if the person is wearing gloves, wears gloves that are sound, clean and sanitary; 

(d) keeps ptersonal protective equipment clean and sanitary at all times if the jierson wears that equipment; and 

(e) wears clean footwear and, if necessary to protect carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products from contamination, 
uses a footwear dip to effectively clean and sanitize the footwear. 

(5) No person who is engaged in the processing, packaging, labelling, handling or storing of a carcass, a part of a carcass 
or a meat product at a meat plant shall wear an object or use a substance that might fall into or otherwise contaminate the 
carcass, the part of the carcass or the meat product. 

(6) No person shall chew or consume tobacco, gum or food of any kind, other than water dispensed from a drinking 
fountain, in any pari of a meat plant in which a carcass, a part of a carcass or a meat product is processed, packaged, labelled, 
stored or otherwise handled. 

(7) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that every person at the meat plant who handles or otherwise comes into 
contact with inedible materials washes and sanitizes their hands, utensils and protective equipment afrer handling the 
materials. 

Procedures requiring change of clothing 

54. (1) The operator of a slaughter plant shall establish effective procedures requiring persons who handle food animals, 
raw or ready-to-eat meat products or inedible materials at the plant to change their protective clothing if necessary to ensure 
that carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products at the plant are not contaminated. 

(2) The operator shall ensure that the procedures are implemented and that all persons at the plant comply with them. 

Movement of persons and products 

55. The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that, 

(a) the access of employees and other persons at the meat plant is controlled to minimize the potential for contamination 
of carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products; 

(b) the pattern of employee movement in the normal course of the operation of the plant minimizes the potential for 
contamination of carcasses, parts of carcasses and meat products; and 

(c) the product flow at the plant moves in a single direction, from raw to finished state. 
Persons with diseases 

56. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that, if a person has an infectious disease, an open or infected skin lesion 
or a skin disease and it is likely that it may contaminate carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products or food contact surfaces 
at the plant, the person shall not engage in the slaughter of food animals, the dressing of carcasses or the processing, 
packaging, labelling or handling of carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products at the plant unless the person has the 
written approval of a regional veterinarian under subsection (2) and complies with the conditions of the approval. 

(2) A regional veterinarian may approve a person for engaging in the slaughter of food animals, the dressing of carcasses 
or the processing, packaging, labelling or handling of carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products at a meat plant if satisfied 
that it is not likely that the person's condition will contaminate carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat products or food contact 
surfaces at the plant and the regional veterinarian may attach conditions to the approval to contribute to that objective. 

Training and supervision 

57. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that all employees of the plant are trained and competent to perform their 
assigned duties. 

(2) The operator shall ensure that all employees who slaughter food animals, dress carcasses or process, package or label 
carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products at the plant have received training in hygienic food handling. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(3) The operator of a meat plant described in Column 1 of the following Table shall ensure that, at all times when food 
animals are being slaughtered, carcasses are being dressed or carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products are being 
processed, packaged or labelled, there shall be at least one supervisor in attendance at the plant who has received training in 
hygienic food handling in a formal course or program that is acceptable to a director if the plant is in operation on or after the 
date set out opposite it in Column 2: 



TABLE 
DATE OF PHASE-IN 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Type of Meat Plant 


Date of Phase-In 


slauf^hter plant 


December 1,2005 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than I 
million kilograms 


December 1,2005 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of more than 
500,000 kilograms but no more than 1 
million kilograms 


October 1 , 2006 


freestanding meat plant that, in 2004, 
processed meat products of no more than 
500,000 kilograms or did not process 
meat products 


April 1,2007 



(4) In subsection (3), 

"supervisor" means a person at a meat plant who supervises the work of employees who are engaged in the slaughter of food 
animals, the dressing of carcasses or the processing of meat products at the plant. 

part viii 
slaughter of food animals 

Information and Records 

Information from person making delivery 

58. (1 ) Every person who delivers a shipment of food animals to a slaughter plant shall provide the operator of the plant 
with the following infonnation at the time of delivery: 

1 . The person's name and address. 

2. The name and address of the owner or seller of the animals at the time of delivery or, if the person does not know the 
identity of the owner or seller of the animals at the time of delivery, the name and address of the person who consigned 
the animals for delivery to the plant. 

3. The species and classes within a species of the animals and the number of each species and class. 

4. If the animals are birds, except for birds described in subsection (2), a flock information document completed by the 
producer of the flock in a form acceptable to a director. 

(2) Paragraph 4 of subsection (1) does not apply to, 

(a) ratites; or 

(b) birds that are delivered to a slaughter plant under an arrangement whereby the operator of the plant has agreed to 
custom slaughter the birds for their owner. 

(3) The flock information document shall include, 

(a) the name and address of the producer of the birds or a code allowing the identification of the producer's name and 
address; 

(b) the identification of the flock of origin of the birds by specifying the farm, bam and lot or flock number; and 

(c) information about, 

(i) the status and history of the health of the flock of origin, including the mortality rate, 

(ii) the veterinary services that have been provided to the flock of origin, 

(iii) the husbandry practices that have been followed for the flock of origin, 

(iv) the number of birds and crates shipped to the plant and the size of the crates, and 



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- .. THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 643 

(v) the loading of the birds in the transport containers. 
Record of plant operator 

59. (1) The operator of a slaughter plant shall make and keep at the plant, for a least 12 months from date of delivery of a 
shipment of food animals to the plant, a record of the animals in a form acceptable to a director. 

(2) The record shall include, 

(a) the species and classes within a species of the animals and the number of each species and class; 

(b) the date of delivery; 

(c) the name and address of the person who delivered the animals to the plant; 

(d) the name and address of the owner or the seller of the animals at the time of delivery or, if the identity of the owner or 
seller of the animals at the time of delivery is unknown, the name and address of the person who consigned the animals 
for delivery to the plant; 

(e) for each animal in the shipment that is slaughtered at the plant, 

(i) the species and class within a species of the animal, 
(ii) the date of slaughter, and 
(iii) if the operator keeps a scale sheet of carcass weights, the weight of the dressed carcass of the animal; and 

(f) if the animals are birds, except for birds described in subsection (3), a record of the birds in a form acceptable to a 
director. 

(3) Clause (2) (f) does not apply to, 

(a) ratites; or 

(b) birds that are delivered to a slaughter plant under an arrangement whereby the operator of the plant has agreed to 
custom slaughter the birds for their owner. 

(4) The record of the birds mentioned in clause (2) (f) shall include, 

(a) the flock information document described in subsection 58 (3); 

(b) the condition of the birds on arrival at the plant and their average weight; 

(c) the date and time that the slaughter of the birds began; 

(d) the number of birds found dead at the time the birds were presented for slaughter; and 

(e) the number of birds that were condemned and the reason for their condemnation. 

Handling of Food Animals 

Handling of animals 

60. (1) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that all food animals at the plant are handled in a humane manner 
and in accordance with this Part. 

(2) The operator shall ensure that no food animal is kept at the plant for more than one week unless, 

(a) the animal is permitted to enter the plant under section 63 for the purpose of being euthanized; or 

(b) a regional veterinarian is satisfied that to do so is not inhumane and consents in writing to the keeping. 

(3) The operator shall ensure that no food animal is kept or handled at the plant in a manner that subjects it to avoidable 
pain or distress. 

(4) The operator shall ensure that no goad or electrical prod is, 

(a) used on an obviously ill or injured food animal at the plant; 

(b) applied to the anal, genital or facial areas or to the udder of a food animal at the plant; or 

(c) applied to any part or area of a food animal at the plant in a manner or to an extent that causes it avoidable pain or 
distress. 

(5) The operator shall ensure that food animals at the plant are not crowded in their pens or crates and are protected from 
inclement weather. 

(6) The operator shall ensure that food animals at the plant, except for rabbits and birds other than ratites, are, 
(a) kept in secure pens that are constructed and maintained in accordance with this Regulation; 

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644 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(b) provided with continuous access to potable drinking water; and 

(c) fed, if kept at the plant for more than 24 hours. 
Segregation of animals 

61. (I) The operator shall ensure that incompatible species and classes within species of food animals are kept in separate 
holding pens or crates at the plant. 

(2) The operator shall ensure that a food animal that may be a danger to other food animals at the plant is immediately 
segregated from them. 

(3) The operator shall ensure that a food animal at the plant that appears to be ill or injured is immediately segregated from 
healthy animals. 

Removal of animals 

62. ( 1 ) No person shall remove a food animal from the premises of a slaughter plant without the approval of a regional 
veterinarian under subsection (2). 

(2) A regional veterinarian may authorize a person to remove a food animal from a slaughter plant only if the regional 
veterinarian has no reason to believe that the removal of the animal is likely to result in the transmission of a disease, 

(a) from the animal to another animal, whether or not the other animal is a food animal; or 

(b) from the animal to a person. 

(3) A regional veterinarian who approves the removal of a food animal from the premises of a slaughter plant may attach 
conditions to the approval that are relevant to the removal and any person who is involved in the removal of the animals shall 
comply with the conditions. 

(4) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that no person removes any food animal from the premises of the plant 
except in accordance with an approval given by a regional veterinarian under subsection (2). 

Entry of animal into plant 

63. (1) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that no person permits an equine food animal to enter the plant for 
slaughter unless a regional veterinarian has approved the entry of the animal into the plant for slaughter. 

(2) The regional veterinarian may refuse the entry of an equine food animal into the plant for slaughter only if of the 
opinion that the plant does not have facilities suitable for handling and slaughtering equine animals. 

(3) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that no person permits a food animal to enter the plant for any purpose 
other than slaughter unless a director has given approval under subsection (4) for the animal to enter the plant so that the 
animal can be euthanized at the plant. 

(4) A director may grant approval for a group of food animals to enter a slaughter plant for the purpose of euthanasia if the 
director has reasonable grounds to believe that, 

(a) the animals in the group are known or suspected to be diseased or otherwise contaminated; or 

(b) the animals in the group need to be euthanized to prevent or alleviate their suffering or distress. 

(5) The director may attach the conditions to the approval that are relevant to the euthanasia or the disposal of the animal's 
remains and the operator shall comply with the conditions. 

(6) If a director has given approval under subsection (4) for a food animal to enter a slaughter plant, the operator shall 
condemn the animal, humanely euthanize it in accordance with the applicable conditions of the approval and, in the presence 
of an inspector, dispose of the animal's remains in accordance with section 91 and the applicable conditions of the approval. 

(7) If the operator does not comply with subsection (3) or the applicable conditions of an approval given under subsection 
(4), an inspector may, without a hearing, 

(a) seize the animal that is the subject of the approval; 

(b) condemn and euthanize it and dispose of its remains or arrange for the condemnation, euthanasia and disposal of 
remains; and 

(c) ordertheoperator to pay for the condemnation, euthanasia and disposal of remains. 

(8) The operator shall comply with an order of the inspector made under clause (7) (c). 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 645 



; , , Condemnation OF Food Animals 

Order for condemnation 

64. ( 1 ) A veterinary inspector who is of the opinion that it is necessary to euthanize a food animal at a slaughter plant in 
order to prevent or relieve its undue suffering or distress or because it is near death may order the operator of the plant to 
condemn and euthanize the animal at the operator's expense. 

(2) A veterinary inspector who makes an order under subsection (1) may attach conditions to the order that are relevant to 
the form of euthanasia or disposal of the animal. 

(3) The operator shall condemn an animal that is the subject of an order made under subsection (1), humanely euthanize it 
in accordance with the applicable conditions of the order and, in the presence of an inspector, dispose of its remains in 
accordance with section 91 and the applicable conditions of the order. 

(4) If the operator does not comply with an order made under subsection (1), an inspector may, without a hearing, 

(a) seize the animal that is the subject of the order; 

(b) condemn and euthanize it and dispose of its remains or arrange for the condemnation, euthanasia and disposal of 
remains; and 

(c) order the operator to pay for the condemnation, euthanasia and disposal of remains. 

(5) The operator shall comply with an order of the inspector made under clause (4) (c). 
Other required condemnation 

65. ( 1 ) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that a carcass of a food animal that dies during transportation to the 
plant or that dies at the plant, other than by slaughter or euthanasia, is condemned and the animal's remains disposed of in a 
manner acceptable to an inspector. 

(2) If the operator does not comply with subsection ( 1 ), an inspector may, without a hearing, 

(a) seize the carcass; 

(b) condemn the carcass and dispose of the animal's remains or arrange for the condemnation and disposal of remains; and 

(c) order the operator to pay for the condemnation and disposal of remains. 

(3) The operator shall comply with an order of the inspector made under clause (2) (c). 
Voluntary condemnation 

66. (1) The operator of a slaughter plant may voluntarily condemn a food animal at the plant if an inspector does not order 
the operator, under this Part, to hold the animal and does not detain or seize it under the Act. 

(2) An operator who condemns a food animal under subsection ( 1 ) shall humanely euthanize the animal in a manner that is 
acceptable to an inspector and shall dispose of the animal's remains in accordance with section 91. 

(3) The operator of a slaughter plant may voluntarily condemn, 

(a) a food animal that an inspector orders the operator, under this Part, to hold only if a regional veterinarian has given 
prior approval under subsection (4); or 

(b) a food animal that an inspector detains or seizes under the Act only if a director has given prior approval under 
subsection (5). 

(4) A regional veterinarian may give an approval under clause (3) (a) only if of the opinion that it is no longer necessary 
for the operator to hold the animal for observation, sampling, testing or other assessment to determine if the animal is 
contaminated. 

(5) A director may give an approval under clause (3) (b) only if of the opinion that it is no longer necessary for the animal 
to continue to be detained or seized so that, 

(a) the animal can be observed, sampled, tested or subject to other assessment to determine if the animal is contaminated; 
or 

(b) the animal may be used as evidence in any proceeding under the Act and this Regulation. 

(6) A director or a regional veterinarian may attach conditions to the approval that are relevant to the form of euthanasia or 
disposal of the animal's remains and the operator shall comply with the conditions. 

(7) An operator who condemns a food animal in accordance with an approval given under subsection (3) shall, 
(a) humanely euthanize the animal in accordance with the applicable conditions of the approval; and 



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646 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(b) in the presence of an inspector, dispose of the animal's remains in accordance with section 91 and the applicable 
conditions of the approval. 

Slaughter of Food Animals 

Required procedure 

67. (I) No person shall slaughter a food animal at a slaughter plant except in accordance with this Part and the conditions, 
if any, of its approval for slaughter. 

(2) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that no person slaughters a food animal at the plant except in accordance 
with this Pari and the conditions, if any, of its approval for slaughter. 

(3) No person shall slaughter a food animal at a place other than a slaughter plant operated by a licensee or at a registered 
establishment as defined in the Meat Inspection Act (Canada). 

Ante mortem inspection 

68. ( 1 ) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that, before a food animal is slaughtered at the plant, it is presented 
to an inspector for an ante mortem inspection and it receives approval under this Part for slaughter. 

(2) The inspector to whom a food animal is presented under subsection (1) shall conduct the ante mortem inspection in a 
location at the plant that is acceptable to the inspector. 

(3) If the condition of a food animal would likely cause contamination during the dressing of its carcass, the operator of a 
slaughter plant shall ensure that the animal is not presented for slaughter. 

Response of non-veterinary inspector 

69. (I) An inspector who is not a veterinary inspector, who conducts an ante mortem inspection of a food animal and who 
does not take the action described in clauses (2) (a) and (b) shall approve the animal for slaughter. 

(2) If it appears to an inspector, who is not a veterinary inspector, on an ante mortem inspection of a food animal at a 
slaughter plant that the animal is not healthy or shows a deviation from normal behaviour or appearance or if the insjjector 
has any reason to believe that the animal is contaminated or otherwise unfit for slaughter, the inspector shall, 

(a) order that the operator of the plant hold the animal and keep it apart from healthy food animals in the area of the plant 
that the inspector approves; and 

(b) refer the animal to a veterinary inspector for another ante mortem inspection. 

(3) If an inspector makes an order described in clause (2) (a), the operator shall comply with the order and ensure that the 
animal is marked or identified as held in a manner that is acceptable to the inspector. 

(4) A regional veterinarian may direct an inspector who is not a veterinary inspector and who is conducting an ante 
mortem inspection of a food animal not to take the action described in clauses (2) (a) and (b) if, 

(a) the animal is accompanied by a certificate for direct transport to slaughter issued by a veterinarian under the Livestock 
and Livestock Products Act; or 

(b) the animal has deviations from nonnal behaviour or appearance that, in the opinion of the regional veterinarian, are not 
likely to cause the animal to be unsafe for use as food. 

(5) A regional veterinarian who makes a direction under subsection (4) shall approve the animal for slaughter. 

(6) The regional veterinarian may attach conditions to the approval, including requiring that the animal be segregated from 
other animals before slaughter and undergo a post mortem inspection by a veterinary inspector, if the conditions are relevant 
to ensuring that the animal will be safe for use as food. 

Response of veterinary inspector 

70. ( 1 ) If a food animal at a slaughter plant is presented under subsection 68 ( 1 ) to a veterinary inspector for an ante 
mortem inspection or is referred to a veterinary inspector under subsection 69 (2) and if the veterinary inspector determines 
on an ante mortem inspection that the animal is contaminated or in an otherwise unsatisfactory condition for slaughter, the 
veterinary inspector shall, subject to section 71, 

(a) order that the operator of the plant condemn and humanely euthanize the animal at the operator's expense, subject to 
the conditions that the veterinary inspector imposes if they are relevant to the euthanasia; 

(b) order that the operator of the plant hold the animal and keep it apart from other animals for rest, treatment or further 
observation, sampling, testing or other assessment on the conditions that the veterinary inspector directs; or 

(c) approve the animal for slaughter, subject to the conditions that the veterinary inspector imposes, including conditions 
requiring that the animal be segregated from other animals before slaughter and undergo a post mortem inspection by a 
veterinary inspector, if the conditions are relevant to ensuring that the animal will be safe for use as food. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 647 



(2) The operator shall comply with an order made under subsection (1) and the conditions, if any, of the order. 

(3) If the veterinary inspector makes an order described in clause (1) (b), the operator shall ensure that the animal is 
marked or identified as held in a manner that is acceptable to the veterinary inspector. 

(4) At any time after making an order described in clause ( 1 ) (b), the veterinary inspector may, 

(a) if of the opinion that the animal is contaminated or in an otherwise unsatisfactory condition for slaughter, order that the 
operator of the plant condemn and humanely euthanize the animal at the operator's expense, subject to the conditions 
that the veterinary inspector imposes if they are relevant to the euthanasia; 

(b) order that the operator of the plant hold the animal and keep it apart from other animals for rest, treatment or further 
observation, sampling, testing or other assessment on the conditions that the veterinary inspector directs; or 

(c) approve the animal for slaughter, subject to the conditions that the veterinary inspector imposes, including conditions 
requiring that the animal be segregated from other animals before slaughter and undergo a post mortem inspection by a 
veterinary inspector, if the conditions are relevant to ensuring that the animal will be safe for use as food. 

(5) The operator shall comply with an order made under subsection (4) and the conditions, if any, of the order. 

(6) If a veterinary inspector makes an order under clause ( 1 ) (a) or (4) (a), the operator shall, 

(a) before having the animal euthanized, have it stunned and rendered unconscious by a method specified in subsection 75 
(3) and in a manner that ensures that the animal does not regain consciousness before death; 

(b) have the animal euthanized in an area of the plant acceptable to the veterinary inspector; and 

(c) in the presence of an inspector, dispose of the animal's remains in accordance with section 91 and the applicable 
conditions of the order. 

(7) If the operator does not comply with an order made under clause (1) (a) or (4) (a), an inspector may, without a hearing, 

(a) seize the animal that is the subject of the order; 

(b) condemn and euthanize it and dispose of its remains or arrange for the condemnation, euthanasia and disposal of 
remains; and 

(c) order the operator to pay for the condemnation, euthanasia and disposal of remains. 

(8) The operator shall comply with an order of the inspector made under clause (7) (c). 
Order to euthanize food animals in a shipment 

71. ( 1 ) A veterinary inspector may make an order described in subsection (2) if, 

(a) a food animal at a slaughter plant is presented under subsection 68 ( 1 ) to the veterinary inspector for an ante mortem 
inspection or is referred to the veterinary inspector under subsection 69 (2); and 

(b) as a result of tests performed in respect of a food animal mentioned in clause (a), the veterinary inspector is of the 
opinion that the animal or any other food animal in the same shipment of animals delivered to the plant is 
contaminated or in an otherwise unsatisfactory condition for slaughter. 

(2) The veterinary inspector may, without performing an ante mortem inspection of any of the animals mentioned in 
subsection (1), order the operator of the plant to condemn and humanely euthanize any or all of the animals mentioned in that 
subsection at the operator's expense, subject to the conditions that the veterinary inspector imposes if they are relevant to the 
euthanasia. 

(3) The operator shall comply with an order made under subsection (2) and the conditions, if any, of the order. 

(4) If a veterinary inspector makes an order under subsection (2), the operator shall, 

(a) before having the animal euthanized, have it stunned and rendered unconscious by a method specified in subsection 75 
(3) and in a manner that ensures that the animal does not regain consciousness before death; 

(b) have the animal euthanized in an area of the plant acceptable to the veterinary inspector; and 

(c) in the presence of an inspector, dispose of the animal's remains in accordance with section 91 and the applicable 
conditions of the order. 

(5) If the operator does not comply with an order made under subsection (2), an inspector may, without a hearing, 

(a) seize the animal that is the subject of the order; 

(b) condemn and euthanize it and dispose of its remains or arrange for the condemnation, euthanasia and disposal of 
remains; and 

(c) order the operator to pay for the condemnation, euthanasia and disposal of remains. 

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648 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

(6) The operator shall comply with an order of the inspector made under clause (5) (c). 
Idcntitlcatiun of food animal 

72. (1) If a food animal at a slaughter plant is presented under subsection 68 (1) to an inspector for an ante mortem 
inspection or is referred to a veterinary inspector under subsection 69 (2), the inspector may require that the operator identify 
the animal through identifying marks or devices and corresponding records in a manner acceptable to the inspector and 
maintain the identification for the time that the inspector specifies. 

(2) An inspector who orders the operator of a slaughter plant to hold a food animal under clause 69 (2) (a), 70 (1) (b) or 
(4) (b) may require the operator to identify the carcass and any parts of the carcass of the animal through identifying marks, 
tags or devices and corresponding records in a manner acceptable to the inspector and to maintain the identification for the 
time that the inspector specifies. 

(3) Theoperator shall comply with the requirements imposed under subsections (1) and (2). 
Taking animals into killing room 

73. (1) Subject to subsection (3), no person shall take a food animal into the killing room of a slaughter plant unless the 
animal is accompanied in the killing room by a record of all of the animals sent to the killing room in the same lot as the 
animal. 

(2) The record shall be in a form acceptable to a director and shall contain the following information: 

1 . The names of all of the owners or sellers of the animals in the lot. 

2. For each owner or seller of animals in the lot, the species and classes of the owner's or seller's animals in the lot and 
the number of animals of each species and class. 

3. For each animal in the lot, 

i. a description of the animal if necessary to identify the animal, 

ii. a description of all tattoos or other identifying marks or devices, and 

iii. confirmation by an inspector that an ante mortem inspection of the animal has been completed and the animal has 
been approved for slaughter in accordance with this Part. 

(3) A food animal that has not received ante mortem inspection and has not been approved for slaughter may be taken into 
the killing room of a slaughter plant for the purpose of euthanizing the animal if a director has approved the entry of the 
animal into the plant under section 63 so that the animal can be euthanized. 

Time for slaughter ' > 

74. (1) Subject to subsection (3), a food animal shall be slaughtered within 24 hours of being approved for slaughter. 

(2) A food animal that is not slaughtered with 24 hours of being approved for slaughter as required by subsection (1) shall 
not be slaughtered unless it is first presented to an inspector for a further ante mortem inspection and is again approved for 
slaughter in accordance with this Part. 

(3) Food animals that are rabbits and birds, other than ratites, shall be slaughtered as soon as possible after being received 

at a slaughter plant. 

Method of slaughter 

75. (1) No person shall slaughter a food animal at a slaughter plant in a way that subjects it to avoidable pain or distress. 

(2) Subject to subsection (8), every food animal that is slaughtered at a slaughter plant shall be, 

(a) stunned and rendered unconscious by a method specified in subsection (3) and in a manner that ensures that the animal 
does not regain consciousness before death; 

(b) adequately restrained during stunning; 

(c) stunned and rendered unconscious as required by clause (a) before being wholly or partially hoisted or suspended for 
the purpose of slaughter unless the animal is a rabbit or a bird, other than a ratite, and is suspended before stunning and 
bled immediately after stunning; and 

(d) bled in a manner that produces rapid exsanguination. 

(3) One of the following methods shall be used to stun and render a food animal unconscious for the purposes of clause (2) 

(a): 

1. Delivering a blow to the head by means of a mechanical penetrating device that causes immediate loss of 
consciousness. 

2. Exposure to carbon dioxide gas in a manner that causes rapid loss of consciousness. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 649 

3. Applying an electrical current in a manner that causes immediate loss of consciousness. 

4. Using a firearm if a regional veterinarian approves the use under subsection (4). 

5. Any other method approved by a regional veterinarian that causes immediate loss of consciousness. 

(4) A regional veterinarian may authorize the use of a firearm to render a food animal unconscious if of the opinion that it 
is necessary to do so to alleviate the animal's acute suffering or distress or to protect the safety of any person at the plant. 

(5) In subsection (4), 

"firearm" includes a firearm within the meaning of the Criminal Code (Canada) and the Firearms Act (Canada) and any other 
shooting device that is designed for the slaughtering of animals. 

(6) An operator who is authorized to use a firearm under subsection (4) shall ensure that the firearm is registered and 
stored in accordance with all applicable laws. 

(7) No person shall use any equipment or instrument to restrain, slaughter or render a food animal unconscious at a plant 

unless, 

(a) the person is competent and physically able to do so without subjecting the animal to avoidable pain or distress; and 

(b) the condition of the equipment or instrument and the circumstances under which it is used will not subject the animal 
to avoidable pain or distress. 

(8) Clauses (2) (a), (b) and (c) do not apply to a person who ritually slaughters a food animal at a slaughter plant in 
accordance with religious practice and who, 

(a) ensures that the animal is adequately restrained during slaughter; 

(b) slaughters the animal by means of a cut that rapidly, simultaneously and completely severs the jugular veins and 
carotid arteries, in a manner that causes the animal to lose consciousness immediately and results in rapid 
exsanguination; 

(c) ensures the animal is unconscious before it is wholly or partially hoisted or suspended for the purpose of slaughter 
unless the animal is a rabbit or a bird, other than a ratite, and is bled immediately after being suspended; and 

(d) possesses the skill necessary to carry out the slaughter in a humane manner. 

(9) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that every food animal that is slaughtered at the plant is slaughtered 
under conditions that will facilitate the hygienic production of meat products. 

K Dressing AND Partial Dressing OF Carcasses 

Dressing 

76. ( I ) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that, subject to sections 77 and 78, the carcass of every food animal 
slaughtered at the plant is dressed promptly after slaughter so as to prevent deterioration of the carcass and in a manner that 
permits effective post mortem inspection. 

(2) The operator shall ensure that no carcass of a pig is eviscerated at the plant unless all of the hair, scurf and toenails 
have been removed from its surface and the carcass has been cleaned and washed prior to evisceration. 

(3) The operator shall ensure that the esophagus and rectum of a cattle carcass is effectively tied off or clamped in a 
manner that prevents contamination, at the plant during dressing, of the carcass, the utensils used for dressing and food 
contact surfaces. 

(4) If during dressing, a carcass or part of a carcass of a food animal is found to contain a blood clot, bone splinter, or 
extraneous matter, the operator shall ensure that the blood clot, bone splinter or extraneous matter is removed, condemned 
and disposed of in accordance with section 91. 

Partial dressing 

77. ( 1 ) A regional veterinarian may authorize the operator of a slaughter plant in writing to partially dress a carcass of a 
food animal slaughtered at the plant and to ship the partially dressed carcass from the plant in that form if, 

(a) the food animal from which the carcass is derived received ante mortem inspection, was approved for slaughter and 
was slaughtered in accordance with this Part; 

(b) one of the following conditions is met: 

(i) the carcass is sufficiently dressed to allow an effective post mortem inspection and an inspector, on such an 
inspection, has approved the carcass for use as food, 

(ii) in the case of a carcass of a bird from a flock of birds, other than ratites, the carcass is not sufficiently dressed to 
allow an effective post mortem inspection but an inspector, on such an inspection of a representative sample of 

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650 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



fully eviscerated carcasses from the flock, has approved the carcasses of the representative sample for use as 
food; and 

(c) the regional veterinarian is of the opinion that the partial dressing of the carcass is unlikely to result in contamination 
of the premises, facilities or equipment of the plant or carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products at the plant. 

(2) The regional veterinarian may attach conditions to an authorization issued under subsection ( 1 ) that are relevant to the 
dressing of carcasses, including conditions regarding dressing procedures that are to be followed for partial dressing of the 
carcass, and the operator shall comply with the conditions. 

(3) The operator shall ensure that no partially dressed carcass with the hide on is eviscerated at the plant unless, 

(a) the hide is washed and cleaned prior to evisceration; and 

(b) the carcass is kept in a separate cooler, subject to subsection (4). 

(4) A carcass is not required to be kept in a separate cooler if, 

(a) the operator has established written procedures to prevent having the hide of the carcass contaminate carcasses, parts 
of carcasses, meat products and food contact surfaces at the plant; 

(b) the regional veterinarian has approved the procedures mentioned in clause (a); and 

(c) the operator ensures that the procedures mentioned in clause (a) are effectively implemented at the plant. 

(5) If on a post mortem inspection, a partially dressed carcass with the hide on shows evidence of disease or if the hide 
shows evidence of disease or contamination, the operator shall ensure that the hide is immediately removed from the carcass. 

Transfer of carcasses 

78. ( 1 ) If the carcass of a bird, other than a ratite, has received an ante mortem inspection and has been slaughtered at a 
slaughter plant operated by a licensee, it may be received, eviscerated and undergo a post mortem inspection at another 
slaughter plant operated by a licensee if it has a tag attached to it at the first plant after the slaughter indicating that it received 
an ante mortem inspection and approval for slaughter. 

(2) If the carcass that is received at the second slaughter plant described in subsection ( 1 ) does not have the tag attached to 
it as that subsection requires, the operator of the plant shall, 

(a) ensure that the carcass is not eviscerated and does not undergo a post mortem inspection at the plant; and 

(b) condemn the carcass and dispose of the animal's remains in a manner acceptable to an inspector. 

(3) If the operator does not comply with clause (2) (b), an inspector may, without a hearing, 

(a) seize the carcass; 

(b) condemn the carcass and dispose of the animal's remains or arrange for the condemnation and disposal of remains; and 

(c) order the operator to pay for the condemnation and disposal of remains. 

(4) The operator shall comply with an order of the inspector made under clause (3) (c). 
Operating procedures 

79. The operator of a slaughter plant shall, 

(a) ensure that any process used at the plant in the slaughter of food animals or the dressing of carcasses from food 
animals is designed and implemented to ensure a safe meat product; 

(b) implement and maintain control procedures at the plant to identify, quantify, eliminate, minimize or control hazards in 
the slaughter and dressing process that are critical to ensuring the production of a safe meat product; 

(c) monitor the processes and control procedures mentioned in clauses (a) and (b); 

(d) record the result of the monitoring, including any deviations from the processes and control procedures mentioned in 
clauses (a) and (b); 

(e) evaluate and verify through observation, sampling and testing procedures, the effectiveness of the control procedures 
mentioned in clause (b) affecting the safety of meat products; and 

(f) ensure that the records mentioned in clause (d) are kept at the slaughter plant for at least one year. 



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. : THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 651 

POST Mortem Inspection and Disposition of Carcasses 

PosI mortem inspection 

80. ( I ) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that every carcass of a food animal slaughtered at the plant and every 
part of such carcass that is intended for human consumption is presented to an inspector for a post mortem inspection and that 
an inspector inspects every such carcass and part of a carcass. 

(2) The operator shall ensure that, before a post mortem inspection is completed, every carcass of a food animal 
slaughtered at the plant and every part removed from such carcass that is intended for human consumption, including blood 
removed from the carcass for processing or use for food, is identified by markings, tags or other devices and corresponding 
records in a manner acceptable to an inspector. 

(3) The operator shall ensure that the identification effectively indicates the carcass of the food animal and is maintained 
for as long as an inspector requires while the carcass or the part of the carcass, as the case may be, is at the plant. 

Response of inspector 

81. (1) If it appears to an inspector, who is not a veterinary inspector, on a post mortem inspection of a carcass or a part of 
a carcass of a food animal at a slaughter plant that the carcass or the part of the carcass shows no deviation from normal 
appearance or evidence of abnormal condition and if the inspector has no reason to believe the carcass or the part of the 
carcass is contaminated or otherwise unfit for human consumption, the inspector shall approve the carcass or the part of the 
carcass for use as food. 

(2) If the inspector finds that the carcass or the part of the carcass shows a deviation from normal appearance or evidence 
of abnormal condition or if the inspector has reason to believe the carcass or the part of the carcass is contaminated or 
otherwise unfit for human consumption, the inspector shall, 

(a) order the operator of the plant to hold the carcass and the parts of the carcass; and 

(b) refer them to a veterinary inspector for another post mortem inspection or to a regional veterinarian for disposition. 

(3) If the inspector finds that the carcass or the part of a carcass is subject only to deviations from normal appearance that, 
in the opinion of a regional veterinarian, are not likely to cause it to be unsafe for use as food, the inspector may, instead of 
taking the action described in clauses (2) (a) and (b), 

(a) approve the carcass or the part of the carcass for use as food; or 

(b) order the operator to hold the carcass of the part of the carcass for further inspection, sampling, testing or other 
assessment on the terms that the inspector directs. 

(4) If the inspector orders the operator to hold a carcass or a part of a carcass under clause (3) (b), the inspector may at any 
time, 

(a) approve the carcass or the part of the carcass for use as food; 

(b) order the operator to hold the carcass or the part of the carcass for further inspection, sampling, testing or other 
assessment on the terms that the inspector directs; or 

(c) refer the carcass or the part of the carcass to a veterinary inspector for another post mortem inspection or to a regional 
veterinarian for disposition. 

(5) If the inspector finds that the carcass or the part of a carcass is subject to deviations from normal appearance that, in 
the opinion of a regional veterinarian, would likely cause it to be unsafe for use as food, the inspector may, instead of taking 
the action described in clauses (2) (a) and (b), 

(a) order the operator to condemn the carcass or the part of the carcass and to dispose of the animal's remains in 
accordance with section 91; or 

(b) order the operator to hold the carcass or the part of the carcass for further inspection, sampling, testing or other 
assessment on the terms that the inspector directs. 

(6) If the inspector orders the operator to hold a carcass or a part of a carcass under clause (5) (b), the inspector may at any 
time, 

(a) order the operator to condemn the carcass or the part of the carcass and to dispose of the animal's remains in 
accordance with section 91 ; 

(b) order the operator to hold the carcass or the part of the carcass for further inspection, sampling, testing or other 
assessment on the terms that the inspector directs; or 

(c) refer the carcass or the part of the carcass to a veterinary inspector for another post mortem inspection or to a regional 
veterinarian for disposition. 



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652 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(7) If the inspector, under clause (2) (b), (4) (c) or (6) (c), refers a carcass or a part of a carcass of a food animal to a 
veterinary inspector for another post mortem inspection or to a regional veterinarian for disposition, the veterinary inspector 
or the regional veterinarian may, 

(a) approve the carcass or the part of the carcass for use as food; 

(b) order the operator to hold the carcass or the part of the carcass for inspection, sampling, testing or other assessment on 
the terms that the veterinary inspector or the regional veterinarian directs; or 

(c) if the veterinary inspector or the regional veterinarian is of the opinion that the carcass or the part of the carcass is 
affected by any disease, condition or contamination that may render it unfit for use as food, order the operator to 
condemn the carcass or the part of the carcass and to dispose of the animal's remains in accordance with section 91. 

(8) An inspector who makes an order for condemnation under clause (5) (a) or (6) (a) or a veterinary inspector or regional 
veterinarian who makes an order for condemnation under clause (7) (c) may attach conditions to the order if they are relevant 
to the condemnation. 

(9) The operator shall comply with an order made under this section and the conditions, if any, of the order. 

(10) If the operator does not comply with an order for condemnation made under clause (5) (a), (6) (a) or (7) (c), an 
inspector may, without a hearing, 

(a) seize the carcass or part of the carcass that is the subject of the order; 

(b) condemn the carcass or part of the carcass that is the subject of the order and dispose of the animal's remains or 
arrange for the condemnation and disposal of remains; and 

(c) order the operator to pay for the condemnation and disposal of remains. 

(11) The operator shall comply with an order of the inspector made under clause ( 1 0) (c). 
Voluntary condemnation 

82. (1) The operator of a meat plant may voluntarily condemn a carcass or part of a carcass of a food animal at the plant, 
if an inspector does not order the operator, under this Part, to hold the carcass or the part of the carcass and does not detain or 
seize it under the Act. 

(2) An operator who condemns a carcass or part of a carcass under subsection (1) shall dispose of it in accordance with 
section 91. 

(3) Theoperatorof a slaughter plant may voluntarily condemn, ' 

(a) a carcass or a part of a carcass of a food animal at the plant that an inspector orders the operator, under this Part, to 
hold only if a regional veterinarian has given prior approval under subsection (4); or 

(b) a carcass or a part of a carcass of a food animal at the plant that an inspector detains or seizes under the Act only if a 
director has given prior approval under subsection (5). 

(4) A regional veterinarian may give an approval under clause (3) (a) only if of the opinion that it is no longer necessary 
for the operator to hold the carcass or the part of the carcass for further inspection, sampling, testing or other assessment to 
determine if it is contaminated. 

(5) A director may give an approval under clause (3) (b) only if of the opinion that is it no longer necessary for the carcass 
or the part of the carcass to continue to be detained or seized so that, 

(a) it can be further inspected, sampled, tested or subject to other assessment to determine if it is contaminated; or 

(b) it may be used as evidence in any proceeding under the Act and this Regulation. 

(6) A director or a regional veterinarian may attach conditions to the approval that are relevant to the condemnation of the 
carcass or the part of the carcass or the disposal of the animal's remains and the operator shall comply with the conditions. 

(7) An operator who condemns a carcass or a part of a carcass in accordance with an approval given under subsection (3) 
shall, in the presence of an inspector, dispose of it in accordance with section 91 and the applicable conditions of the 
approval. 

Cooling and refrigeration 

83. (1) Subject to subsections (8) and (10), if a carcass or a part of a carcass at a slaughter plant receives approval under 
this Part for use as food, the operator of the plant shall ensure that, immediately after the approval is given, the carcass or the 
part of the carcass is cooled in accordance with subsections (2) to (4) and is kept refrigerated or frozen in accordance with 
subsection (6). 

(2) The cooling shall be continuous. 

(3) The cooling shall be performed so that, 

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(.i..> THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 653 



(a) the surface temperature of a carcass or a part of a carcass of a mammal or a ratite reaches 7 degrees Celsius or less 
within 24 hours after the approval is given; and 

(b) the internal temperature of the warmest part of the carcass or the part of the carcass reaches 4 degrees Celsius or less as 
soon as possible after the time that the cooling described in clause (a) occurs. 

(4) Meat and meat by-products from a carcass shall be cooled to a temperature of 4 degrees Celsius or less and shall not be 
permitted to remain in any place at a slaughter plant that has a temperature of more than 4 degrees Celsius. 

(5) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that, before a carcass is cut at the plant, the internal temperature of the 
warmest part of the carcass is 4 degrees Celsius or less. 

(6) Subject to subsection (7), a carcass, a part of a carcass or a meat product at a meat plant, that is not a shelf stable meat 
product, shall be kept refrigerated at an internal temperature of 4 degrees Celsius or less or frozen at an internal temperature 
of - 1 8 degrees Celsius or less while it is at the meat plant. 

(7) Subsection (6) does not apply to a meat product during processing if the processing involves cooking, thermal 
processing or any other processing procedure requiring the application of heat to the product. 

(8) If the operator of a slaughter plant is unable to comply with subsection (1), (2), (3), (5) or (6) because of an emergency, 
a regional veterinarian may direct in writing that any of those subsections do not apply to a carcass, a part of a carcass or a 
meat product at the plant for the time and on the conditions that the regional veterinarian specifies. 

(9) If the operator of a freestanding meat plant is unable to comply with subsection (5) or (6) because of an emergency, a 
regional veterinarian may direct in writing that any of those subsections do not apply to a meat product at the plant for the 
time and on the conditions that the regional veterinarian specifies. 

(10) A regional veterinarian may direct in writing that any of subsections (I), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) do not apply to a 
carcass, a part of a carcass or a meat product derived from a food animal at a slaughter plant if, 

(a) the animal was slaughtered in accordance with this Part and with religious practice and ritual; and 

(b) the operator of the plant will sell or distribute the carcass, the part of the carcass or the meat product directly to the 
consumers of the carcass, the part of the carcass or the meat product. 

Entry OF Carcass INTO Meat Plant 

Entry of carcass into meat plant 

84. (1) Subject to subsection (2), no person shall pennit the entry into a meat plant of a carcass or a part of a carcass 
unless it is derived from a food animal and one of the following conditions are met: 

1 . It has received a post mortem inspection at a meat plant in accordance with this Part and approval under this Part for 
use as food. 

2. It has been inspected at a registered establishment as defined in the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and approved for use 
as food in accordance with that Act and the regulations made under it. 

3. It has been imported into Canada in accordance with the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and the regulations made under 
it. 

(2) The operator of a slaughter plant may receive at the plant, 

(a) a carcass of a food animal that dies during transportation to the plant and that, under section 65, the operator is 
required to condemn and dispose of; and 

(b) a carcass of a bird, other than a ratite, for the purpose of evisceration and a post mortem inspection as mentioned in 
subsection 78 ( 1 ) if the carcass has received an ante mortem inspection and has been slaughtered at a slaughter plant 
operated by a licensee. 

PART IX 
INEDIBLE MATERIALS 

Procedures 

85. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall establish the procedures described in subsection (2) to ensure that meat products 
at the plant are not contaminated by inedible material. 

(2) The procedures mentioned in subsection ( 1 ) shall be effective procedures for, 

(a) handling and storing inedible material at the plant; and 

(b) processing, packaging and labelling inedible material at the plant that is intended for use in animal food or pet food or 



intended for pharmaceutical, research or therapeutic purposes. 
(3) The operator shall ensure that the procedures are implemented and complied with. 

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654 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Rooms for inedible materials 

86. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that all inedible material, other than inedible material intended for 
pharmaceutical, research or therapeutic purposes or intended for use in pet food, is promptly removed from any room or area 
of the plant where carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products are handled or stored and conveyed immediately to the 
inedible materials room of the plant. 

(2) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that all inedible material, that is intended for pharmaceutical, research or 
therapeutic purposes, if processing, packaging or labelling the material for any of those purposes is likely to contaminate 
meat products at the plant, or intended for use in pet food, is promptly removed from any room or area of the plant where 
carcasses, parts of carcasses or meat products are handled or stored and conveyed immediately to the pet food processing 
room of the plant. 

(3) The operator of a meat plant shall not allow inedible materials to accumulate at the plant premises. 

(4) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that inedible material that is stored at the plant for more than 48 hours is 
stored at a temperature of 10 degrees Celsius or less unless, 

(a) an inspector is of the opinion that the inedible material will not deteriorate significantly or develop an objectionable 
odour if kept at a higher temperature; and 

(b) the inspector directs that that the inedible material need not be kept at 10 degrees Celsius or less. 

(5) An inspector who gives a direction under subsection (4) may attach the conditions to the direction that are relevant to 
storage and that the inspector considers appropriate and the operator shall comply with the conditions. 

Removal from rooms for inedible materials 

87. ( 1 ) No person shall allow an inedible material that has entered the inedible materials room of a slaughter plant to enter 
any room or area of the plant where meat products are handled or stored. 

(2) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that all inedible material that has entered the inedible materials room of 
the plant is shipped or otherwise removed from the plant only through the shipping door in that room. 

(3) The operator of a freestanding meat plant shall ensure that all inedible material that has entered the room or area of the 
plant described in subsection 22 (4) is shipped or otherwise removed from the plant in a manner that will prevent 
contamination of meat products at the plant. 

(4) After processing, packaging and labelling, inedible material that is intended for use in pet food or intended for 
pharmaceutical, research or therapeutic purposes may enter a room or area of a slaughter plant where meat products are 
handled or stored for the purposes of refrigeration, freezing, storage or shipping if it has been packaged in a manner that will 
adequately protect meat products at the plant from contamination. 

Denaturing 

88. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that inedible material at the plant, other than inedible material intended 
for use in animal food or pet food or intended for pharmaceutical, research or therapeutic purposes, is denatured. 

(2) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that inedible material at the plant that is intended for use as animal or pet 
food is denatured if it is likely to be mistaken for a meat product. 

(3) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that only the substances and methods that a director has approved are used to 
denature inedible material at the plant. 

Material intended for use in animal food 

89. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that inedible material that is intended for use in animal food is not 
processed, packaged or labelled at the plant unless, 

(a) the plant is a slaughter plant; 

(b) a regional veterinarian has given a written approval to the operator of the plant to process, package or label the 
material, as the case may be, for use in animal food; and 

(c) the material is derived from the carcass of a food animal that received a post mortem inspection at the plant. 

(2) The regional veterinarian may refuse to give an approval under (I) (b) only if of the opinion that the inedible material 
may create a risk to the health of any animal that is intended to consume it. 

(3) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that inedible material that is intended for use as animal food is processed, 
packaged and labelled only in the inedible materials room of the plant. 

Material intended for use in pet food 

90. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that inedible material that is intended for use in pet food or intended for 
pharmaceutical, research or therapeutic purposes is not processed, packaged or labelled at the plant unless, 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 655 



(a) the meat plant is a slaughter plant; . ^j 

(b) a regional veterinarian has given a written approval to the operator of the slaughter plant to process, package or label 
the material, as the case may be, for its intended use or purpose; 

(c) the material is derived from the carcass of a food animal that received a post mortem inspection at the plant; and 

(d) the material does not contain any condemned material. 

(2) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that inedible material is processed, packaged and labelled only in the pet 
food processing room of the plant if the material is intended for, 

(a) use in pet food; or 

(b) pharmaceutical, research or therapeutic purposes, if processing, packaging or labelling the material for any of those 
purposes is likely to contaminate meat products at the plant. 

Disposal of inedible material 

91. (1) In this section, 

"high risk inedible material" means inedible material that contains dangerous residues of chemicals, drugs or diseases that are 
difficult to destroy through the methods of disposal mentioned in subsection (3). 

(2) Subject to subsection (4), the operator of a meat plant shall use one of the methods described in subsection (3) to 
dispose of, 

(a) all inedible material at the plant that is condemned material, other than, 

(i) condemned material that is intended for use in animal food, 

(ii) condemned material that a regional veterinarian has identified as high risk inedible material, and 

(iii) condemned material that an inspector has detained or seized under the Act or has sent for laboratory examination; 
and 

(b) all inedible material at the plant that the operator intends to dispose of as waste and that is not condemned material or 
inedible material that a regional veterinarian has identified as high risk inedible material. 

(3) The methods mentioned in subsection (2) are, 

(a) transportation to a receiving plant or a rendering plant, to which the Dead Animal Disposal Act applies, for disposal in 
the same manner as that Act permits the disposal of dead animals at that plant; 

(b) incineration; 

(c) with the approval of a regional veterinarian, burial with a covering of at least 60 centimetres of earth; and 

(d) any other method of disposal that a regional veterinarian has approved. 

(4) If a regional veterinarian has not identified the carcass of a food animal as high risk inedible material, an inspector may 
authorize the operator to return the hide from the carcass to the owner of the carcass or to dispose of the hide to any other 
person whom the inspector approves. 

(5) The operator of a meat plant shall dispose of inedible material that a regional veterinarian has identified as high risk 
inedible material by any method of disposal that the regional veterinarian approves. 

(6) The operator of a meat plant shall notify an inspector before disposing of any inedible material under subsection (2) or 
(5). 

PARTX 
MEAT PRODUCTS — PROCESS CONTROLS 

Prohibition 

92. No person shall engage in the production, processing, packaging, labelling, handling or storage of a meat product at a 
meat plant except in accordance with this Regulation. 

Process controls 

93. (1 ) An operator of a meat plant shall, 

(a) maintain a current written recipe for each prepared meat product at the plant and ensure that the product is produced in 
accordance with the recipe; 

(b) ensure that any process used at the plant in the manufacturing, processing or preparation of a meat product is designed 
and implemented to ensure a safe meat product; 



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656 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(c) implement and maintain control procedures at the plant to identify, quantify, eliminate, minimize or control hazards in 
a production process that are critical to ensuring the production of a safe meal product; 

(d) monitor the processes and control procedures mentioned in clauses (b) and (c); 

(e) record the results of the monitoring mentioned in clause (d), including all deviations from the processes and control 
procedures mentioned in clauses (b) and (c) and all corrective actions in respect of the deviations; , , , 

(0 evaluate and verify, through observation, sampling and testing procedures, the effectiveness of the control procedures 
mentioned in clause (c) affecting product safety; and 

(g) subject to subsection 99 (8), ensure that the records mentioned in clauses (a) and (e) are kept on the plant premises at 
least until the first anniversary of the date on which they were made. 

(2) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that every prepared meal product at the plant and any ingredients added to it 
in accordance with the recipe meet the requirements of the Food and Drugs Act (Canada) and the regulations made under it. 

Production of information to director 

94. A director who is of the opinion that a meat product or a class of meat products that has been produced, processed, 
packaged or labelled at a meat plant runs a reasonable risk of being contaminated, in the absence of appropriate controls, may 
require the operator of the plant to submit to the director a label or recipe for the meat product or the class in order to 
determine if the meat product or the class, 

(a) has been produced, processed, packaged or labelled at the plant in accordance with this Regulation; and 

(b) complies with Part XI. 
Production of information to inspector 

95. The operator of a meat plant shall immediately notify and provide an inspector with a copy of all laboratory 
examination results that are in the possession or under the control of the operator and that indicate that a meat product that 
has been processed, packaged, labelled, handled or stored at the plant does not comply with this Regulation. 

Standards for handling and storing 

96. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that meat products and ingredients used in meat products are, 

(a) handled and stored in a manner that prevents their contamination; 

(b) stored in an environment that effectively controls the growth of pathogenic micro-organisms; and 

(c) stored at the plant in a manner that protects them from physical damage. 

(2) The operator shall ensure that, 

(a) meat products do not come into direct contact, at the plant, with any floor, wall or other surface that is not a food 
contact surface; and 

(b) containers of meat products are not placed in direct contact with the floor of the plant. 

(3) If ingredients used in meat products are stored at a meat plant, the operator of the plant shall ensure that, 

(a) they are labelled to indicate the name of the ingredient, its composition and directions for its use; and 

(b) in the case of nitrite or nitrate, packaged separately from any spice, seasoning or other proteinaceous ingredient. 
Processing standards 

97. ( 1 ) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that processing operations at the plant are performed in a manner that 
produces meat products that are safe. 

(2) The operator shall ensure that all meat products processed at the plant are processed in a timely manner that prevents 
the contamination of the meat products. 

Records of cooking, fermenting and smoking 

98. ( 1 ) If meat products are cooked, fermented or smoked at a meat plant, the operator of the plant shall record the time 
and temperature for the cooking, fermentation and smoking. 

(2) The operator shall ensure that the records mentioned in subsection (1) are kept on the plant premises at least until the 
first anniversary of the date on which they were made. 

Thermal processing 

99. ( 1 ) In this section, 

"critical factors", in relation to the thermal process, means the physical and chemical factors that affect the ability of the 
process to achieve commercial sterility in a meat product; 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 657 



"low-acid meat product" is a meat product that has a pH greater than 4.6 and a water activity above 0.85; 

"scheduled process" means the thermal process alone, or in combination with critical factors, chosen by the operator of a 
meat plant for a particular meat product, container type and size and unit of thermal processing equipment that will achieve 
commercial sterility in the meat product. 

(2) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that every low-acid meat product packaged in a hermetically sealed container 
at the plant is thermally processed until commercial sterility is achieved. 

(3) Subsection (2) does not apply in respect of a low-acid meat product packaged in a hermetically sealed container if, 

(a) the low-acid meat product is, 

(i) stored continuously under refrigeration and the container in which it is packaged is marked "Keep Refrigerated", 
or 

(ii) kept continuously frozen and the container in which it is packaged is marked "Keep Frozen"; and 

(b) the shipping containers of the low-acid meat product are marked in accordance with clause (a). 

(4) The operator shall ensure that no low-acid meat product packaged in a hermetically sealed container is thermally 
processed at the plant unless, 

(a) the container, before being filled, is suitable for its intended use; 

(b) the filling of the container is controlled to ensure compliance with the scheduled process; 

(c) the operation of each closing head is evaluated at frequent intervals and adjusted as required to maintain closures 
within the designated operating limits of the closing head; 

(d) the container is marked in a legible and permanent manner to identify the plant, the product and the date on which the 
product is thermally processed; 

(e) if any part of the information described in clause (d) is coded, the meaning of the code used is made available to an 
inspector; 

(f) the thermal processing is carried out under the continuous supervision of a person who has demonstrated knowledge 
and expertise in thermal processing, usually obtained through completion of an appropriate training course; 

(g) the thermal process used complies with the requirements of the scheduled process; 

(h) a written description of the thermal process to be used for each low-acid meat product and container size is located in a 
conspicuous place near the unit of thermal processing equipment while the unit is in use; 

(i) each unit of thermal processing equipment is maintained in good working order; 

(j) each unit of thermal processing equipment is equipped with adequate monitoring devices maintained in good working 
order; 

(k) if batch thermal processing is employed, a heat-sensitive indicator that visually indicates whether the container has 
been thermally processed is placed on or attached directly or indirectly to the container; 

(I) the container cooling water is potable and, in the case of water used in a cooling canal system, contains a residual 
amount of chlorine, or other bactericide acceptable to the director, at the discharge end of the canal; and 

(m) the container is handled in a manner that ensures that the container remains hermetically sealed. 

(5) The operator of a meat plant in which a low-acid meat product packaged in a hermetically sealed container is thermally 
processed shall keep at the plant, for every low-acid meat product that is processed, the recipe for the product and a written 
description of the scheduled process, together with the name of the person responsible for the development of the scheduled 
process. 

(6) The operator shall keep the information described in subsection (5), on the plant premises, at least until the third 
anniversary of the most recent use of the scheduled process. 

(7) The operator shall keep a written description of the procedures for the operation, maintenance and calibration of each 
unit of equipment used in the thermal processing of low-acid meat products packaged in hermetically sealed containers. 

(8) The operator shall retain, on the plant premises, at least until the third anniversary of the date of thermal processing of 
a low-acid meat product packaged in a hermetically sealed container, records that adequately set out the history of the 
product, including at least the following information with respect to the product: 

1. Production volume, identification and distribution records. 

2. The unit of thermal processing equipment used, the duration, the temperature and, if appropriate, the pressure of the 
process used. 

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658 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



3. The systems used to control the thermal process and critical factors. 

4. Information concerning maintenance and calibration of and modifications to each unit of thermal processing 
equipment and monitoring devices. 

5. All deviations from the process and all corrective action. 

6. Incubation results. 

7. If applicable, cooling water treatments that have been used in the scheduled process. 

(9) The operator shall review the records required under subsection (8) to determine if the thermal processing was carried 
out in accordance with this Part and the scheduled process. 

(10) The operator shall notify an inspector if this Regulation requires a low-acid meat product packaged in hermetically 
sealed containers to be recalled to the plant. 

Processing of blood 

100. The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that blood processed at the plant for human consumption is, 

(a) processed in a part of the plant, other than the inedible materials room or the pet food processing room; 

(b) harvested from a food animal in a manner that prevents contamination of the blood; 

(c) collected in a receptacle that is labelled in a manner that identifies the carcass of the food animal from which the blood 
is collected; 

(d) protected against contamination; and 

(e) retained in the receptacle mentioned in clause (c) until the carcass of the food animal from which the blood is collected 
has received approval under Part VIII for use as food. 

Entry of meat products into meat plant 

101. No person shall permit the entry into a meat plant of a meat product unless, > ', 

(a) it has been received from another meat plant that is operated by a licensee, an inspection legend has been stamped on it 
or applied to it in accordance with Part XII at that plant or it has been labelled in accordance with that Part at that 
plant; 

(b) it has been received from a registered establishment as defined in the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and it has been 
either stamped with an inspection legend or labelled at that establishment in accordance with that Act and the 
regulations made under it; or 

(c) it has been imported into Canada in accordance with the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and the regulations made under 
it. 

Mandatory condemnation 

102. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall condemn a meat product produced, processed, packaged, labelled, handled or 
stored at the plant and dispose of it in accordance with section 91 if, 

(a) it does not meet any of the following conditions: 

(i) it is a carcass of a food animal that, at the plant and in accordance with this Regulation, has received an ante 
mortem inspection, has been slaughtered and dressed and has received a post mortem inspection and approval for 
use as food, 

(ii) it is a meat product received from another meat plant that is operated by a licensee and it has been stamped with 
an inspection legend or has been labelled at that meat plant in accordance with Part Xll, 

(iii) it is a meat product received from a registered establishment as defined in the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and 
it has been either stamped with an inspection legend or labelled at that establishment in accordance with that Act 
and the regulations made under it, 

(iv) it has been imported into Canada in accordance with the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and the regulations made 
under it, 

(v) it is a meat product derived from a meat product described in subclause (i), (ii), (iii) or (iv); 

(b) subject to subsection (2), it is contaminated; or 

(c) subject to subsection (2), it does not comply with Part XI. 

(2) Subsection ( 1 ) does not require the operator of a meat plant to condemn a meat product that is contaminated or that 
does not comply with Part XI if, 

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, , ,, THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 659 

(a) an inspector has not detained or seized the meat product under the Act; and 

(b) the operator can treat or rework the meat product so that it is not contaminated and it complies with that Part. 

(3) The operator shall not sell, distribute or make available for use as food any meat product that the operator treats or 
reworks under subsection (2) until it is not contaminated and until it complies with Part XI. 

(4) If the operator cannot treat or rework a meat product under subsection (3) so that it is not contaminated and so that it 
complies with Part XI, the operator shall condemn the meat product and dispose of it in accordance with section 9 1 . 

Voluntary condemnation 

103. (1) The operator of a meat plant may voluntarily condemn a meat product at the plant if, 

(a) an inspector has not detained or seized the meat product under the Act; or 

(b) an inspector has detained or seized the meat product under the Act and a director has approved the condemnation. 

(2) An operator who condemns a meat product under subsection (1) shall dispose of it in accordance with section 91 . 

(3) The director may attach the conditions to the approval that the director considers appropriate for the condemnation and 
the operator shall comply with the conditions. 

(4) An operator who condemns a meat product in accordance with an approval given under subsection (1) shall, in the 
presence of an inspector, dispose of it in accordance with section 91. 

PART XI 
MEAT PRODUCT STANDARDS 

Standards 

104. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that every meat product produced, processed, packaged, labelled, 
handled or stored at the meat plant, 

(a) meets one of the following conditions: 

(i) it is a carcass of a food animal that, at the plant and in accordance with this Regulation, has received an ante 
mortem inspection, has been slaughtered and dressed and has received a post mortem inspection and approval for 
use as food, 

(ii) it has been received from another meat plant that is operated by a licensee, an inspection legend has been stamped 
on it or applied to it in accordance with Part XII at that plant and it has been labelled in accordance with that Part 
at that plant, 

(iii) it has been received from a registered establishment as defined in the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and it has 
been either stamped with an inspection legend or labelled at that establishment in accordance with that Act and 
the regulations made under it, 

(iv) it has been imported into Canada in accordance with the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and the regulations made 
under it, 

(v) it is derived from a meat product described in subclause (i), (ii), (iii) or (iv); 

(b) is not contaminated; 

(c) if produced, processed, packaged, labelled, handled or stored at the plant, has been produced, processed, packaged, 
labelled, handled or stored in accordance with this Regulation; and 

(d) complies with this Part. 

(2) A meat product specified in Column 2 of Table 1 shall, 

(a) contain no ingredient that is a meat product, other than those specified as required or permitted in Column 3 opposite 
it; 

(b) contain no food additive and no ingredient that is not a meat product, other than those specified as required or 
permitted in Column 4 opposite it; 

(c) be treated or processed as specified in Column 5 opposite it; 

(d) contain at least the minimum content, and no more than the maximum content, of the substance specified in Column 6 
opposite it; and 



\ 



(e) meet the other requirements specified in Column 6 opposite it. 

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660 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Processing . ^ . 

105. (1) Subject to subsection (2), a prepared meat product that contains pork shall be heated, cured, frozen or otherwise 
treated in such a manner that all Trichinella spiralis in it are destroyed. 

(2) Subsection ( 1 ) does not apply to, 

(a) side bacon; 

(b) Wiltshire bacon; 

(c) smoked pork jowls; and 

(d) any other prepared meat product that contains pork and that does not have the appearance of having been cooked. 

(3) Ready-to-eat meat products shall be treated, handled and packaged so that they do not contain any pathogen, toxin or 
parasite that makes them unfit for human consumption. 

Treatment of organs 

106. (I) A heart, other than the heart of a rabbit or a bird, other than a ratite, shall be opened or inverted and all blood 
clots and all attached blood vessels shall be removed. 

(2) A liver shall have the gall bladder, if any, removed. 

(3) The contents and the lining of a gizzard shall be removed and the gizzard shall be washed. 

(4) If a meat product contains a kidney, other than a dressed carcass of a mammal or part of such carcass that contains a 
kidney, the kidney shall be deeply incised, soaked in water and washed before it is incorporated into the meat product. 

(5) Subject to subsection (6) and 107 (2), no meat product shall contain a urinary bladder, an intestine or any part of a 
urinary bladder or an intestine. 

(6) Any part of an alimentary tract of a food animal may be used for food if, 

(a) the contents of the tract are removed; 

(b) the tract is washed and tested for cleanliness; 

(c) the part of the tract is clean; and 

(d) the part of the tract is chilled immediately. 
Casing 

107. (1) If a meat product is packaged in artificial casing, the casing shall be prepared from collagen, cellulose or any 
other material free of any noxious constituent. 

(2) A urinary bladder or any part of an alimentary tract of a food animal may be used as a natural casing for a meat 
product if, 

(a) the contents and mucous lining of it are removed and it is washed and tested for cleanliness; 

(b) in the case of a urinary bladder, it is inverted and placed in brine for at least 12 hours and is subsequently rinsed with 
water; 

(c) the casing is clean; and 

(d) the casing is chilled immediately. 
Composition 

108. ( 1 ) Mechanically separated meat shall not contain, 

(a) more than 0.027 percent of calcium for every I percent protein; or 

(b) any bone particles that are any larger than 2 millimetres in any direction. 

(2) Fermented shelf-stable meat products shall have a pH of 4.6 or less, a water activity level of 0.85 or less or a 
combination of a pH between 4.6 and 5.3 and a water activity of level of 0.90 or less. 

Weight 

109. (1) Subject to subsection (2), every dressed carcass of a rabbit or a bird, other than a ratite, of an original weight 
specified in Column 3 of the Table to this section shall not have its original weight increased by more than the percentage 
specified in Column 4 opposite it as a result of washing, chilling or other contact with water in a meat plant or during 
transportation from a meat plant to another meat plant. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



661 



(2) If the carcass of a rabbit or a bird, other than a ratite, is not pre-packaged in a meat plant, the maximum increase in 
original weight of the carcass for the purpose of subsection ( 1 ) shall not exceed the applicable maximum weight increase 
specified in Column 4 of the Table to this section plus an additional 4 per cent. 

TABLE 
MAXIMUM WEIGHT INCREASE 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Column 3 


Column 4 


Item 


Species 


Weight of Dressed Carcass 


Maximum Weight Increase 


1. 


Turkeys and Rabbits 


(a) under 4.5 kilograms 


8.0 per cent 






(b) 4.5 kilograms to under 9 kilograms 


6.0 per cent 






(c) 9 kilograms and over 


5.5 per cent 


2. 


Chickens 


(a) under 2.3 kilograms 


8.0 per cent 






(b) 2.3 kilograms and over 


6.0 per cent 


3. 


All other species 


irrespective of weight 


6.0 per cent 



Interpretation of Table I 

no. (I) In Table 1, 

"anti-foaming agent" means a substance authorized by the Food and Dnig Regtilalions made under the Food and Dnigs Act 
(Canada) to be used in or on a meat product to suppress or prevent the formation of foam; 

"fresh", in respect of an ingredient that is a meat product, means not cooked or preserved; 

"preservative", in respect of a meat product, means a preservative authorized by the Food and Drug Regulations made under 
the Food and Dnigs Act (Canada) to be used in or on the meat product. 

(2) The name of a meat product specified in Column 2 of Table I may replace the word "meat" with the name of the 
animal species of the product or the name of the cut of meat of the animal species of the product. 

(3) The name of a meat product specified in Column 2 of Table 1 may replace the word "chicken" with the name of the 
appropriate poultry species of the product. 

(4) If the name of the meat product specified in Column 2 of Table I has replaced the word "chicken" with the name of 
another poultry species, the name of the species must also replace the word "chicken" in Column 6 opposite the name of the 
product. 

(5) The word "stew" in Column 2 of Table I for subitem 16 (a) may be prefaced with the name of the animal species of 
the product or the name of the cut of meat of the animal species of the product that is used in the stew. 

(6) The name of a meat product specified in Column 2 of Table 1 that is preserved sausage or cured sausage shall also 
include the words "Ready to cook", "Uncooked" or an equivalent term that indicates that the sausage requires cooking before 
consumption. 

(7) If Column 4 of Table 1 permits a gelling agent to be added to a meat product specified opposite it in Column 2, the 
name of the product shall be changed to reflect the addition if more than 0.25 per cent of gelling agent is added to the 
product. 

(8) If a flavouring agent is added to a meat product specified in Column 2 of Table 1, the name of the product shall be 
changed to reflect the name and nature of the agent. 

(9) If an optional treatment or process is employed that is not commonly used for a meat product specified in Column 2 of 
Table 1 , the name of the product shall be changed to reflect the treatment or process. 

(10) If the names of two or more meat products specified in Column 2 of Table 1 are combined and used as the naine of 
another meat product, that other meat product shall meet the standards applicable in respect of all of the meat products used 
in its name. 

(11) Unless otherwise specified in Table 1, an ingredient that is a meat product and that is specified in Column 3 of the 
Table may be fresh, preserved or cooked. 

(12) Unless otherwise specified in Table I, the amounts specified in Column 6 of the Table represent percentages in the 
finished product. 

(13) For the purposes of Table 1, 

(a) headmeat used in the production of headcheese and brawns may include pork scalps and snouts; 

(b) if pork skin is used as an ingredient in a prepared meat product and there are adhering to it the underlying tissues 
normally accompanying pork skin and having an average thickness of not less than 1.25 cenUmetres, pork skin is 
considered pork meat; 



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662 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(c) if comminuted boneless pork is used as an ingredient of a prepared meat product, naturally adhering skin is considered 
pork meat; 

(d) if pork skin is separated from muscle tissue, the skin may be added to skinless pork if the amount of skin in the pork 
does not exceed 8 per cent; 

(e) if boneless poultry is used as an ingredient of a prepared meat product, naturally adhering skin and fat are considered 
poultry meat; 

(f) if poultry skin is separated from muscle tissue, the skin may be added to skinless poultry if the amount of skin in the 
poultry does not exceed 8 per cent; 

(g) if poultry fat is separated from the muscle tissue, poultry fat not exceeding 4 per cent of boneless poultry weight may 
be added; 

(h) if Column 4 of the Table permits the addition of a filler to a meat product, the addition of a seasoning, a spice, a 
sweetening agent, a flavour enhancer, salt and water is also permitted; 

(i) if Column 4 of the Table permits the addition of water to a meat product, the addition of ice and meat broth is also 
permitted; 

(j) if Column 3 of the Table permits the addition of gravy to a meat product or if Column 4 of the Table permits the 
addition of sauce to a meat product, the addition of water and seasoning is also permitted; 

(k) if Column 4 of the Table permits the addition of seasoning to a meat product, the addition of salt and spice is also 
permitted; 

(1) if the addition of seasoning to a meat product contributes more than 1 per cent protein in the finished product, the 
added seasoning is considered a filler; 

(m) if Column 4 of the Table permits the addition of a preservative to a meat product, the addition of alcohol or a 
sweetening agent or both is also permitted; and 

(n) if Column 4 of the Table permits the addition of a filler to a meat product, the addition of an ingredient that is not a 
meat product and does not constitute a filler because it is visually distinguishable from the meat product is also 
permitted if the name used to describe the resulting product is descriptive of the resulting product. 

PART XII 

inspection legend, labelling and packaging 

Inspection Legend 

Requirement for inspection legend 

111. The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that every carcass and half carcass at the plant, other than a carcass or half 
carcass of a rabbit or a bird, other than a ratite, that has received a post mortem inspection and approval for use as food, is 
stamped with a legible inspection legend immediately after receiving approval for use as food. 

Restrictions on applying inspection legend 

112. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that no person applies an inspection legend to a meat product or to the 
label required under this Part for a meat product unless the product, 

(a) meets one of the following conditions: 

(i) it is a carcass of a food animal that, at the plant and in accordance with this Regulation, has received an ante 
mortem inspection, has been slaughtered and dressed and has received a post mortem inspection and approval for 
use as food, 

(ii) it is derived from the carcass of a food animal that, at the plant and in accordance with this Regulation, has 
received an ante mortem inspection, has been slaughtered and dressed and has received a post mortem inspection 
and approval for use as food, 

(iii) it is a meat product received from another meat plant that is operated by a licensee and it has been stamped with 
an inspection legend or has been labelled at that meat plant in accordance with this Part, 

(iv) it is a meat product received from another meat plant that is operated by a licensee and it has been shipped in 
accordance with section 125, 

(v) it is a meat product received from a registered establishment as defined in the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and 
it has been stamped with an inspection legend or has been labelled at that establishment in accordance with that 
Act and the regulations made under it. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 663 



(vi) it is a meat product that has been imported into Canada in accordance with the Meat Inspection Act (Canada) and 
the regulations made under it, 

(vii) it is derived from a meat product described in subclause (iii), (iv), (v) or (vi); 

(b) is not contaminated; and 

(c) complies with Part XL 

(2) No person shall apply an inspection legend to an inedible material or to a label used in conjunction with an inedible 
material. 

(3) No person other than an inspector or a person authorized by an inspector to apply an inspection legend shall apply an 
inspection legend to a meat product or to a label used in conjunction with a meat product. 

(4) No person shall apply an inspection legend to a meat product except at a meat plant. 

(5) No person shall reproduce an inspection legend unless. 

(a) the person has the permission of a director; or 

(b) the person is an inspector or is a person who is authorized by an inspector to apply an inspection legend to a meat 
product or to a label used in conjunction with a meat product. 

(6) A director shall not refuse the permission mentioned in clause (5) (a) unless the director has reasonable grounds to 
believe that the person will not use the inspection legend in accordance with this Part. 

Form of inspection legend 

113. (1) An inspection legend shall be in the following form: 



Insert regs\Graphks\Source Latv\2005\31\03lfglae.tif 



(2) Subject to subsection (3), the number of the meat plant shall be substituted for the numbers 000 in the inspection 
legend. 

(3) The number of the meat plant is not required on an inspection legend that is placed on the label required under this Part 
for a meat product if, 

(a) the label is applied to a hermetically sealed container that is marked in accordance with clauses 99 (4) (d) and (e); 

(b) the label is applied to a casing or bag closed by a metal clip and the number of the meat plant is legibly engraved on 
the metal clip and is visible when the clip is closed; or 

(c) the label is applied to a cardboard container, a corrugated fibreboard container, a bulk container or a plastic container 
and the number of the meat plant is clearly marked elsewhere on the principal display panel. 

(4) The inspection legend shall have no transverse measurement through the centre of the legend of, 

(a) less than 10 millimetres, if the legend is placed on a label required under this Part for a meat product; and 

(b) less than 25 millimetres, if the legend is stamped directly on a meat product. 

(5) if ink is used to directly stamp an inspection legend on a meat product, only ink that is fit for human consumption shall 
be used for the legend. 

Duty to notify inspector 

114. The operator of a meat plant who believes that any carcass, part of a carcass or meat product at the plant that bears 
the inspection legend does not meet the requirements of the Act and this Regulation shall notify an inspector. 



L 



263 



664 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L 'ONTARIO 

Labelling 

Requirement Tor labels 

115. (1) Subject to subsection (2), the operator of a meat plant shall ensure that all meat products at a meat plant are 
labelled in accordance with this Part, the Consumer Packaging and Labelling Act (Canada) and the regulations made under it 
and the Food and Drugs Act (Canada) and the regulations made under it before they are shipped from the plant for use as 
food. 

(2) A packaged meat product that is received at a meat plant and that has been labelled in accordance with the Meat 
inspection Act (Canada) and the regulations made under it shall be deemed to be labelled in accordance with this Part as long 
as the product remains in the original packaging material in which it was received at the plant. 

(3) Labelling materials used at a meat plant shall be stored in an area that prevents contamination of the materials and shall 
be stored and handled in a hygienic manner that prevents such contamination. 

Form of labels 

116. (1) Subject to section 1 17, a meat product shall have a label that is in the form of one of the labels described in 
section 1 18. 

(2) A meat product shall have a label that shows the production date of the product or a code identifying the production lot 
of the product, except if the product is a whole carcass or a half carcass. 

(3) The label mentioned in subsection (2) may be part of the label mentioned in subsection (1). 

(4) Substances and materials that are used as a label for a meat product and that come into contact with the product shall 
be durable, free of contaminants and suitable for being a label. 

Label for raw meat 

117. ( 1 ) Subject to subsection (2), the label required for every carcass and half carcass that has received a post mortem 
inspection and approval for use as food and any raw meat and raw meat by-product derived from such a carcass shall be a 
stamp of a legible inspection legend on it. 

(2) If it is impracticable to stamp the inspection legend on the carcass, half carcass, raw meat or raw meat by-product, the 
label shall be, 

(a) an attached breast tag that complies with subsection 1 18 (5), in the case of a dressed or partially dressed carcass of a 
rabbit or a bird, other than a ratite; 

(b) a printed inspection legend that is visible on or within the sealed bag in which the carcass, half carcass, raw meat or 
raw meat by-product is packaged or that is on a label used in conjunction with the sealed bag; or 

(c) a label that complies with subsections 118(1) and (2) or that complies with subsections 1 18 (3) and (4), if the carcass, 
half carcass, raw meat or raw meat by-product is packaged in a container or bulk container. 

Label for other meat products 

118. (1) The label required under subsection 116 (1) for a pre-packaged meat product may be a tag attached to the 
product, a tag or other label attached to the immediate container in which the product is placed or a label that is applied to or 
forms part of the immediate container. 

(2) The tag or label mentioned in subsection ( 1 ) shall set out, 

(a) subject to section 1 19, the identity of the product in terms of its common name or in terms that are descriptive of the 
product; 

(b) except in the case of a meat product pre-packaged at a random weight, the net quantity of the product; 

(c) the name and address of the meat plant where the product was produced or labelled or the words "Prepared for" 
followed by the name and address of the person for whom the product was produced or labelled; 

(d) the inspection legend; 

(e) subject to subsections 120 (2) and (3), the ingredients of the product in descending order of their proportion in the 
product or as a percentage of the product; 

(f) subject to section 120, the components of the ingredients of the product, where they are listed on the label immediately 
after the ingredient of which they are components, listed so as to indicate that they are components of that ingredient 
and listed in descending order of their proportion in the ingredient; 

(g) the storage instructions that section 121 requires; 

(h) if the durable life of the product is 90 days or less, the words "Best before" followed by the durable life date; and 



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,,»<! THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 665 

(i) the words "May contain kidneys", if the product is a dressed or partially dressed carcass that is derived from a young 
chicken or young duck or a portion of it and that may contain kidneys. 

(3) The label required under subsection 1 16 (1) for a meat product contained in a bulk container may be a tag or other 
label attached to the container or a label that is applied to or forms part of the container. 

(4) The tag or label mentioned in subsection (3) shall set out, 

(a) subject to section 1 19, the identity of the product in terms of its common name or in terms that are descriptive of the 
product; 

(b) the net quantity of the product; 

(c) the name and address of the meat plant where the product was produced or labelled or the words "Prepared for" 
followed by the name and address of the person for whom the product was produced or labelled; 

(d) the inspection legend; 

(e) subject to subsections 120 (2) and (3), the ingredients of the product in descending order of their proportion in the 
product or as a percentage of the product; 

(f) subject to section 120, the components of the ingredients of the product, where they are listed on the label or tag 
immediately after the ingredient of which they are components, listed so as to indicate that they are components of that 
ingredient and listed in descending order of their proportion in the ingredient; 

(g) the storage instructions that section 1 2 1 requires; and 

(h) the words "May contain kidneys", if the bulk container contains an unlabelled dressed carcass or partially dressed 
carcass that is derived from a young chicken or young duck or a portion of it and that may contain kidneys. 

(5) The label required under subsection 1 16 (1) for a dressed or partially dressed carcass of a rabbit or a bird, other than a 
ratite, may be a breast tag attached to it that sets out, 

(a) the name and address of a meat plant where the meat product was produced or labelled or the words "Prepared for" 
followed by the name and address of the person for whom the carcass was produced or labelled; 

(b) the inspection legend; and 

(c) the words "May contain kidneys", if the carcass is derived from a young chicken or young duck and may contain 
kidneys. 

(6) The label required under subsection 1 16 (1) for a meat product, other than a tag or label mentioned in subsection (1) or 
(3) or a breast tag mentioned in subsection (5), may be a tag attached to the product that sets out, 

(a) subject to section 1 19, the identity of the product in terms of its common name or in terms that are descriptive of the 
product; 

(b) the net quantity of the product; 

(c) the name and address of the meat plant where the product was produced or labelled or the words "Prepared for" 
followed by the name and address of the person for whom the product was produced or labelled; 

(d) the inspection legend; 

(e) subject to subsections 120 (2) and (3), the ingredients of the product in descending order of their proportion in the 
product or as a percentage of the product; 

(f) subject to section 120, the components of the ingredients of the product, where they are listed on the label or tag 
immediately after the ingredient of which they are components, listed so as to indicate that they are components of that 
ingredient and listed in descending order of their proportion in the ingredient; 

(g) the storage instructions that section 121 requires; and 

(h) the words "May contain kidneys", if the product is a dressed or partially dressed carcass that is derived from a young 
chicken or young duck or a portion of it and that may contain kidneys. 

Name of meat product 

119. (1) No label used in conjunction with a meat product, whether or not it is a label required by this Part, shall, 

(a) describe the product by a name set out in Column 2 of Table 1 unless the product conforms to the standards set out in 
Columns 3 to 6 opposite it; 

(b) indicate that the product has been derived from one or more species of food animals unless all ingredients of the 
product that are meat products are derived from those species of food animals; 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(c) describe the product as a carcass, cut, organ or tissue of an animal unless the name of the animal species from which it 
was derived is also shown; or 

(d) show a word or phrase set out in Column 2 of the Table to this section unless the product meets the requirements set 
out in Column 3 opposite it. 

(2) If the label required for a meat product shows a word or phrase set out in Column 2 of the Table to this section, the 
label shall show the word or phrase immediately preceding or immediately following the identity of the meat product. 

(3) If the label required for a meat product is required to show the identity of the product and if the product is not a ready- 
to-eat meat product but has the appearance of or could be mistaken for a ready-to-eat meat product, the label shall set out, 

(a) as part of the common name of the product, the expression "ready to cook", "uncooked" or an equivalent term to 
indicate that the product requires cooking before consumption; and 

(b) comprehensive cooking instructions such as an internal time and temperature combination that, if followed, will result 
in conditions that allow for the safe consumption of the product. 

TABLE 
LABELLING RESTRICTIONS BASED ON PROCESSING OF MEAT PRODUCTS 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Column 3 


Item 


Word or Phrase 


Requirements 


1. 


"Baked" 
"Oven roasted" 


Having dry heat applied without direct contact with a flame for a time sufficient to produce the 
characteristics of baked or roasted meat product, such as brown crust on the surface, rendering 
out of surface fat or caramel ization of added sugar 


2. 


"Barbecued" 


Cooked with seasoning 


3. 


"Basted" 
"Deep basted" 
"Prebasted" 
"Self basting" 


Injected with meat broth containing at least 15 per cent solid matter, butter or edible fats or oils 
that are of vegetable origin, up to a maximum of 3 per cent 


4. 


"Breaded" 


Coated with a combination of batter and bread or cracker crumbs 


5. 


"Cooked" 


Subjected to heat for a time sufficient to produce the characteristics of a cooked meat product in 
respect of friability, colour, texture and flavour 


6. 


"Corned" 


Cured 


7. 


"Dried" 

"Dry" 

"Semi-dry" 


Dehydrated 


8. 


"Freeze-dried" 


Dehydrated by a process of freeze-drying 


9. 


"Fully cooked" 


Heated to an internal temperature of at least 69 degrees Celsius 


10. 


"Jellied" 


Gelling agent added 


11. 


"Rolled" 


Boned, rolled and tied 


12. 


"Semi-boneless" 


Having not less than 45 per cent of the bone removed from the meat cut 


13. 


"Shankless" 


(a) In the case of a foreleg, having the forelimb removed at the elbow joint 






(b) In the case of a hind leg, having the hindlimb removed at the knee joint 


14. 


"Smoked" 


Treated with smoke derived either directly or indirectly from hardwood 


15. 


"Stuffed" 
"Stuffed with" 


Stuffed with a seasoned mixture of bread, grains or like substances or with a prepared meat 
product or a combination of them 


16. 


"With giblets" 


Containing a liver, a heart or a gizzard or any combination of them of the same species 


17. 


"With natural iuices" 


Packaged in a package containing the juices generated by the cooking of the meat product 



Listing ingredients on label 

120. (1) If the label required fora meat product is required to show the components of ingredients of the product, the label 
shall show them as specified by sections B.0 1.008 to B.OI.OlO of the Food and Dnig Regulations made under the Food and 
Drugs Act (Canada). 

(2) If it is an acceptable manufacturing practice for the operator of a meat plant to omit from a meal product any food that 
is ordinarily an ingredient of the product or a component of an ingredient of the product or to substitute in whole or in part in 
a meat product any other food for a food that is ordinarily an ingredient or a component of an ingredient, the list of 
ingredients on the label required for the product may, for the 12-month period beginning at the time the label is applied to the 
product, show as ingredients of the product or components of ingredients of the product the foods that may be omitted or 
substituted if, 

(a) all the foods that may be used as ingredients or components during the 12-month period are shown in the list of 
ingredients; 

(b) it is clearly stated as part of the list of ingredients that the foods shown as ingredients or components may not be 
present or that another food may be substituted for a food shown as an ingredient or component; and 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 667 



(c) the foods ihat may be omitted or substituted are grouped with those of the same class of foods that are used as 
ingredients or components and the foods within each of the groups are Hsted in descending order of the proportion in 
which they are likely to be used during the 1 2-month period. 

(3) If it is an acceptable manufacturing practice for the operator of a meal plant to vary the proportions of the ingredients 
of a meat product or the components of an ingredient of a meat product, the list of ingredients on the label required for the 
product may, for the 12-month period beginning at the time the label is applied to the product, show the ingredients or 
components in the same proportions during the 12 -month period if, 

(a) it is clearly stated as part of the list of ingredients that the proportions indicated are subject to change; and 

(b) the ingredients or components are listed in descending order of the proportion in which they are likely to be used 
during the 1 2-month period. 

Storage instructions 

121. If the label required for a meat product is required to show storage instructions, the label shall indicate if the product 
should be kept refrigerated or kept frozen, except if the product, 

(a) is packaged in a hermetically sealed container and treated to achieve commercial sterility; 

(b) is dried to attain a water activity of 0.85 or less; 

(c) has pH of 4.6 or lower; 

(d) is packaged in salt or a saturated salt solution; 

(e) is fermented and, at the end of fermentation, has a pH of 5.3 or less and a water activity of 0.90 or less; or 

(0 has been subjected to treatment approved by a director that ensures the stability of the product when it is stored at 
normal room temperature. 

Location of information on label 

122. (1) Subject to subsections (2) to (4), the information that section 1 18 requires be included on the label required for a 
meat product shall be shown on the principal display panel, except if the label is a breast tag attached to a dressed or partially 
dressed carcass of a rabbit or a bird, other than a ratite, or a tag or label that does not have a principal display panel. 

(2) The information that clauses 118 (2) (c), (d), (e) and (f) require be included on the label required for a meat product 
may be shown on a panel other than the principal display panel. 

(3) The information that clause 1 18 (2) (h) requires be included on the label required for a meat product may be shown on 
that part of the label that is applied to the bottom of the immediate container in which the product is placed if a clear 
indication of the location of the information appears elsewhere on the label. 

(4) The meat inspection legend that clause 118 (4) (d) requires be included on the label for a meat product contained in a 
bulk container that is sealed with a tamper-evident seal may be shown on the seal of the container, instead of on the label, 
and, if it is shown on the seal, may be shown on a panel other than the principal display panel. 

Location of label 

123. (1) Subject to subsection (2), all or part of the label required under subsection 1 16 (1) for a meat product shall be 
applied to the principal display surface, except if the label is a stamp of the inspection legend on the product. 

(2) If the container of a pre-packaged meat product is mounted on a display card, the label may be applied to the side of 
the display card that is displayed or visible under normal or customary conditions of sale or use. 

Legibility of labels . . 

124. (I) The height that this section requires for the characters of the words that comprise information shall be, 

(a) the height of an upper case letter, if the characters of the words all appear in upper case; and 

(b) the height of the lower case letter "o", if the characters of the words appear in lower case or in a mixture of upper and 
lower case. 

(2) Subject to subsections (3) and (4), all information that this Part requires a label required for a meat product to show 
shall be shown in a manner easily legible to any person under normal or customary conditions of sale or use of the product 
and shall be in characters not less than 1.6 millimetres in height. 

(3) If the area of the principal display surface of a container containing a meat product is not more than 10 square 
centimetres and if all the information that this Part requires a label required for the product to show is shown on the principal 
display panel of the container, that information, other than information showing the net quantity, may be in characters not 
less than 0.8 millimetres in height. 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(4) If a label required for a meat product is required to show the net quantity of the product, the numbers showing the net 
quantity shall be shown in bold-face type and in characters of a height of not less than the size specified in Column 1 of the 
following Table opposite the size specified in Column 2 for the area of the principal display surface of the container or bulk 
container containing the product. 

TABLE 
MAXIMUM HEIGHT OF CHARACTERS 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Minimum Height of Characters 


Size of the Area of the Principal Display Surface of the Container or Bulk Container Containing the 
Meat Product 


1.6 millimetres 


not more than 32 square centimetres 


3.2 millimetres 


More than 32 square centimetres but not more than 258 square centimetres 


6.4 millimetres 


More than 258 square centimetres but not more than 645 square centimetres 


9.5 millimetres 


More than 645 square centimetres but not more than 2,580 square centimetres 


12.7 millimetres 


More than 2,580 square centimetres 



(5) If a label required for a meat product is required to show the net quantity of the product, if the container containing the 
product is mounted on a display card and if the net quantity of the product is shown on the display card, the height of the 
characters used to show the net quantity shall be proportionate to the total area of the side of the display card that is displayed 
or visible under normal or customary conditions of sale or use of the product. 

Shipping meat products witliout a label 

125. The operator of a meat plant who is a licensee may ship a meat product to another meat plant operated by a licensee, 
without its being labelled in accordance with subsection 1 15 (1), if, 

(a) the product is shipped from the first meat plant in a bulk container or transport container that was sealed with an 
official seal under the authority of an inspector; 

(b) the product is accompanied by, 

(i) a document from the operator of the first meat plant stating that the product is fit for human consumption, and 
(ii) in the case of a prepared meat product, a list of the ingredients of the product; and 

(c) the official seal is broken only with the approval of an inspector. 
Label for inedible material 

126. (1) The operator of a slaughter plant shall ensure that inedible material at the plant that is intended for use in animal 
food, pet food or intended for pharmaceutical, therapeutic or research purposes has a label before it is shipped from the plant 
for any purpose other than disposal in accordance with section 91. 

(2) The label shall set out, 

(a) the species from which the material was taken and a description of the material; 

(b) in the case of inedible material intended for use in animal food, the words "Animal food" or the words naming the 
animal species for which the material is intended, followed by the word "Food" shown in letters of a height of not less 
than 1 .9 centimetres; 

(c) in the case of inedible material intended for use in pet food, the words "Pet food" or the words naming the companion 
animal species for which the material is intended, followed by the word "Food" shown in letters of a height of not less 
than 1 .9 centimetres; 

(d) in the case of inedible material intended for pharmaceutical, therapeutic or research purposes, the words "For 
pharmaceutical purposes", "For therapeutic purposes" or "For research purposes", as the case may be; 

(e) the net quantity of the material, which may be in weight or volume; 

(f) the name and address of the slaughter plant where the material was produced or labelled or the words "Prepared for" 
followed by the name and address of the person for whom the inedible material was produced or labelled; and 

(g) storage instructions for the material, including an indication if the material should be kept refrigerated or kept frozen. 

(3) All infomiation that this section requires the label required for a meat product to show shall be shown in a manner 
easily legible to any person under normal or customary conditions of sale or use of the material. 



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669 



Packaging 

Packaging 

127. The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that meat products packaged at the plant and inedible materials that are 
packaged at the plant and that are intended for use in animal food, pet food or intended for pharmaceutical, therapeutic or 
research purposes are packaged in accordance with this Part. 

Procedures 

128. The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that procedures used in the packaging of meat products at the plant protect 
the products from physical damage and prevent their contamination. 

Packaging material 

129. (1) Packaging material used at a meat plant for packaging meat products and inedible materials intended for use in 
animal food, pet food or intended for pharmaceutical, therapeutic or research purposes shall, 

(a) be durable, free of contaminants and suitable for packaging meat products or inedible materials, as the case may be; 
and 

(b) not be re-used unless it is corrosion-resistant, cleaned and sanitized after each use and capable of withstanding 
repeated cleaning. 

(2) Despite clause (1) (b), meat products shipped from a meat plant may be packaged in re-usable boxes if the boxes are 
lined, in good repair, fi"ee from contaminants and marked or labelled in accordance with this Part. 

(3) No packaging material used at a meat plant shall come into contact with a meat product if the contact may prevent the 
product from complying with this Regulation, the Food and Drugs Act (Canada) and the regulations made under that Act. 

(4) Packaging materials used at a meat plant shall be stored in an area that prevents contamination of the materials and 
shall be stored and handled in a hygienic manner that prevents such contamination. 

Weights of pre-packaged meat products 

130. (1) Subject to subsection (2), a meat product set out in Column 2 of the Table to this section shall not be pre- 
packaged in a weight other than the permitted weight set out opposite it in Column 3. 

(2) Subsection ( I ) does not apply to a meat product that is, 

(a) pre-packaged at a random weights and subsequently labelled with the net weight for retail sale; 

(b) packaged in hermetically sealed containers in accordance with subsection 99 (4); or 

(c) pre-packaged in weights over 1 kilogram. 

TABLE 
PERMITTED WEIGHTS FOR PRE-PACKAGED MEAT PRODUCTS 



Column 1 Column 2 



Column 3 



Item 



Meat Product 



Permitted Weights for Pre-Packaged Meat Products 

From I to 1 00 grams in increments of I gram, 250 grams, 375 grams, 500 grams, 
kilogram 



Sliced bacon 



to 100 grams in increments of I gram, 125 grams, 150 grams, 175 grams, 

— '"■" 300 grams, 375 grams, 400 grams, 500 grams, 600 grams, 

1 kilogram 



From 1 to 1 00 grams in increments 
200 grams, 250 grams, 300 grams, 
700 grams, 900 grams, 1 kilogram 

Frnm I fn 100 arflm*; ii 



Sliced ready-to-eat meat products and 
potted meat products 



From 1 to 1 00 grams in increments of 1 gram, 
250 grams, 300 grams, 375 grams, 450 grams 
750 grams, 900 grams, I kilogram 



I Kilogram 

increments of 1 gram, 125 grams, 175 grams, 225 grams, 
375 grams, 450 grams, 500 grams, 600 grams, 675 grams. 
I kilogram 



Sausages and sausage meat 



PART XI 11 
TRANSPORTATION STANDARDS 

Application of Part 

131. This Part does not apply to, 

(a) the operator of a meat plant who is not a licensee; or 

(b) a meat product that is not derived from a food animal. 
Receiving carcasses, etc. 

132. The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that carcasses, meat products and ingredients are received at the plant in a 
manner that protects them from physical damage. 



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670 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Shipping carcasses, etc. 

133. ( I ) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that carcasses and meat products are shipped from the plant in a manner 
that protects them from physical damage. 

(2) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that no carcass or meat product is shipped from the plant unless it is protected 
against deterioration and contamination. 

Standards for transport containers 

134. (1) Subject to subsection (2), the operator of a meat plant shall ensure that no carcasses, meat products and 
ingredients are received at the plant and no carcasses and meat products are shipped from the plant unless the operator 
inspects the transport container in which they are transported to or from the plant, as the case may be, and the container meets 
the following requirements: 

1 . It is clean, free of contamination and suitable for its intended use. 

2. It is constructed of material that is free from any constituents likely to contaminate carcasses, meat products or 
ingredients. 

3. It has inside surfaces that are hard, smooth, impervious to moisture and in good repair. 

4. It is capable of protecting a carcass, meat product, ingredient and any container for a carcass, meal product or 
ingredient against contamination. 

5. If it transports refrigerated or frozen carcasses, meat products or ingredients, it is equipped to maintain the carcasses, 
meat products or ingredients at an internal temperature of, 

i. 4 degrees Celsius or less, if they are refrigerated, or 

ii. -18 degrees Celsius or less, if they are frozen. 

6. It is equipped to prevent the accidental freezing of carcasses, meat products and ingredients if there is a risk of freezing 
and if freezing could adversely affect the carcasses, meat products or ingredients. 

7. It is not being used or has not been used for transporting animals, inedible materials, refuse, control products as 
defined in section 2 of the Pest Control Products Act (Canada), being chapter P-9 of the Revised Statutes of Canada, 
1985, pest control products as defined in subsection 2 (1) of the Pest Control Products Act (Canada), being chapter 28 
of the Statutes of Canada, 2002, or anything else that might contaminate a carcass, meat product or ingredient. 

(2) Subsection ( 1 ) does not apply to, 

(a) meat products that are transported to a meat plant in a transport container for processing for use or consumption by an 
individual or the individual's family if the container contains no other meat products during the time that they are 
transported to the plant; 

(b) a carcass of a food animal that dies during transportation to a meat plant and that is transported to the plant in a 
transport container that contains no meat products and no other carcasses during the time that the carcass is transported 
to the plant; 

(c) meat products that an individual has purchased at a meat plant and ships from the plant in a transport container for the 
use or consumption of the individual or that of the individual's immediate family if the container contains no other 
meat products during the time that they are shipped from the plant; or 

(d) meat products that are, 

(i) derived from a food animal or meat product that has been brought to a meat plant for slaughter or processing for 
an individual, and 

(ii) shipped from the plant in a transport container for the use or consumption of the individual or the individual's 
immediate family if the container, during the time that they are shipped from the plant, contains no meat 
products, other than meat products for the use or consumption of the individual or the individual's immediate 
family. 

PART XIV 
DISTRIBUTION RECORDS, RECALL PROCEDURE AND NOTICE TO THE PUBLIC 

Application of Part 

135. ( 1 ) This Part does not apply to, 

(a) the operator of a meat plant who is not a licensee; or 

(b) a meat product that is not derived from a food animal. 



270 



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n, 3 , THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 671 

(2) Sections 136 and 137 do not apply to a meat product that an individual purchases from a meat plant for the individual's 
own use or consumption or that of the individual's immediate family. 

Distribution record 

136. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall ensure that, at the time a carcass, meat product or inedible material is shipped 
from the plant, a written distribution record is made that records the address to which the carcass, meat product or inedible 
material, as the case may be, is shipped. 

(2) The operator shall keep the written distribution record at the plant at least until, 

(a) the third anniversary of the date on which it is made, in the case of a thermally-processed, hermetically-sealed meat 
product; or 

(b) the anniversary of the date on which it was made in all other cases. 
Recall procedure 

137. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall establish and maintain at the plant a written procedure that, when followed, 
would ensure the timely and effective recall of any carcass or meat product shipped from the plant. 

(2) The operator shall periodically evaluate the effectiveness of the recall procedure required by subsection (1), including 
whether carcasses or meat products can be effectively identified and recalled in a timely manner. 

(3) If a periodic evaluation required by subsection (2) determines that the recall procedure does not provide for the timely 
and effective identification and recall of carcasses or meat products, the operator of the meat plant shall immediately, 

(a) amend the procedure; and 

(b) evaluate the effectiveness of the amended procedure, including whether carcasses or meat products can be effectively 
identified and recalled in a timely manner. 

Notice of defective shipping 

138. (1) The operator of a meat plant shall immediately notify an inspector upon receiving information that indicates that 
a carcass or meat product that was shipped from the plant, 

(a) may not have been processed, packaged, labelled, handled, shipped or stored in accordance with this Regulation; or 

(b) may be contaminated. 

(2) The notice given under subsection (1) shall include the following information: 

1. If applicable, a description of how the carcass or meat product may not have been processed, packaged, labelled, 
handled, shipped or stored in accordance with this Regulation. 

2. If applicable, the nature of the contamination. 

3. The type of carcass or meat product. 

4. If applicable, the quantity of carcasses or meat products that may not have been processed, packaged, labelled, 
handled, shipped or stored in accordance with this Regulation. 

5. If applicable, the quantity of carcasses or meat products that may be contaminated. 

6. The distribution records for all carcasses and meat products that may not have been processed, packaged, labelled, 
handled, shipped or stored in accordance with this Regulation or that may be contaminated, except for meat products 
that an individual purchases from the meat plant for the individual's own use or consumption or that of the individual's 
immediate family. 

PART XV 
COMMENCEMENT 

Commencement 

139. This Regulation comes into force on the later of June 1, 2005 and the day by which sections 12 and 53 of the 
Act have been proclaimed in force. 



271 



672 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 







TABLE 1 
MEAT PRODUCT STANDARDS 






Column 1 


Column 2 


Column 3 


Column 4 


Column 5 


Column 6 


Item 


Meat Product 


Meat Product 
Ingredient 


Other Ingredients and 
Food Additives 


Mandatory 
Treatments and 
Processes 


Maximum or Minimum 
Permitted Amounts of 
Certain Contents and 
Other Requirements 


l.(a) 


Regular Ground Meat 


Fresh boneless skinless 
meat required 


None 


Comminuted 


Maximum 30 per cent fat. 


(b) 


Medium Ground Meat 


Fresh boneless skinless 
meat required 


None 


Comminuted 


Maximum 23 per cent fat. 


(c) 


Lean Ground Meat 


Fresh boneless skinless 
meat required 


None 


Comminuted 


Maximum 1 7 per cent fat 


(d) 


Extra lean Ground Meat 


Fresh boneless skinless 
meat required 


None 


Comminuted 


Maximum 1 per cent fat. 


(e) 


Mechanically separated 
meat 


Fresh mechanically 
separated meat 
required 


None 


None 


Minimum 14 per cent 
protein if sold as fresh 
meat product labelled for 
retail sale. 


2. (a) 


Meat Pattie 


Fresh boneless meat 
required 


Seasoning permitted 


Comminuted and 
formed 


Minimum 15 percent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 16 per cent 
total protein. 


(b) 


Meat Balls 

Meat Burger 

Meat Chopette 

Meat Croquette 

Meat Cutlette 

Meat Steakette uncooked 


Fresh boneless meat or 
fresh mechanically 
separated meat or both 
required 


Filler permitted 


Comminuted, formed 
and, if it contains 
mechanically 
separated meat, 
frozen 


Minimum 1 1 .5 per cent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 13 percent 
total protein. 


(c) 


Meat Balls 
Meat Burger 
Meat Chopette 
Meat Croquette 
Meat Cutlette 
Meat Steakette 
Cooked 


Boneless meat or 
mechanically separated 
meat or both required 


Filler permitted 


Comminuted, formed 
and cooked 


Minimum 13.5 percent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 1 5 per cent 
total protein. 


(d) 


Flakes of meat 


Boneless meat required 
In the case of chicken 
flakes, mechanically 
separated chicken 
permitted 


Water permitted 
Seasoning permitted 
Preservative permitted 


Chunked and cooked 


Minimum 15 percent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 16 percent 
total protein. 
In the case of chicken 
flakes, maximum 1 5 per 
cent mechanically 
separated chicken. 


3. (a) 


Sausage rcady-to-eat 

Salami 

Wiener 

Frankfurter 

Bologna 

Pepperoni 

Liver Sausage 

Liverwurst 

Mortadella 

Salametti 

Cervelat 


Boneless meat or meat 
by-product or 
mechanically separated 
meat, or any 
combination of them 
required 

If cooked, partially 
defatted beef or pork 
fatty tissue or both 
permitted 


Preservative required 
In the case of 
fermented sausage, 
lactic acid starter 
culture permitted 
Filler permitted 
Glucono delta lactone 
permitted 


Comminuted and 
cured, and one or 
more of the 
following: smoked, 
cooked dried and 
fermented 


Minimum 9.5 per cent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 1 1 per cent 
total protein. 
Minimum 25 per cent of 
the meat product 
ingredients to be liver, 
calculated as fresh liver, 
if product name is liver 
sausage or liverwurst. 


(b) 


Blood Sausage 


Blood required 
Boneless meat, meat 
by-product or 
mechanically separated 
meat, or any 
combination of them 
permitted 


Preservative permitted 
Filler permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked 


Minimum 9.5 per cent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 11 percent 
total protein. 



272 



'■H'i 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



673 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Column 3 


Column 4 


Column 5 


Column 6 


Item 


Meat Product 

1 ■■ . . 


Meat Product 
Ingredient 


Other Ingredients and 
Food Additives 


Mandatory 
Treatments and 
Processes 


Maximum or Minimum 
Permitted Amounts of 
Certain Contents and 
Other Requirements 


(c) 


Black Pudding ^ 
Blood Pudding 

I 


Blood required 
Boneless meat, meat 
by-product or 
mechanically separated 
meat, or any 
combination of them 
permitted 


Preservative permitted 
Filler permitted 
Gelling agent permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked 


Minimum 9.5 per cent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 1 1 per cent 
total protein. 


(d) 


Blood and Tongue 
Sausage 


Blood required 
Boneless tongue 
required 

Boneless meat, meat 
by-product or 
mechanically separated 
meat, or any 
combination of them 
permitted 


Filler permitted 
Preservative permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked 


Minimum 9.5 per cent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 1 1 per cent 
total protein. 


(e) 


Sausage 

Breakfast sausage 
Dinner Sausage 
Sausage Meat 


Fresh boneless meat, 
fresh meat by-product 
or fresh mechanically 
separated meat, or any 
combination of them 
required 


Filler permitted 


Comminuted and, if 
it contains 
mechanically 
separated meat, 
frozen 


Minimum 7.5 per cent 

meat product protein if 

sold as fresh meat 

product. 

Minimum 9 per cent total 

protein if sold as fresh 

meat product. 


(0 


Preserved Sausage or, if 
sodium or potassium 
nitrite or both added. 
Cured Sausage 


Fresh or preserved 
boneless meat or meat 
by-product, fresh or 
preserved 

mechanically separated 
meat, or any 
combination of them 
required 


Preservative required 
Filler permitted 


Comminuted and 
preserved, and, if it 
contains 
mechanically 
separated meat, 
frozen 


Minimum 7.5 per cent 
meat product protein if 
sold as raw meat product. 
Minimum 9 per cent total 
protein ifsoldasraw 
meat product. 


4. 


Potted Meat 
Meat Paste 
Meat Spread 
Meat Pate 


Boneless meat, meat 
by-product or 
mechanically separated 
meat, or any 
combination of them 
required 


Filler permitted 
Preservative permitted 
Gelling agent permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked 


Minimum 7.5 per cent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 9 per cent total 
protein. 


5. 


Liver Paste 
Liver Spread 
Pate de Foie 


Liver required 
Boneless meat required 
Fatty tissue permitted 


Preservative permitted 
Filler permitted 
Gelling agent permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked 


Minimum 7.5 per cent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 9 per cent total 
protein. 

Minimum 25 per cent of 
the meat product 
ingredients to be liver, 
calculated as fresh liver, 
except if packaged as 
shelf stable product in a 
hermetically sealed 
container, minimum 22 
per cent to be liver. 


6. 


Meat Loaf 
Meat Lunch 
Luncheon Meat 


Boneless meat, meat 
by-product or 
mechanically separated 
meat, or any 
combination of them 
required 

Partially defatted beef 
or pork fatty tissue or 
both permitted 
Ifbonelessmeat is 
chicken, chicken skin 
permitted 


Preservative permitted 
Filler permitted 
Gelling agent permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked, and one of 
the following: cured 
or frozen 


Minimum 9.5 per cent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 1 1 per cent 
total protein. 
In the case of chicken 
loaf, maximum 1 5 per 
cent chicken skin. 



273 



674 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Column 3 


Column 4 


Column 5 


Column 6 


Item 


Meat Product 


Meat Product 
Ingredient 


Other Ingredients and 
Food Additives 


Mandatory 
Treatments and 
Processes 


Maximum or Minimum 
Permitted Amounts of 
Certain Contents and 
Other Requirements 


7. 


Chopped Ham 


Boneless ham required 


Preservative required 
Water permitted 
Seasoning permitted 
Gelling agent permitted 


Comminuted, cured 
and cooked 


Minimum 12 percent 
meat product protein. 


8. 


Corned Beef 


Coarsely cut, pre- 
cooked, boneless beef 
or a mixture of 
coarsely cut, pre- 
cooked boneless beef 
and fresh boneless beef 
required 


Salt required 
Preservative required 
Water permitted 
Seasoning permitted 
Phosphates permitted 


Cooked and cured 


Minimum 21 percent 
meat product protein if 
enclosed in a 
hermetically sealed 
container. 


9. (a) 


Bacon 


Boneless pork belly 
required 


Salt required 
Preservative required 
Water permitted 
Seasoning permitted 
Phosphates permitted 


Cured 


None 


(b) 


Back Bacon 


Boneless pork loin 
required 


Salt required 
Preservative required 
Water permitted 
Seasoning permitted 
Phosphates permitted 


Cured and smoked, 
with an internal 
temperature during 
smoking of not less 
than 58 degrees 
Celsius 


None 


(c) 


Wiltshire Bacon 


Boneless pork loin 
with portion of belly 
attached required 


Salt required 
Preservative required 
Water permitted 
Seasoning permitted 
Phosphates permitted 


Cured 


None 


10. (a) 


Meat Roll 


Boneless meat required 


Filler permitted 
Preservative permitted 
Gelling agent permitted 
Phosphates permitted 


Formed 


Minimum 12 per cent 
meat product protein if 
the product is cooked and 
minimum 10 per cent 
meat product protein if 
the product is uncooked. 
Maximum 16 per cent 
emulsion. 


(b) 


Whole Chicken with 
Broth 


Dressed chicken 
carcass required 
Broth required 


Water permitted 
Seasoning permitted 
Gelling agent permitted 
Phosphates permitted 


Cooked 


Minimum 50 per cent of 
declared net quantity 
dressed chicken carcass if 
enclosed in a 
hermetically sealed 
container. 


(c) 


Boneless Chicken 


Boneless skinless 
chicken required 


Water pemiitted 
Seasoning permitted 
Gelling agent permitted 


Cooked 


Minimum 50 per cent 
chicken meat if enclosed 
in a hermetically sealed 
container. 


II. (a) 


Meat Pie 


Boneless meat required 
Gravy permitted 


Pastry crust required 
Filler permitted 
Preservative permitted 
Vegetables permitted 


Cooked except for 
the crust 


Minimum 20 per cent of 
the filling to be meat, 
calculated as fresh meat. 


(b) 


Beefsteak and Kidney 

Pie 

Beef Steak and Kidney 

Pudding 


Boneless beef required 
Beef kidney required 
Gravy permitted 


Pastry crust required 
Filler permitted 
Vegetables permitted 


Cooked except for 
the crust 


Minimum 30 per cent of 
the filling to be meat 
product, calculated as 
fresh meat product. 


(c) 


Tourtière 


Boneless beef, veal or 
pork, or any 
combination of them 
required 


Pasty crust required 
Filler permitted 
Potatoes permitted 


Cooked except for 
the crust 


Minimum 11.5 percent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 13 percent 
total protein. 


12. (a) 


Creton 


Boneless pork required 
Pork fatty tissue 
permitted 


Filler permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked 


Minimum 11.5 percent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 13 percent 
total protein. 



274 



I 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



675 



Column 1 


Column 2 


Column 3 


Column 4 


Column 5 


Column 6 


Item 


Meat Product 


Meat Product 
Ingredient 


Other Ingredients and 
Food Additives 


Mandatory 
Treatments and 
Processes 


Maximum or Minimum 
Permitted Amounts of 
Certain Contents and 
Other Requirements 


(b) 


Country-Style Creton 


Boneless pork required 
Pork fatty tissue 
permitted 


Water permitted 
Seasoning permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked 


Minimum 12 per cent 
meat product protein. 
Minimum 13 per cent 
total protein. 


13. (a) 


Headcheese 


Boneless headmeat 

required 

Boneless meat other 

than headmeat or meat 

by-product or both 

permitted 


Water permitted 
Seasoning permitted 
Preservative permitted 
Gelling agent permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked 


Minimum 50 per cent of 
the meat product 
ingredients to be 
headmeat. 


(b) 


Brawn 

; - 


Boneless headmeat 

required 

Boneless meat other 

than headmeat or meat 

by-product or both 

permitted 


Water permitted 
Seasoning permitted 
Preservative permitted 
Gelling agent permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked 


None 


14. (a) 


Wieners and Beans 
Wieners with Beans 


Wieners required 


Beans required 
Sauce permitted 


Cooked 


Minimum 25 per cent 
wieners. 


(b) 


Beans and Wieners 
Beans with Wieners 


Wieners required 


Beans required 
Sauce permitted 


Cooked 


Minimum 10 per cent 
wieners. 


15. 


Chili con Came 
Chili 


Boneless meat or 
mechanically separated 
meat or both required 
Gravy permitted 


Chili required 
Filler permitted 
Beans permitted 


Comminuted and 
cooked 


Minimum 20 per cent 
boneless or mechanically 
separated meat calculated 
as raw ingredient. 
Mechanically separated 
meat to contain minimum 
14 per cent protein. 


16. (a) 


Stew 


Boneless meat required 
Gravy permitted 


Vegetables required 


Cooked 


Minimum 20 per cent 
meat calculated as raw 
ingredient. 

Minimum 30 per cent 
vegetables calculated as 
raw ingredients. 


(b) 


Irish Stew 

1 


Boneless meat 
consisting of beef, 
mutton or lamb, or any 
combination of them 
required 
Gravy permitted 


Vegetables required 


Cooked 


Minimum 20 per cent 
meat calculated as raw 
ingredient. 

Minimum 30 per cent 
vegetables calculated as 
raw ingredients. 


(c) 


Vegetable Stew with 
Meat 


Boneless meat required 
Gravy permitted 


Vegetables required 


Cooked 


Minimum 12 percent 
meat calculated as raw 
ingredient. 

Minimum 38 per cent 
vegetables calculated as 
raw ingredients. 


(d) 


Meat Dinner 
Meat Bourguignon 
Meat Goulash 
Other Specialty Meat 
Stew Products 


Boneless meat required 
Gravy permitted 


Vegetables required 


Cooked 


Minimum 25 per cent 
meat calculated as raw 
ingredient. 

Minimum 55 per cent 
meat and vegetables 
calculated as raw 
ingredients. 


17. (a) 


Meat Ball Stew 


Meat balls required 
Gravy permitted 


Vegetables required 


Cooked 


Minimum 22 per cent 
meat balls calculated as 
raw ingredients. 
Minimum 30 per cent 
vegetables calculated as 
raw ingredients. 


(b) 


Meat Balls and Gravy 


Meat balls required 
Gravy required 


None 


Cooked 


Minimum 50 per cent 
meat balls calculated as 
raw ingredients. 



275 



676 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



Column 



Column 2 



Column 3 



Column 4 



Column 5 



Column 6 



Item 



Meat Product 



Meat Product 
Ingredient 



Other Ingredients and 
Food Additives 



Mandatory 
Treatments and 
Processes 



Maximum or Minimum 
Permitted Amounts of 
Certain Contents and 
Other Requirements 



18. (a) 



Lard 



Fresh pork fatty tissue 
required 



Preservative permitted 



Rendered 



Relative density of not 
less than 0.894 and not 
more than 0.906, 
calculated with the lard at 
40 degrees Celsius and 
water at 20 degrees 
Celsius. 

Refractive index of not 
less than 1 .448 and not 
more than 1.461, 
calculated using the 
sodium D-line as the light 
source and with the lard 
at 40 degrees Celsius. 
A titre of not less than 32 
degrees Celsius and not 
more than 45 degrees 
Celsius. 

Saponification value of 
not less than 1 92 and not 
more than 203, expressed 
as milligrams potassium 
hydroxide per gram of 
fat. 

Iodine value of not less 
than 45 and not more 
than 70. calculated using 
the Wijs test. 
Unsaponifiable matter 
content of not more than 
1 2 grams per kilogram. 
Acid value of not more 
than 2.5 milligrams 
potassium hydroxide per 
gram of fat. 
Peroxide value of not 
more than 1 6 
milliequivalents peroxide 
oxygen per kilogram of 
fat. 

Maximum I percent 
substances resulting from 
the rendering process, 
other than fatty acids and 
fat. 



(b) 



Leaf Lard 



Fresh abdominal fatty 
tissue of swine, 
excluding fatty tissues 
adhering to intestines 
required 



Preservative permitted 



Rendered at a 
moderately high 
temperature 



As in the box 
immediately above, 
except for an Iodine value 
of not less than 45 and 
not more than 65. 



19. 



Suet 



Fresh fatty tissues from 
the omentum and 
kidney region of 
bovines required 



Cereal permitted 
Salt permitted 



None 



Relative density of not 
less than 0.893 and not 
more than 0.898, 
calculated with the suet at 
40 degrees Celsius and 
water at 20 degrees 
Celsius. 

Refractive index of not 
less than 1 .448 and not 
more than 1 .460, 
calculated using the 
sodium D-line as the light 
source and with the suet 
at 40 degrees Celsius. 



276 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



677 



Column I 



Item 



Column 2 



Meat Product 



Column 3 



Meat Product 
Ingredient 



Column 4 



Other Ingredients and 
Food Additives 



Column 5 



Mandatory 
Treatments and 
Processes 



Column 6 



Maximum or Minimum 
Permitted Amounts of 
Certain Contents and 
Other Requirements 



20. 



21. 



Tallow 



Shortening other than 
butter or lard 



Fresh beef or mutton 
fatty tissues or both 
required 



Animal or vegetable 
fat or oil or a 
combination of them 
required 



Preservative permitted 



Rendered 



Preservative permitted 
Anti-foaming agent 
permitted 

Stearyl monoglyceridyl 
citrate permitted 
Monoglycerides or a 
combination of 
monoglycerides and 
diglycerides of fat 
forming acids 
permitted 
Lactylated 
monoglycerides or a 
combination of 
lactylated 

monoglycerides and 
lactylated diglycerides 
of fat forming acids 
permitted 



None 



A titre of not less than 
42.5 degrees Celsius and 
not more than 47 degrees 
Celsius. 

Saponification value of 
not less than 190 and not 
more than 200, expressed 
as milligrams of 
potassium hydroxide per 
gram of fat. 
Iodine value of not less 
than 32 and not more 
than 47, calculated using 
the Wijs test. 
Unsaponifiable matter 
content of not more than 
10 grams per kilogram. 
Acid value of not more 
than 2.0 mg potassium 
hydroxide per gram of 
fat. 

Peroxide value of not 
more than 1 
milliequivalents peroxide 
oxygen per kilogram of 
fat. 

If in comminuted form, 3 
per cent cereal and 
maximum 1 per cent salt. 



None 



Monoglycerides 
maximum 10 per cent 
monoglycerides and 
diglycerides, whether 
lactylated or not, 
maximum 20 per cent of 
weight of shortening. 
Lactylated 
monoglycerides and 
lactylated diglycerides 
maximum 8 per cent of 
weight of shortening. 



9/05 



\ 



277 



678 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L 'ONTARIO 

ONTARIO REGULATION 32/05 

made under the 

ONTARIO NEW HOME WARRANTIES PLAN ACT 

Made: September 23, 2004 
Filed: February 11,2005 

Amending Reg. 892 of R.R.O. 1990 
(Administration of the Plan) 

Note: Regulation 892 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview wnich can be found at www.e-lawh. eo v.oii.ca . 

1. The definition of "Corporation" in section 1 of Regulation 892 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 is 
revoked and the following substituted: 

"Corporation" means Tarion Warranty Corporation; ("Société") 

RÈGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 32/05 

pris en application de la 
LOI SUR LE RÉGIME DE GARANTIES DES LOGEMENTS NEUFS DE L'ONTARIO 

pris le 23 septembre 2004 
déposé le 1 1 février 2005 

modifiant le Régi. 892 des R.R.O. de 1990 
(Administration du Régime) 

Remarque : Le Règlement 892 a été modifié antérieurement. Ces modifications sont indiquées dans le Sommaire de 
l'historique législatif des règlements qui se trouve sur le site www.lois-en-li|jnc.t;ouv.on.ca . 

1. La définition de «Société» à l'article I du Règlement 892 des Règlements refondus de l'Ontario de 1990 est 
abrogée et remplacée par ce qui suit : 

«Société» La personne morale appelée Tarion Warranty Corporation. («Corporation») 



Passed by the Directors on September 23, 2004. 
Adopté par les administrateurs le 23 septembre 2004. 



Tarion Warranty Corporation: 
Le président, 

R. E. WadE 
Chair 

Le secrétaire, 

Alex W. MacFarlane 
Secretary 



Confirmed by the members in accordance with the Corporations Act on September 23, 2004. 
Ratifié par les membres conformément à la Loi sur les personnes morales le 23 septembre 2004. 



Le secrétaire, 

Alex W. MacFarlane 
Secretary 



9/05 

278 



I 



( ; THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 679 

ONTARIO REGULATION 33/05 

made under the 
ONTARIO NEW HOME WARRANTIES PLAN ACT 

Made: September 23, 2004 
Filed: February 11,2005 

Amending Reg. 894 of R.R.O. 1990 
(Terms and Conditions of Registration of Builders and Vendors) 

Note: Regulation 894 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview which can be found at vvvvw.e-laws.gov.on.ca . 

1. (I) Section 0.1 of Regulation 894 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 is amended by adding the following 
definition: 

"controlling principal", in respect of a builder, means a person or combination of persons that either alone or together have a 
direct or indirect controlling interest in the builder, ("commettant contrôlant") 

(2) Section 0.1 of the Regulation is amended by adding the following subsection: 

(2) A builder is associated with another builder if each of them has the same controlling principal. 

2. (1) Paragraph 4 of section 1 of the Regulation is amended by adding at the end the following: 

The Corporation may waive the obligation to indemnify and save harmless the Corporation and the insurers set out in 
this paragraph if, 

i. the loss relates to a warranty claim under clause 13 (1) (a) or (b) of the Act or under section 14 or subsection 15 
(2) of Regulation 892 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 (Administration of the Plan) made under the 
Act, 

ii. the Corporation, under section 16 of the Act, has served a notice of a decision made under section 14 of the Act 
denying a claim for payment out of the guarantee fund, 

iii. the registrant, and any associated builder, is in full compliance with the Act and the regulations and all 
agreements with the Corporation throughout the conciliation and appeal processes described in section 17 of the 
Act, and 

iv. the registrant has fully and completely co-operated with the Corporation throughout the conciliation and appeal 
processes described in section 17 of the Act and has participated in the processes as required by the Corporation. 

(2) The Addendum to paragraph 12 of section 1 of the Regulation is amended by striking out "ONTARIO NEW 
HOME WARRANTY PROGRAM" in the title and substituting "TARION WARRANTY CORPORATION". 

(3) Clause S (viii) of the Addendum to paragraph 12 of section 1 of the Regulation is amended by striking out 
"Ontario New Home Warranty Program" wherever that term appears and substituting in each case "Tarion 
Warranty Corporation". 

(4) Section 6 of the Addendum to paragraph 12 of section 1 of the Regulation is amended by striking out "Ontario 
New Home Warranty Program" and substituting "Tarion Warranty Corporation". 

RÈGLEMENT DE L'ONTARIO 33/05 

pris en application de la 

LOI SUR LE RÉGIME DE GARANTIES DES LOGEMENTS NEUFS DE L'ONTARIO 

pris le 23 septembre 2004 
déposé le 1 1 février 2005 

modifiant le Règl. 894 des R.R.O. de 1990 
(Modalités et conditions d'inscription applicables aux constructeurs et aux vendeurs) 

Remarque : Le Règlement 894 a été modifié antérieurement. Ces modifications sont indiquées dans le Sommaire de 
l'historique législatif des règlements qui se trouve sur le site www. lois-en-ligne. go uv. on. ca. 

1. (I) L'article 0.1 du Règlement 894 des Règlements refondus de l'Ontario de 1990 est modifié par adjonction de 
la définition suivante : 

279 



680 



THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



«commettant contrôlant» À l'égard d'un constructeur, personne ou groupe de personnes qui, seules ou conjointement, 
détiennent un bloc de contrôle direct ou indirect dans le constructeur, («controlling principal») 

(2) L'article 0.1 du Règlement est modifié par adjonction du paragraphe suivant : 

(2) Le constructeur est associé à un autre constructeur s'ils ont le même commettant contrôlant. 

2. (1) La disposition 4 de l'article 1 du Règlement est modifiée par adjonction de ce qui suit à la fin de la 
disposition : 

La Société peut dispenser la personne inscrite de l'obligation énoncée à la présente disposition si les conditions 
suivantes sont réunies ; 

i. la perte se rapporte à une réclamation au titre de la garantie visée à l'alinéa 13 (1) a) ou b) de la Loi ou à l'article 
14 ou au paragraphe 15 (2) du Règlement 892 des Règlements refondus de l'Ontario de 1990 (Administration du 
Régime) pris en application de la Loi, 

ii. la Société, en application de l'article 16 de la Loi, a fait signifier un avis de la décision, prise en application de 
l'article 14 de la Loi, de refuser une réclamation en paiement sur le fonds de garantie, 

iii. la personne inscrite et les constructeurs associés se conforment pleinement à la Loi, aux règlements et aux 
ententes conclues avec la Société tout au cours des processus de conciliation et d'appel visés à l'article 17 de la 
Loi, 

iv. la personne inscrite a coopéré pleinement avec la Société tout au cours des processus de conciliation et d'appel 
visés à l'article 17 de la Loi et y a participé comme l'exige la Société. 

(2) L'addendum de la disposition 12 de l'article 1 du Règlement est modifié par substitution de «PERSONNE 
MORALE APPELÉE TARION WARRANTY CORPORATION» à «PROGRAMME APPELÉ ONTARIO NEW HOME 
WARRANTY PROGRAM» dans le titre de l'addendum. 

(3) L'alinéa 5 (viii) de l'addendum de la disposition 12 de l'article 1 du Règlement est modiilé par substitution de 
«à la personne morale appelée Tarion Warranty Corporation» à «au programme appelé Ontario New Home Warranty 
Program» et par substitution de «Dès qu'elle reçoit l'avis, la personne morale» à «Dès qu'il reçoit l'avis, le 
programme». 

(4) L'article 6 de l'addendum de la disposition 12 de l'article 1 du Règlement est modifîé par substitution de «la 
personne morale appelée Tarion Warranty Corporation» à «le programme appelé Ontario New Home Warranty 
Program». 

Passed by the Directors on September 23, 2004. 
Adopté par les administrateurs le 23 septembre 2004. 

Tarion Warranty Corporation: 



Le président, 

R.E. Wade 
Chair 

Le secrétaire, 

Alkx W. MacFarlane 
Secretary 



Confirmed by the members in accordance with the Corporations Act on September 23, 2004. 
Ratifié par les membres conformément à la Loi sur les personnes morales le 23 septembre 2004. 



Le secrétaire. 

Alex W. MacFarlane 
Secretary 



9/05 



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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 681 



NOTE: The Table of Regulations - Legislative History Overview and other tables related to regulations can be found at the 
e-Laws web site (ww w.e-lavvs.gov.on.ca ) under Tables. Consolidated regulations may also be found at that site by clicking 
on Statutes and associated Regulations under Consolidated Law. 

REMARQUE : On trouve le Sommaire de l'historique législatif des règlements et d'autres tables liées aux règlements sur le 
site Web Lois-en-ligne ( www. lois-en-lign e. gouv. on. ca) en cliquant sur «Tables». On y trouve également les règlements 
codifiés en cliquant sur le lien Lois et règlements d'application sous la rubrique «Textes législatifs codifiés». 



\ 



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, I THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 707 

Publications under the Regulations Act 
Publications en vertu de la Loi sur les règlements 

2005—03—05 

ONTARIO REGULATION 34/05 

made under the 
ONTARIO DRUG BENEFIT ACT 

Made: February 15,2005 
Filed: February 16,2005 

Amending O. Reg. 20 1 /96 
(General) 



Note; Ontario Regulation 201/96 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations 

.on.ca. 



Ontario Regulation 201/96 has previously been amended. Those amei 
Legislative History Overview which can be found at wvvvv.e-laws.gov. 



1. Section 7.1 of Ontario Regulation 201/96 is amended by adding tlie following paragraph: 

7. Amendments dated February 24, 2005. 

2. This Regulation conies into force on February 24, 2005. 

Made by: 

^ George Smitherman 

i Minister of Health and Long-Term Care 

Date made: February 15, 2005. 
10/05 

ONTARIO REGULATION 35/05 
I made under the 

DRUG INTERCHANGEABILITY AND DISPENSING FEE ACT 

Made: February 15,2005 
Filed: February 16,2005 

Amending Reg. 935 of R.R.O. 1990 
(General) 

Note: Regulation 935 has previously been amended. Those amendments are listed in the Table of Regulations - Legislative 
History Overview which can be found at www. e-laws.aov. on.ca . 

1. The definition of "Formulary" in subsection 1 (1) of Regulation 935 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 
is amended by adding the following paragraph: 

12. Amendments dated February 24, 2005; 

2. This Regulation comes into force on February 24, 2005. 

Made by; 

George Smitherman 
Minister of Health and Long-Term Care 

Date made: February 15, 2005. 
10/05 

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708 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 

ONTARIO REGULATION 36/05 

made under the 

LIGHTNING RODS ACT 

Made: February 16,2005 
Filed: February 18,2005 

Amending Reg. 712 of R.R.O. 1990 
(General) 

Note: Regulation 7 1 2 has not previously been amended. 

1. Regulation 712 of the Revised Regulations of Ontario, 1990 is amended by adding the following French version: 

DISPOSITIONS GÉNÉRALES 

DÉFINITIONS 
1. Les définitions qui suivent s'appliquent au présent règlement. 

«acier recouvert de cuivre» Acier à revêlement soudé continu de cuivre, ce revêlement constituant au moins le quart de la 
section transversale totale, («copper-clad steel») 

«à revêtement métallique» Dont les parois sont faites ou recouvertes de métal, («metal-clad») 

«à toiture métallique» Dont le toit est fait ou recouvert de métal, («metal-roofed») 

«borne aérienne» Prolongement au-dessus du conducteur, constitué d'une tige ou d'un tube pointu, («air-terminal») 

«câble» Faisceau de fils entortillés ou tressés pour former un conducteur, («cable») 

«calibre» Unité de mesure du diamètre des fils métalliques ou de l'épaisseur de la tôle qui est conforme aux normes établies 
par American Wire Gange ou Brown and Sharpe Gauge Standards, («gauge») 

«conducteur» Partie d'un système conçue pour transmettre au sol le courant d'un coup de foudre, («conductor») 

«conducteur à bout mort» Conducteur n'ayant de prise de terre que par l'intermédiaire du conducteur dont il est dérivé. 
(«dead-end conductor») 

«conducteur de descente» Partie verticale d'un conducteur connectée à une prise au sol. («down-conductor») 

«conducteur dérivé» Conducteur qui dérive en biais du conducteur continu, («branch-conductor») 

«cône de protection» Cône vertical ayant la pointe d'une borne aérienne pour sommet et dont le rayon de base n'est pas 
supérieur à la hauteur verticale de la borne aérienne par rapport à la base, («cone of protection») 

«fixation» Dispositif servant à maintenir un conducteur en place, («fastener») 

«galvanisé» Protégé par un placage de zinc pouvant subir quatre immersions de une minute dans une solution saturée de 
sulfate de cuivre sans présenter de dépôt fixe de cuivre, («galvanized») 

«mis à la masse» Relié de façon à établir un contact mécanique et électrique permanent et étroit, («bonded») 

«prise de terre» Partie du conducteur enfouie dans le sol qui est en contact électrique avec la terre, («grounding») 

«prise de terre auxiliaire» Prise de terre supplémentaire connectée à la prise de terre principale, («auxiliary grounding») 

«prise de terre indépendante» Prise de terre qui n'est pas connectée au système principal, mais qui est connectée à un objet 
métallique, («independent grounding») 

«prise de terre principale» Partie d'une prise de terre qui constitue le prolongement direct d'un conducteur de descente. 
(«main grounding») 

«raccord» Dispositif servant à réaliser une connexion entre deux conducteurs, entre un conducteur et une autre partie d'un 
système ou entre un conducteur et un objet métallique, («connector») 

«support de borne aérienne» Dispositif servant à maintenir fermement une borne aérienne, («air-terminal support») 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 709 



«système» Matériaux assemblés et installés sur un bâtiment ou une structure pour les protéger des effets de la foudre, 
(«system») 

«tige de mise à la terre» Tige pleine, de cuivre, d'acier recouvert de cuivre ou d'acier galvanisé, utilisée comme prise de terre, 
(«ground-rod») 

«toit plat» Toit à l'horizontale ou toit ayant une dénivellation maximale de un pied entre deux points situés à six pieds l'un de 
l'autre sur un plan horizontal, («flat roof») 

2. Les articles 3 à 56 ne s'appliquent pas : 

a) aux cheminées des centrales électriques ou thermiques ou des usines de traitement; 

b) aux dépôts d'explosifs ou aux réservoirs de liquides inflammables. 

Matériaux 

3. (1) Les matériaux utilisés dans un système sont faits de cuivre, d'un alliage de cuivre ou d'aluminium, à l'exception : 

a) des tiges en acier recouvert de cuivre et en acier galvanisé utilisées comme prises de terre; 

b) du fer galvanisé des supports de bornes aérieimes, des raccords, des clous, des vis, des boulons, des plaques servant de 
liaison aux toitures ou aux bardages métalliques et des séparateurs entre le cuivre, ou un alliage de cuivre, et 
l'aluminium; 

c) du plomb servant d'ancrage, pour protéger les autres matériaux contre la corrosion ou pour séparer le cuivre, ou 
l'alliage de cuivre, de l'aluminium. 

(2) Les parties en aluminium du système ou de la structure sur laquelle celui-ci est installé ne doivent venir en contact 
avec le cuivre ni avec un alliage de cuivre à aucun point d'attache ou de connexion. 

(3) L'aluminium ne doit pas être installé sous terre ni dans le béton ou la maçonnerie. 

4. (1) Sous réserve des paragraphes 48 (2) et (3), les câbles : 

a) ont au moins sept fils métalliques en cuivre ou en aluminium étiré à chaud dont le calibre ne doit pas être inférieur au 
calibre 17 dans le cas du cuivre ou au calibre 14 dans le cas de l'aluminium; 

b) qui sont utilisés sur des structures d'au plus 60 pieds de hauteur, pèsent : 

(i) s'ils sont faits de cuivre, au moins trois onces au pied linéaire, 
(ii) s'ils sont faits d'aluminium, au moins deux onces au pied linéaire; 

c) qui sont utilisés sur des structures de plus de 60 pieds de hauteur, pèsent : 

(i) s'ils sont faits de cuivre, au moins quatre onces au pied linéaire, 

(ii) s'ils sont faits d'aluminium, au moins 2,75 onces au pied linéaire. 

(2) Dans le cas des structures dont les parties sont de hauteurs différentes, le poids du câble protégeant chaque partie est au 
moins égal au poids du câble requis pour protéger une structure de même hauteur. 

5. (1) Les jonctions et connexions de câbles conducteurs doivent pouvoir résister à une traction de 200 livres et assurer un 
contact électrique permanent. 

(2) La connexion de câbles en ligne droite se fait au moyen d'un raccord de cuivre malléable ou d'un alliage de cuivre 
malléable de calibre 17 au moins ou d'aluminium de calibre 14 au moins, qui est conçu pour être en contact sur au moins 
trois pouces avec chacim des câbles ainsi connectés. 

(3) Les connexions de câbles en T ou en Y se font : 

a) soit au moyen d'un raccord de cuivre malléable ou d'alliage de cuivre malléable de calibre 17 au moins ou 
d'aluminium de calibre 14 au moins qui est conçu pour être en contact sur au moins un pouce avec le câble continu et 
qui : 

(i) lorsque le raccord est boulonné, est en contact sur au moins deux pouces avec le câble dérivé, 

(ii) lorsque le raccord est bridé, est en contact sur au moins trois pouces avec le câble dérivé; 

b) soit en déroulant, sur au moins dix pouces, l'extrémité de l'un des câbles, en séparant cette partie en deux parts égales 
ou à peu près égales, en les enroulant fermement dans des directions opposées autour de l'autre câble et le long de 
celui-ci, et en attachant les extrémités de manière à les empêcher de se relâcher. 

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710 THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 



(4) Lorsque deux câbles se croisent, ils sont mis à la masse au moyen d'un raccord bridé, boulonné ou riveté qui est bien 
ajusté autour des deux câbles ou en les enveloppant à l'intersection avec au moins quatre boucles de fil métallique de calibre 
14 au moins. 

6. (1) Sous réserve des paragraphes 48 (2) et (3), les feuillards conducteurs sont faits de cuivre de calibre 17 au moins ou 
d'aluminium de calibre 14 au moins et ont une largeur minimale de 1 'A pouce lorsqu'ils sont utilisés sur des bâtiments et des 
structures d'au plus 60 pieds de hauteur et une largeur minimale de deux pouces lorsqu'ils sont utilisés sur des bâtiments et 
des structures de plus de 60 pieds de hauteur. 

(2) Les trous qui sont percés dans les feuillards conducteurs pour recevoir des boulons, des rivets et des vis sont espacés 
d'au moins trois quarts de pouce, mesurés du centre d'un trou à l'autre, et sont situés à au moins un quart de pouce des bords 
du feuillard. 

(3) Les feuillards conducteurs utilisés pour mettre à la terre des masses métalliques ou pour les relier entre elles ne sont 
munis que des trous nécessaires à leurs fixations, connexions et ajustement. 

7. ( I ) La connexion de feuillards en ligne droite, en T ou en Y se fait au moyen d'au moins deux boulons ou de deux 
rivets et d'un chevauchement égal à la largeur du feuillard. 

(2) Lorsque deux feuillards conducteurs se croisent, ils sont mis à la masse au moyen d'un boulon ou d'un rivet. 

(3) Les rivets et les boulons utilisés pour effectuer les connexions entre feuillards conducteurs ont un diamètre minimal 
d'un quart de pouce et une longueur suffisante pour assurer une connexion ferme. 

8. ( 1 ) Une connexion en T ou en Y se fait : 

a) entre un câble continu et un feuillard conducteur : 

(i) soit au moyen d'un raccord ajusté fermement autour du câble sur au moins un pouce et attaché au feuillard 
conducteur au moyen d'un boulon ou de deux rivets, 

(ii) soit en boulonnant ou en rivetant le feuillard conducteur autour du câble après l'avoir fermement ajusté autour de 
celui-ci; 

b) entre un câble dérivé et un feuillard conducteur reliés par un raccord : 

(i) fermement ajusté autour du câble sur au moins deux pouces, si le raccord est boulonné, ou sur au moins trois 
pouces, s'il est bridé, 

(ii) attaché au feuillard conducteur au moyen d'un boulon ou de deux rivets. 

(2) La connexion en croisement d'un câble et d'un feuillard conducteur se fait au moyen d'un raccord en cuivre de calibre 
17 ou en aluminium de calibre 14 : 

a) fait de façon à s'ajuster sur le câble; 

b) attaché au feuillard conducteur au moyen de boulons ou de rivets. 

9. Sous réserve des paragraphes 49 (2) et 50 (2), les rallonges ou parties métalliques des bâtiments et des structures ne 
doivent servir de conducteurs que si la continuité électrique de la masse métallique est assurée en permanence et que celle-ci 
est composée de cuivre, d'un alliage de cuivre ou d'aluminium et est dotée d'une surface exposée d'au moins huit pwuces de 
largeur sur toute sa longueur ou d'une surface en coupe transversale pleine d'au moins 1 'A pouce carré. Toutefois, dans le 
cas des monuments et des structures similaires, les pièces lourdes et de grande envergure, composées de tout autre métal 
conducteur et pesant au moins trois livres au pied linéaire, peuvent servir de conducteurs. 

10. (1) Sous réserve des paragraphes 49 (2) et 50 (2), les conducteurs sont acheminés, en suivant le trajet le plus direct 
possible, sur les toits et le long des faîtes et des parapets de façon à relier entre elles les bornes aériennes et, en suivant le 
trajet le plus direct possible, sur les avant-toits vers les meilleurs emplacements de prise au sol. Toutefois, lorsque la nature 
d'un toit ou sa construction rend la pose d'accessoires sur le toit difficile ou déconseillée, les conducteurs peuvent être 
acheminés sur le bois de garnissage parallèle au toit et une connexion est faite près de l'avant-toit entre la gouttière 
métallique et le conducteur, et, dans le cas des toits métalliques, entre l'avant-toit métallique et le conducteur. 

(2) Les bâtiments et les structures, à l'exception des objets effilés, tels les mâts et les silos qui n'ont pas besoin de plus 
d'une prise de terre en vertu du paragraphe 53 (3), sont munis d'au moins deux conducteurs de descente. 

(3) Sur les toits plats, les conducteurs sont acheminés à moins de deux pieds du bord du toit ou sur les parapets. Toutefois, 
les conducteurs ne sont pas requis sur la partie du toit plat des lucarnes située à moins de deux pieds des avant-toits, si ceux- 
ci ont moins de 50 pieds de longueur. 

(4) Sur les toits plats, en plus des conducteurs acheminés à moins de deux pieds du bord du toit ou sur les parapets, 
d'autres conducteurs sont acheminés en parallèle sur le toit de façon que l'intervalle qui les sépare ne dépasse pas 50 pieds : 

a) dans une seule direction, si la dimension la plus étroite du toit a plus de 50 pieds mais moins de 100 pieds; 

b) dans deux directions, si la dimension la plus étroite a au moins 100 pieds. 

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, I , THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 71 1 

11. (1) La longueur maximale des conducteurs à bout mort est de 16 pieds. 

(2) Les conducteurs ne doivent pas être isolés des bâtiments ou des structures sur lesquels ils sont installés. 

(3) Sous réserve des dispositions du paragraphe 31 (2) visant la protection des prises de terre contre la corrosion, les 
conducteurs ne doivent pas être acheminés à l'intérieur d'un tuyau en métal, à l'exception d'un tuyau en cuivre, en alliage de 
cuivre ou en aluminium, et le conducteur doit être électriquement connecté aux deux extrémités du tuyau. 

(4) Les conducteurs ne doivent pas être acheminés sur la pente d'un toit à proximité de l'avant-toit ou à tout autre endroit 
où ils pourraient se détacher ou être endommagés par l'action de la glace ou de la neige. 

(5) Les conducteurs ne doivent pas être suspendus sur une distance supérieure à quatre pieds sans support intermédiaire 
adéquat. 

(6) Les conducteurs contournant une partie en saillie d'une structure, notamment une cheminée ou un avant-toit, ne 
doivent pas être acheminés de façon abrupte, mais plutôt en décrivant une courbe ou un angle ouvert. 

(7) Si possible, les conducteurs ne doivent pas être situés à moins de six pieds de la charpente métallique, des boîtes 
contenant de l'équipement électrique et des canalisations métalliques, notamment les conduits métalliques. Toutefois, s'il 
n'est pas possible de respecter la séparation de six pieds, ces structures métalliques sont reliées aux conducteurs. 

(8) Si possible, les conducteurs ne doivent pas être situés à moins de six pieds : 

a) des fils électriques ou téléphoniques exposés; 

b) des antennes de radio ou de télévision. 

(9) Les conducteurs ne doivent pas être situés à moins de six pieds d'un réservoir de liquide ou de gaz inflammable. 

12. Les conducteurs sont acheminés de manière ordonnée et sont suffisanmient tendus pour bien cadrer dans l'ensemble. 
Toutefois, dans le cas des structures, notamment des élévateurs à grains, qui subissent une déformation physique au cours de 
chaque cycle de chargement et de déchargement, les conducteurs doivent avoir assez de flexibilité pour éviter toute rupture. 

13. Les conducteurs sont acheminés de façon qu'il n'y ait pas, dans leur parcours vers une ou plusieurs prises de terre, une 
remontée totale de plus de 10 pouces entre deux points de ceux-ci. Dans le cas des conducteurs à bout mort, la remontée 
totale ne doit pas dépasser six pouces. En aucun cas la remontée ne doit dépasser un pouce sur une distance de deux pouces 
mesurée sur un plan horizontal. 

14. Si possible, les conducteurs ne doivent pas être situés à moins de six pieds d'objets métalliques intérieurs, notamment 
une stalle, un montant, les rails d'un convoyeur à fumier, un tuyau, un poteau, une poutre, un réservoir d'eau, une cuisinière 
ou une fournaise. Toutefois, si le conducteur est situé à moins de six pieds de l'objet, il y est connecté de la façon prescrite à 
l'article 45. 

15. Si le conducteur ne peut être acheminé le long d'un parcours en ligne droite à cause d'un obstacle, notamment une 
coupole ou un ventilateur, il est acheminé horizontalement autour de l'obstacle. Si, en raison de sa dimension ou de sa forme, 
l'obstacle requiert plus d'une borne aérienne, le conducteur est aussi acheminé par-dessus l'obstacle. 

Conducteurs DE DESCENTE 

16. (1) Les bâtiments et structures rectangulaires ayant un toit qui n'est pas un toit plat sont munis d'au moins deux 
conducteurs de descente. Si la longueur de la structure est supérieure à 100 pieds, celle-ci est munie d'un conducteur de 
descente supplémentaire pour chaque 60 pieds de longueur ou fraction de ce nombre au-delà de 100 pieds. 

(2) Les bâtiments et structures rectangulaires ayant un toit plat sont munis d'au moins deux conducteurs de descente. Si le 
périmètre du bâtiment est supérieur à 200 pieds, ce dernier est muni d'un conducteur de descente supplémentaire pour chaque 
100 pieds de périmètre ou fraction de ce nombre au-delà de 200 pieds. 

17. (I) Les bâtiments ayant des ailes en forme de L ou de T ou en retrait sont munis de conducteurs posés sur la partie 
principale comme si celle-ci était indépendante de ses ailes. Toutefois, les conducteurs de descente de la partie principale 
peuvent, lorsque cela est possible, servir de conducteurs de descente aux conducteurs des ailes qui y sont connectés. 

(2) L'aile d'un bâtiment dont le faîte est au même niveau que le faîte de la partie principale, mesuré le long de la pente du 
toit, ou est à un niveau inférieur à celui-ci de moins de cinq pieds, est munie d'un conducteur de descente supplémentaire 
pour chaque 80 pieds de longueur ou fraction de ce nombre mesurés le long du mur ou de la fondation. Les conducteurs de 
l'aile et de la partie principale sont reliés à la jonction des deux faîtes. 

(3) Sous réserve de l'article 54, l'aile d'un bâtiment dont le faîte est à plus de cinq pieds en dessous du faîte de la partie 
principale, mesurés le long de la pente du toit, est munie de deux conducteurs de descente. Lorsqu'elle mesure plus de 100 
pieds de longueur, mesurés le long du mur ou de la fondation, l'aile est munie d'un conducteur de descente supplémentaire 
pour chaque 60 pieds de longueur ou fraction de ce nombre au-delà de 100 pieds. Lorsque le faîte de l'aile intersecte la moitié 
supérieure du toit principal, le conducteur du faîte de l'aile est connecté au conducteur du faîte de la partie principale. 

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18. (1) Lorsque le faîte de la partie intermédiaire d'un bâtiment en forme de H est à un niveau qui n'est pas inférieur de 
plus de 10 pouces à celui du faîte des parties principales, il est muni d'un conducteur de descente s'il s'étend sur plus de 100 
pieds et d'un conducteur de descente supplémentaire s'il s'étend sur plus de 140 pieds. 

(2) Lorsque le faîte de la partie intermédiaire d'un bâtiment en forme de H est à un niveau qui est inférieur de plus de 10 
pouces à celui du faîte des parties principales, il est muni d'un conducteur de descente et, s'il s'étend sur plus de 60 pieds, 
d'un conducteur de descente supplémentaire pour chaque 60 pieds de longueur ou fraction de ce nombre au-delà de 60 pieds. 

19. (1) Les conducteurs de descente posés sur les écoles sont protégés contre tout endommagement ou déplacement au 
moyen d'une moulure, d'une boîte ou d'un caniveau de bois qui se prolonge jusqu'à au moins 10 pieds de hauteur à partir du 
sol et qui est solidement fixé au mur : 

a) sur du bois, au moyen d'au moins deux feuillards et de vis; 

b) sur de la brique ou de la maçonnerie, au moyen de deux feuillards et de vis fixées dans des ancrages de plomb. 

(2) Les conducteurs de descente posés sur des bâtiments, notamment des granges, où ils peuvent être endommagés ou 
déplacés par le bétail ou des véhicules, sont protégés contre ces risques. 

Fixations 

20. ( 1 ) Les conducteurs sont solidement attachés au moyen de fixations qui conviennent au type et aux dimensions du 
conducteur ainsi qu'à la nature de la structure. 

(2) L'ancrage devant être incorporé dans le briquetage ou la maçonnerie peut être fait de plomb. Toutefois, il est interdit 
d'utiliser des coins de bois comme ancrages destinés aux fixations. 

(3) Constituent des fixations les feuillards et les vis, les fixations à tige à vis, les fixations à tige en éventail et les fixations 
à tige à garnir. Une fois installées, les fixations doivent pouvoir résister à une traction directe de 100 livres. 

(4) Si l'utilisation d'une fixation mentionnée au paragraphe (3) présente des risques d'endommagement pour le toit, une 
fixation coulée qui est fixée au toit au moyen d'un adhésif convenable peut être utilisée si la fixation peut résister à une 
traction directe de 50 livres et si elle est munie d'une fourche de construction robuste qui peut être bouclée autour d'un câble 
sans fendiller le métal. 

(5) Les conducteurs à feuillard sont solidement maintenus en place : 

a) sur du bois, au moyen de vis à bois ou de vis à garnir espacées à des intervalles d'au plus six pieds si elles sont 
installées en paires ou d'au plus trois pieds si elles sont installées une à une; 

b) sur de la brique ou sur tout autre type de maçonnerie, au moyen de vis d'expansion d'un diamètre d'au moins un quart 
de pouce vissées dans un ancrage et espacées aux intervalles prévus à l'alinéa a). 

(6) Les fixations à feuillard sont en cuivre de calibre 20 au moins ou en aluminium de cahbre 18 au moins, ont une largeur 
de 0,4 pouce au moins et sont formées de façon à bien s'ajuster sur le conducteur. 

(7) Les fixations à feuillard sont fixées : 

a) dans le bois, au moyen de deux vis à bois ou vis à garnir d'au moins cinq huitièmes de pouce de longueur ou au moyen 
de clous droits d'au moins I % de pouce de longueur et sont recouvertes d'un enduit protecteur, notamment d'asphalte 
ou de ciment, qui rend la fixation permanente; 

b) dans la brique ou la maçonnerie, au moyen de vis enfoncées dans des ancrages. 

21. (1) Les fixations à tige sont munies d'une fourche de construction robuste qui peut être bouclée sans fendiller le métal. 

(2) La tige de fixation à vis : 

a) pour le bois, équivaut à une vis à bois n" 10 de 1 'A de pouce de longueur; 

b) pour le briquetage ou la maçonnerie, a un diamètre d'au moins un quart de pouce et une longueur suffisante pour se 
fixer en permanence. 

(3) La tige d'une fixation à tige en éventail mesure approximativement un demi-pouce de largeur à son point le plus étroit 
et au moins un dixième de pouce d'épaisseur et trois pouces de longueur. 

(4) La tige des fixations à tige à garnir est nervurée ou barbelée de façon à adhérer au trou lorsqu'elle y est vissée ou est 
construite de façon à prendre de l'expansion dans le trou ou l'ancrage après y avoir été vissée ou enfoncée. 

22. Sous réserve du paragraphe 20 (5) et de l'article 23, les fixations sont requises : 

a) au plus six pouces de toutes les connexions de borne aérienne au conducteur; 

b) au plus six pouces des interconnexions de conducteurs; 

c) sur les conducteurs de descente, au plus trois pieds du sol et quatre pieds des avant-toits; 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 713 

d) sur les conducteurs, au plus 12 pouces des avant-toits et au-dessus de ceux-ci; 

e) à toutes les articulations principales des conducteurs ou au plus 12 pouces de celles-ci; 

f) à des points intermédiaires de façon que les fixations ne soient pas espacées de plus de six pieds; 

g) indépendamment des accessoires non permanents montés sur les bâtiments et les structures. 

Cas Où les fixations peuvent être omises 

23. Les fixations ne sont pas requises en aussi grand nombre ni aux intervalles que prescrit l'article 22, si le conducteur est 
soutenu et attaché de façon qu'il ne puisse être ni déplacé ni endommagé et si, selon le cas : 

a) les caractéristiques de construction rendent les fixations inutiles; 

b) leur installation causerait des dommages considérables au bâtiment ou à la structure; 

c) le conducteur est dissimulé sous un revêtement, notamment la toiture; 

d) les matériaux de couverture de la toiture, notamment la tuile ondulée, forment un conduit adapté au conducteur. 

Bornes aériennes 

24. (1) Le tubage des bornes aériennes est composé de cuivre ou d'un alliage de cuivre de calibre 20 ou d'aluminium de 
calibre 18. 

(2) Les tiges de bornes aériennes en cuivre ou en un alliage de cuivre ont un diamètre de sept seizièmes de pouce. Les 
tiges de bornes aériennes en aluminium ont un diamètre d'un demi-pouce. 

25. La hauteur minimale d'une borne aérienne, installée : 

a) sur un mât, sur une flèche d'église, sur des objets semblables ou sur des parties de structures semblables, est de neuf 
pouces au-dessus du sommet de l'objet ou de la partie; 

b) sur un faîte ou un parapet composé de matériaux combustibles, est de 12 pouces au-dessus de ceux-ci, et, lorsque le 
toit et le faîte ou le parapet sont composés de matériaux non combustibles, elle est de neuf pouces au-dessus de ceux- 
ci; 

c) sur un toit plat, est de 12 pouces au-dessus de celui-ci si elle est posée à moins de deux pieds du bord du toit, et de 18 
pouces si elle est connectée à des conducteurs intermédiaires sur le toit; 

d) sur une cheminée, un ventilateur ou une coupole, ou à côté de ceux-ci, est de 12 pouces au-dessus du sommet de ceux- 
ci; 

e) sur un silo, est de 12 pouces au-dessus de celui-ci. 

26. Les bornes aériennes sont installées : 

a) à proximité de chaque pignon exposé et de chaque coin d'un toit plat, d'une terrasse ou d'un parapet, à une distance 
correspondant à au plus deux fois la hauteur de la borne aérienne; 

b) à proximité des coins extérieurs du toit plat d'une lucarne, à une distance correspondant à au plus deux fois la hauteur 
de la borne aérienne, jusqu'à concurrence de six pieds, lorsque : 

(i) la jonction du toit de la lucarne et du toit principal est située à moins de trois pieds, à la verticale, en dessous du 
faîte principal, 

(ii) le toit de la lucarne se prolonge à plus de six pieds, à l'horizontale, à partir de sa jonction avec le toit principal; 

c) à proximité du pignon d'une lucarne ayant un faîte situé à moins de trois pieds, à la verticale, en dessous du faîte 
principal ou se prolongeant à plus de six pieds, à l'horizontale, à partir de sa jonction avec la moitié supérieure du toit 
principal ou à plus de huit pieds, à l'horizontale, à partir de sa jonction avec la moitié inférieure du toit principal, à une 
distance correspondant à au plus deux fois la hauteur de la borne aérienne, jusqu'à concurrence de six pieds; 

d) sur les saillies non métalliques au-dessus du toit ou du parapet ou à au plus 12 pouces de celles-ci; 

e) sur les cheminées ou à côté de celles-ci de façon que la distance entre un point du sommet de la cheminée et la borne 
aérienne ne soit pas supérieure à deux fois la hauteur de la borne aérienne au-dessus du sommet de la cheminée, 
jusqu'à concurrence de 30 pouces; 

f) au plus 12 pouces d'un tuyau de poêle traversant le toit; 

g) le long des faîtes, du bord des toits plats et des parapets à des intervalles ne dépassant pas 10 fois les hauteurs totales 
des deux bornes aériennes adjacentes, jusqu'à concurrence de 25 pieds; 

h) le long des conducteurs intermédiaires sur des toits plats à des intervalles ne dépassant pas 50 pieds. 

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27. Une borne aérienne n'est pas requise sur les cheminées d'usine ni sur toute autre construction métallique permanente 
en saillie, mais celle-ci doit être mise à la masse au moyen d'un conducteur. 

28. (1) Les connexions de bornes aériennes doivent résister à une traction de 50 livres. 

(2) Les connexions aux toits métalliques se font au moyen de plaques ou de feuillards métalliques : 

a) auxquels la borne aérienne est soudée, boulonnée ou rivetée; 

b) en contact étroit avec le toit métallique sur une surface d'au moins neuf pouces carrés; 

c) solidement attachés au toit au moyen de vis ou de rivets. 

(3) Les connexions aux conducteurs à feuillard se font au moyen de boulons ou de rivets. . j 

29. ( 1 ) Les bornes aériennes sont maintenues solidement en place au moyen d'ancres, de supports ou d'autres dispositifs 
adéquats. 

(2) Les ancres : 

a) sont constituées de feuillards de cuivre ou d'un alliage de cuivre de calibre 15 au moins ou de feuillards d'aluminium 
de calibre 14 au moins d'une largeur minimale de I 'A de pouce ou de tiges de cuivre, d'un alliage de cuivre, 
d'aluminium ou de fer galvanisé d'un diamètre d'au moins un quart de pouce et elles sont munies d'au moins trois 
pattes; 

b) mesurent au plus 40 pouces de hauteur et, si elles ont une hauteur supérieure à 18 pouces, elles sont munies de deux 
guides pour les bornes aériennes; 

c) sont maintenues en position sur du bois au moyen de deux vis par patte; 

d) sont maintenues en position sur des toits en béton, des parapets en briques et sur toute autre maçonnerie au moyen 
d'une vis d'expansion à chaque patte fixée dans un ancrage fait de plomb ou d'une matière équivalente. 

(3) Les supports : 

a) sont composés de cuivre, d'un alliage de cuivre ou d'aluminium; 

b) sont conçus pour entrer dans le tube d'une borne aérienne sur une distance d'au moins deux pouces; 

c) sont attachés aux surfaces en maçonnerie, notamment aux cheminées, au moyen de fixations solides et aux surfaces en 
bois au moyen d'au moins trois vis mesurant au moins I % de pouce de longueur. 

(4) Pour l'application du présent article, outre les ancres et les supports, sont des dispositifs adéquats : 

a) les feuillards et les boulons ou les rivets de cuivre encerclant l'objet de soutènement; 

b) les fixations prescrites au paragraphe 20 (7); 

c) les bases en fonte solides, si la borne aérienne ne mesure pas plus de deux pieds de hauteur et : 

(i) lorsque la borne aérienne est de forme tubulaire, si elle est sertie sur un goujon mesurant deux pouces de 
longueur, 

(ii) lorsque la borne aérienne est pleine, si elle est vissée dans la base sur une profondeur d'au moins un pouce. J 

Prises DE TERRE 

30. Sous réserve du paragraphe 55 (3), les prises de terre sont constituées de câbles de cuivre, de tiges de cuivre ou d'acier 
recouvert de cuivre d'un diamètre minimal d'un demi-pouce, de tiges d'acier galvanisé d'un diamètre minimal de cinq 
huitièmes de pouce ou de plaques de cuivre. 

31. (I) Les prises de terre sont espacées autour des bâtiments et des structures de façon que les conducteurs puissent être 
acheminés au-dessus des avant-toits jusqu'aux prises de terre en suivant le trajet le plus direct possible. 

(2) Les prises de terre ne doivent pas être exposées à l'action corrosive des fuites provenant des étables ou des produits 
chimiques, sauf si elles sont protégées par un tuyau ou un tube en plomb de fabrication solide qui se dresse à au moins 12 
pouces au-dessus de la surface du sol et qui est enfoncé à trois pieds dans le sol. L'ouverture supérieure du tuyau ou du tube 
est scellée pour le rendre imperméable. 

(3) Les prises de terre ne doivent pas être situées à moins de six pieds d'une conduite de gaz, d'un réservoir de gaz, d'huile 
ou d'essence ou de la prise de terre d'un appareil électrique ou d'un système de fils électriques. Toutefois, les conduites d'eau 
souterraines peuvent servir de prise de terre commune. 

(4) Les prises de terre auxiliaires sont installées de façon à tirer profit de la plus grande superficie de terre. 

32. (I) En plus des prises de terre prescrites à l'article 31, le conducteur de descente est connecté à la conduite d'eau 
souterraine, s'il s'en trouve une à proximité, à un point situé sous terre à l'extérieur des bâtiments. 

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THE ONTARIO GAZETTE / LA GAZETTE DE L'ONTARIO 7 1 5 



(2) Lorsque la prise de terre a été installée au moyen d'un piquet de mise à la terre ou d'une tarière, le trou autour de la 
prise de terre est rempli de terre sèche ou de terre mêlée à de l'eau pour lui doimer la consistance d'une boue fine, puis le tout 
est compacté. 

(3) Il est interdit de placer du coke, des cendres ou du sel autour des prises de terre. 

(4) Les tiges de mise à la terre sont connectées aux conducteurs de descente en cuivre à au moins six pouces et à au plus 
12 pouces en dessous de la surface du sol. Elles sont connectées aux conducteurs de descente en aluminium à au moins six 
pouces et à au plus 12 pouces au-dessus de la surface du sol. 

(5) Les prises de terre connectées aux conducteurs de descente en aluminium sont constituées de tiges de mise à la terre 
d'acier galvanisé. 

(6) Les raccords des prises de terre sont composés : 

a) de cuivre ou d'un alliage de cuivre dans le cas des conducteurs en cuivre; 

b) d'aluminium ou de fer galvanisé dans le cas des conducteurs en aluminium. 

33. (1) Les conducteurs de descente sont connectés aux tiges de mise à la terre au moyen d'une ou de plusieurs brides de 
serrage maintenues en contact étroit, au moyen de boulons ou de vis de pression, avec le conducteur de descente et la tige de 
mise à la terre sur au moins trois pouces. 

(2) L'interconnexion de prises de terre auxiliaires ou la connexion d'une prise de terre auxiliaire à une prise de terre 
principale se fait de la façon prescrite à l'article 5. 

(3) La connexion à une conduite d'eau se fait au moyen d'une bride de serrage boulonnée à fond autour de la conduite, 
après que la rouille et les incrustations ont été enlevées. 

(4) La connexion à une plaque en cuivre se fait soit au moyen de rivets ou de boulons, soit par soudage. 

34. Dans un sol profond composé essentiellement d'argile, y compris d'argile limoneuse, la prise de terre est établie, selon 
le cas : 

a) en faisant pénétrer le câble ou les tiges de mise à la terre dans le sol jusqu'à une profondeur verticale d'au moins 10 
pieds; 

b) en faisant pénétrer le câble ou les tiges de mise à la terre dans le sol jusqu'à une profondeur d'au moins six pieds et en 
ajoutant une prise de terre auxiliaire; 

c) en enfouissant le câble dans une tranchée sur une distance d'au moins 12 pieds, à une profondeur d'au moins deux 
pieds sur toute sa longueur. 

35. Dans un sol profond composé essentiellement de sable, de gravier et de pierres, y compris de sable limoneux, la prise 
de terre est établie : 

a) soit en faisant pénétrer le câble ou les tiges de mise à la terre dans le sol jusqu'à une profondeur verticale d'au moins 
10 pieds et en ajoutant une prise de terre auxiliaire; 

b) soit en enfouissant le câble dans une tranchée sur une distance d'au moins 12 pieds, à une profondeur d'au moins deux 
pieds sur toute sa longueur, et en ajoutant une prise de terre auxiliaire. 

36. Dans un sol composé essentiellement d'argile, y compris d'argile limoneuse, où un horizon dur ou la roche de fond se 
trouve à proximité de la surface, la prise de terre est établie : 

a) si l'horizon dur ou la roche de fond se trouve à au moins deux pieds sous la surface, en enfouissant le câble dans une 
tranchée sur une distance d'au moins 12 pieds; 

b) si l'horizon dur ou la roche de fond se trouve à au moins 12 pouces, mais à moins de deux pieds, sous la surface, en 
enfouissant le câble dans une tranchée sur une distance d'au moins 12 pieds et en ajoutant une prise de terre auxiliaire; 

c) si l'horizon dur ou la roche de fond se trouve à moins de 12 pouces sous la surface, en enfouissant le câble dans une 
tranchée sur une distance d'au moins 12 pieds et en ajoutant deux prises de terre auxiliaires. 

37. Dans un sol composé essentiellement de sable, de gravier et de pierres, y compris de sable limoneux, où un horizon 
dur ou la roche de fond se trouve à proximité de la surface, la prise de terre est établie : 

a) si l'horizon dur ou la roche de fond se trouve à au moins deux pieds sous la surface,